PQ1 Flashcards
(183 cards)
1
Q
Factor to convert immunoglobulin value from mg/dL to g/L
A
0.01
2
Q
A substance that can yield hydrogen or hydronium ion when dissolved in water
A
Acid
3
Q
A substance that can yield hydroxyl ions
A
Base
4
Q
Combination of a weak acid or weak base; a system that resists changes in pH
A
Buffer
5
Q
Heparin is added ____ per mL of blood in each test tube
A
0.2 mg/mL
6
Q
EDTA is added ____ per mL of blood in each test tube
A
1-2 mg/mL (1.5)
7
Q
Sodium oxalate is added ____ per mL of blood in each test tube
A
1-2 (1.5) mg/mL
8
Q
Sodium fluoride is added ____ per mL of blood in each test tube
A
10 mg/mL
9
Q
__ mg of sodium fluoride/mL blood prevents glycolytic enzyme or glycolysis up to 48-72 hrs
A
2
10
Q
Detection and quantification of the separated protein after electrophoresis is accomplished by
A
Densitometry
11
Q
It transports protein for thyroxine and triiodothyronine (thyroid hormones); it also binds with retinol-binding protein to form a complex that transports retinol (vitamin A)
A
Prealbumin
12
Q
A low _____ level is a sensitive marker of poor nutritional status
A
Prealbumin
NOTE:
Prealbumin > Albumin > Fibronectin
13
Q
Major roles of ______ is to maintain the equilibrium of cholesterol in peripheral cells by the REVERSE CHOLESTEROL TRANSPORT pathway
A
HDL
14
Q
Abetalipoproteinemia is also known as
A
Bassen-Kornzweig syndrome
15
Q
Lipid disorder:
HDL deficiency
A
Tangier’s dse
16
Q
Lipid disorder:
LDL deficiency
A
Bassen-Kornzweig (Abetalipoproteinemia)
17
Q
Lipid disorder:
B-lipoprotein deficiency
A
Bassen-Kornzweig (Abetalipoproteinemia)
18
Q
Lipid disorder:
Chylomicron/B-48 affected
A
Anderson’s
19
Q
Rare autosomal recessive disorder characterized by complete absence of HDL:
A
Tangier’s disease
20
Q
Chylomicron retention disease presents in childhood with fat malabsorption and low levels of plasma lipids. This syndrome is distinct from abetalipoproteinemia, as only abo B-48 appears to be affected
A
Anderson’s
21
Q
If left unprotected from light, bilirubin values may reduce by _____ per hour.
A
30-50%
22
Q
Major transport of cholesterol
A
LDL
23
Q
Use of wetting agents or incorrect pH buffers ______ the amount of unconjugated bilirubin measured as direct bilirubin:
Decreases unconjugated bilirubin
Increases unconjugated bilirubin
Indeterminate
No effect
A
Increases unconjugated bilirubin
24
Q
ALP isoenzyme that will resist heat denaturation at 65°C for 30 minutes:
A
Placental ALP
25
Heat stabile ALP isoenzyme
Placental
26
Heat labile ALP isoenzyme
Bone
27
Given the following results: ALP: marked increased; AST: slight increased; ALT: slight increased; and GGT: marked increased. This is most consistent with:
Acute hepatitis
Osteitis fibrosa
Chronic hepatitis
Obstructive jaundice
Obstructive jaundice
28
A physician orders several laboratory tests on a 55-year-old male patient who is complaining of pain, stiffness, fatigue and headaches. Based on the following serum test results, what is the most likely diagnosis? ALP: significantly increased; GGT: normal
Biliary obstruction
Cirrhosis
Hepatitis
Osteitis deformans (Paget disease)
Osteitis deformans (Paget disease)
29
Assay for GGT
Szasz
30
This analyte is used to validate whether the elevation in ALP is due to liver isoenzyme.
GGT
Elevated = liver dse
Normal = not liver
31
A 42-year-old male presents with anorexia, nausea, fever, and icterus of the skin and mucous membranes. He noticed that his urine had appeared dark for the past several days. The physician orders a series of biochemical tests. Based on the following test results, what is the most likely diagnosis? ALP: slightly elevated; ALT: markedly elevated; AST: markedly elevated; GGT: slightly elevated; Serum total bilirubin: moderately elevated; Urine bilirubin: positive; and Fecal urobilinogen: decreased
Acute hepatitis
Alcoholic cirrhosis
Metastatic carcinoma of the pancreas
Obstructive jaundice
Acute hepatitis
32
Given the following results:
ALP: slight increased
AST: slight increased
ALT: slight increased
GGT: slight increased
This is most consistent with:
a. Acute hepatitis
b. Chronic hepatitis
c. Obstructive jaundice
d. Liver hemangioma
b. Chronic hepatitis
33
Assay methods for AST are generally based on the principle of the Karmen method, which incorporates a coupled enzymatic reaction using:
Glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase
Glutamic pyruvic transaminase
Lactate dehydrogenase
Malate dehydrogenase
Malate dehydrogenase
34
The typical assay procedure for ALT consists of a coupled enzymatic reaction using ____ as the indicator enzyme.
Glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase
Glutamic pyruvic transaminase
Lactate dehydrogenase
Malate dehydrogenase
Lactate dehydrogenase
35
LOW LEVELS of maternal AFP indicate an increased risk for:
Anencephaly
Down syndrome
Presence of twins
Spina bifida
Down syndrome
36
Which set of results is consistent with uncompensated metabolic acidosis?
pH 7.25 HCO3- 15 mmol/L pCO2 37 mm Hg
pH 7.30 HCO3- 16 mmol/L pCO2 28 mm Hg
pH 7.45 HCO3- 22 mmol/L pCO2 40 mm Hg
pH 7.40 HCO3- 25 mmol/L pCO2 40 mm Hg
pH 7.25 HCO3- 15 mmol/L pCO2 37 mm Hg
37
Which set of results is consistent with uncompensated respiratory alkalosis?
A. pH 7.70, HCO3- 30 mmol/L, pCO2 25 mmHg
B. pH 7.66, HCO3- 22mmol/L, pCO2 20 mmHg
C. pH 7.46, HCO3- 38 mmol/L, pCO2 55 mmHg
D. pH 7.36, HCO3- 22 mmol/L, pCO2 38 mmHg
B. pH 7.66, HCO3- 22mmol/L, pCO2 20 mmHg
38
Increased AFP in pregnant women will indicate:
neural tube defect (spina bifida, anencephaly), twins
39
Increased AFP in non-pregnant is indicative of:
hepatocellular carcinoma
40
trisomy 21
Down syndrome
41
trisomy 18
Edward's syndrome
42
Hirsutism, which can be quantified using a measurement technique known as the:
Ferriman-Gallwey scale
Liley graph
T-score
Z-score
Ferriman-Gallwey scale
(rate 1-4)
43
Decreased T3 and T4, increased TSH:*
Primary hypothyroidism
Secondary hypothyroidism
Primary hyperthyroidism
Secondary hyperthyroidism
Primary hyperthyroidism
44
Gland and hormones involved in primary hyper/hypothyroidism
Thyroid
T3, T4
45
Gland and hormones involved in secondary hyper/hypothyroidism
Anterior pituitary gland
TSH, Thyrotropin
46
Gland and hormones involved in tertiary hyper/hypothyroidism
Hypothalamus
TRH
47
Increased T3, T4; Decreased TSH
Primary hyperthyroidism
48
Increased T3, T4; Increased TSH
Secondary HyperT
49
Decreased T3, T4; Decreased TSH
Secondary HypoT
50
Decreased TRH, TSH, T3, T4
Tertiary HypoT
51
Test used to differentiate secondary vs tertiary hypothyroidism
TRH Stimulation test
52
TRH Stimulation test:
Baseline TSH: Dec
TSH After TRH Admin: Dec
Secondary hypoT
53
TRH Stimulation test:
Baseline TSH: Dec
TSH After TRH Admin: Inc
Tertiary hypoT
54
Increased TSH; Normal T3, T4
Subclinical HypoT
55
Decreased TSH; Normal T3, T4
Subclinical HyperT
56
Predominant thyroid hormone
T4
57
Most potent thyroid hormone
T3
58
Fluorophore-labeled thyroxine competes with patient thyroxine for antibody in homogeneous system. Antibody-bound labeled thyroxine rotates slowly, emitting lower energy light.
Fluorescent polarization immunoassay (FPIA)
Fluorescent substrate-labeled inhibition immunoassay
Chemiluminescence
Microparticle enzyme immunoassay (MEIA)
Fluorescent polarization immunoassay (FPIA)
59
Fluorogenic substrate–labeled thyroxine competing with patient T4 for antibody in a homogeneous assay. Only unbound, leftover labeled T4 reacts with enzyme to form fluorescent product.
Fluorescent polarization immunoassay (FPIA)
Fluorescent substrate-labeled inhibition immunoassay
Chemiluminescence
Microparticle enzyme immunoassay (MEIA)
Fluorescent substrate-labeled inhibition immunoassay
60
The half-life of the circulating cocaine is: (Bishop)
0.5 to 1 hour
1 to 2 hours
2 to 3 hours
3 to 4 hours
0.5 to 1 hour
61
Water that is suitable for human consumption (i.e., water that can be used for drinking or cooking):
Boiled water
Distilled water
Filtered water
Potable water
Potable water
62
In the laboratory, a program that monitors the TOTAL TESTING PROCESS with the aim of providing the highest quality patient care:
Quality assessment/assurance (QA)
Quality control (QC)
Quality systems (QS)
None of these
Quality assessment/assurance (QA)
63
In an institution, a COMPREHENSIVE PROGRAM in which all areas of operation are monitored to ensure quality with the aim of providing the highest quality patient care:
Quality assessment
Quality assurance
Quality control
Quality systems
Quality systems
64
The methodology for a Lean Six Sigma quality improvement team will include consideration of all of the following factors EXCEPT:
Define
Measure
Analyze
Improve
Communicate
Communicate
NOTE:
DMAIC
- Define
- Measure
- Analyze
- Improve
- Control
65
Project team members:
Black belts
Green belts
Blue belts
White belts
Green belts (and yellow belts)
66
Project leaders/coaches:
Black belts
Green belts
Blue belts
White belts
Black belts
67
Project sponsors:
Black belts
Green belts
Blue belts
White belts
Blue belts
68
Project champions:
Black belts
Green belts
Blue belts
White belts
Blue belts
69
Introductory problem-solving teams:
Black belts
White belts
Blue belts
Green belts
White belts
70
Green belts contribute ____ of their time to improvement projects while delivering their normal job functions.
20%
40%
60%
100%
20%
71
8 Wastes of Lean
DOWNTIME
Defects
Overproduction
Waiting
Non-utilized talent
Transportation
Inventory
Motion
Extra Processing
72
Black belts contribute ______% of their time to quality improvement projs.
100%
73
Typically, a full Six Sigma improv. project takes ______ months to complete.
6-8 months
74
Smaller scale improvement projects are headed by ______ belts.
Purple
75
Small scale improvement projects takes ________ to complete.
1 week
76
Most effective at reducing hazards:
PPE
Administrative controls
Engineering controls
Substitution
Elimination
Elimination
77
Most effective to least effective at reducing hazards:
Elimination
Substitution
Engineering ctrl
Administrative ctrl
PPE
78
In the hierarchy of controls, arrange the following from the least effective to the most effective:
PPE, engineering controls, administrative controls, substitution, elimination
PPE, administrative controls, engineering controls, substitution, elimination
Administrative controls, engineering controls, PPE, elimination, substitution
Administrative controls, engineering controls, elimination, substitution, PPE
PPE, administrative controls, engineering controls, substitution, elimination
79
Duplication of DNA:
Transcription
Translation
Replication
None of these
Replication
80
Synthesis of RNA from a DNA template:*
Transcription
Translation
Replication
None of these
Transcription
81
Synthesis of protein:*
Transcription
Translation
Replication
None of these
Translation
82
Site of transcription (RNA to DNA)
Nucleus
83
Site of translation (RNA to protein)
Ribosomes
84
Which one of the following specimen requests is acceptable?*
Feces submitted for anaerobic culture
Foley catheter tip submitted for aerobic culture
Rectal swab submitted for direct smear for gonococci
Urine for culture of acid-fast bacilli
Urine for culture of acid-fast bacilli
85
Which of the following is the most appropriate method for collecting a urine specimen from a patient with an indwelling catheter?
Remove the catheter, cut the tip, and submit it for culture
Disconnect the catheter from the bag, and collect urine from the terminal end of the catheter
Collect urine directly from the bag
Aspirate urine aseptically from the catheter tubing
Aspirate urine aseptically from the catheter tubing
86
In thioglycolate broth, strictly aerobic organisms:*
Grow throughout the broth
Grow toward the top of the broth
Grow in the bottom of the broth
Demonstrate flocculation
Grow toward the top of the broth
87
In thioglycollate broth, these organisms will grow slightly below the surface where oxygen concentrations are lower than atmospheric concentrations:*
Obligate aerobes
Obligate anaerobes
Facultative anaerobes
Microareophilic organisms
Microareophilic organisms
88
Susceptibility testing performed on quality control organisms using a new media lot number yielded zone sizes that were too large for all antibiotics tested. The testing was repeated using media from a previously used lot number, and all zone sizes were acceptable. Which of the following best explains the unacceptable zone sizes?*
The antibiotic disks were not stored with the proper desiccant
The depth of the media was too thick
The depth of the media was too thin
The antibiotic disks were not properly applied to the media
The depth of the media was too thin
89
Mueller Hinton Agar standard depth
3-5 mm (average: 4 mm)
90
Agar too (thick/thin):
Large zone of inhibition
Agar too thin
91
Agar too (thick/thin):
Falsely sensitive
Agar too thin
92
Agar too (thick/thin):
Small zone of inhibition
Agar too thick
93
Agar too (thick/thin):
Falsely resistant
Agar too thick
94
After satisfactory performance of daily disk diffusion susceptibility quality control is documented, the frequency of quality control can be reduced to:*
Twice a week
Every week
Every other week
Every month
Every week
95
An isolate of Staphylococcus aureus was cultured from an ulcer obtained from the leg of a diabetic 79-year-old female patient. The organism showed resistance to methicillin. Additionally, this isolate should be tested for resistance or susceptibility to:*
Erythromycin
Gentamicin
Vancomycin
Kanamycin
Vancomycin
96
Which test is used for the determination of inducible clindamycin resistance in staphylococci and streptococci?*
E-test
D-zone test
A-test
CAMP test
D-zone test
97
The D-zone susceptibility test is used to test inducible resistance on S. aureus strains demonstrating an initial antibiotic susceptibility profile of:
Erythromycin sensitive, clindamycin sensitive
Erythromycin resistant, clindamycin sensitive
Erythromycin resistant, clindamycin resistant
Erythromycin sensitive, clindamycin resistant
Erythromycin resistant, clindamycin sensitive
98
Resistance to clindamycin can be induced in vitro by:*
Ampicillin
Erythromycin
Gentamicin
Penicillin
Erythromycin
99
Greater than 100,000 CFU/mL of a gram-negative bacilli were isolated on MacConkey from a urine specimen. Biochemical results are as follows: Glucose: acid, gas produced; Indole: negative; urea: positive; H2S: positive. The organism is most likely:*
Morganella morganii
Proteus vulgaris
Proteus mirabilis
Providencia stuartii
Proteus mirabilis
NOTE:
P. mirabilis: Indole (-)
P. vulgaris: Indole (+)
100
Organisms that are H2S positive:
SPACED
Salmonella
Proteus
Arizona
Citrobacter
Edwardsiella
101
A 64-year-old male with lymphoma has a positive blood culture at 18 hours incubation. The organism is a non-lactose fermenting gram-negative bacillus on MacConkey agar. Further testing gives the following reactions: oxidase: negative; motility: positive; TSI: alkaline/acid, no hydrogen sulfide; indole: positive; VP: positive; citrate: positive; urea: positive; phenylalanine deaminase: positive; ornithine decarboxylase: negative. The genus is:*
Morganella
Proteus
Providencia
Serratia
Providencia
102
Enterobacteriaceae are oxidase (+, - ) in general.
-
103
Phenylalanine deaminase (+) organisms:
PPM
Proteus
Providencia
Morganella
104
A community hospital microbiology laboratory is processing significant numbers of stool cultures because of an outbreak of diarrhea following heavy rains and flooding in the country. A media that should be incorporated in the plating protocol is:*
Colistin nalidixic acid for Listeria
MacConkey agar with sorbitol for Campylobacter
Mannitol salt agar for Enterococcus species
Thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose for Vibrio species
Thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose for Vibrio species
105
Vibrio can be collected and transported in:*
Cary-Blair medium
Buffered glycerol saline
Both of these
None of these
Cary-Blair medium
106
A branching gram-positive, partially acid-fast organism is isolated from a bronchial washing on a 63-year-old woman receiving chemotherapy. The organism does not hydrolyze casein, tyrosine or xanthine. The most likely identification is:*
Actinomadura madurae
Streptomyces somaliensis
Nocardia caviae
Nocardia asteroides
Nocardia asteroides
107
80% of Nocardia isolates are of what species?
Nocardia asteroides
108
Identify the organism with these characteristics: round elementary body, positive for glycogen-containing inclusions, susceptible to sulfonamides:*
Chlamydophila pneumoniae
Chlamydophila psittaci
Chlamydia trachomatis
Orientia tsutsugamushi
Chlamydia trachomatis
109
The infectious part of Chlamydia
elementary body
110
Identify the organism with these characteristics: round elementary body, negative for glycogen-containing inclusions, resistant to sulfonamides:*
Chlamydophila pneumoniae
Chlamydophila psittaci
Chlamydia trachomatis
Orientia tsutsugamushi
Chlamydophila psittaci
111
Culture plate is placed on its own shelf inside the incubator, which provides for a homogeneous atmosphere and efficient thermal conductivity in the incubator to bring the culture plate up to optimal conditions faster:*
Dry-heat oven
Humidity incubator
Smart incubator
Orbital shaking incubator
Smart incubator
112
Recognized as a low-temperature incubator or refrigerated incubator:*
Agitator
Bioreactor
BOD
Dry-heat oven
BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand)
NOTE: For cold-loving organisms
113
All of the following terms may be used to describe fungal colonial TOPOGRAPHY, except:*
Glabrose
Rugose
Umbonate
Verrucose
Glabrose
NOTE:
Topography: Rugose, Umbonate, Verrucose
Texture: Cottony, Velvety, Glabrous, Granular, Wooly
Surface described: Front, Reverse
114
Added to SDA to inhibit most contaminating bacteria:*
Dextrose
Chloramphenicol
Cycloheximide
Nystatin
Chloramphenicol
115
Added to SDA to inhibit saprophytic fungi:*
Dextrose
Chloramphenicol
Cycloheximide
Nystatin
Cycloheximide
116
Energy source in SDA:*
Dextrose (glucose)
Peptone
Chloramphenicol
Cycloheximide
Dextrose (glucose)
117
Hair, nail and skin scrapings for fungal culture:*
Wipe with soap and water
Wipe with 70% alcohol
Wipe with KOH
Do not wipe affected area
Wipe with 70% alcohol
NOTE: KOH is for microscopic exam
118
Number of stool specimens collected for ova and parasite examination (O&P):*
1
2
3
4
3
119
Specimens are more likely to contain trophozoites and should be examined within 30 minutes of passage:*
Liquid/diarrheic stool
Soft stool
Formed stool
None of these
Liquid/diarrheic stool
120
May contain both trophozoites and cysts:*
Liquid stool
Diarrheic stool
Soft stool
Formed stool
Soft stool
121
Stool specimens kept under refrigeration when preservatives are not available; these specimens are suitable for:
A. Ova
B. Ova & Parasite
C. Antigen only
D. Antigen & Antibody
C. Antigen only
122
Soil-transmitted helminth:*
Ascaris lumbricoides
Enterobius vermicularis
Strongyloides stercoralis
Wuchereria bancrofti
Ascaris lumbricoides
123
Unholy 3
HAT
Hookworms
Ascaris
Trichuris
124
Parasites involved in heart-to-lung migration
ASH
Ascaris
Strongyloides
Hookworms
125
The eggs of Trichostrongylus are very similar to those of:*
Ascaris
Enterobius
Trichuris
Hookworms
Hookworms
126
The worms are incapable of maturation within the human host and migrate aimlessly, causing tissue damage and inflammation:*
Echinococcus granulosus
Gnathostoma spinigerum
Taenia solium
Trichinella spiralis
Gnathostoma spinigerum
127
Transmission of the fluke to humans is by ingestion of aquatic plants, such as WATER CHESTNUTS, containing infective metacercariae:*
Clonorchis sinensis
Fasciolopsis buski
Heterophyes heterophyes
Paragonimus westermani
Fasciolopsis buski
128
Risk factors included a history of drinking impure water, eating frog or SNAKE MEAT, or using frog or snake meat as a poultice:*
Echinococcus granulosus
Spirometra mansonoides
Taenia saginata
Taenia solium
Spirometra mansonoides
129
For laboratory diagnosis of malaria, which of the following should be fixed with methanol:*
Thick blood film
Thin blood film
Both of these
None of these
Thin blood film
130
Gold standard for diagnosis of malaria
Thick and thin blood smear
131
In diagnosis of malaria, which part is used for:
ID:
Screening:
Thin
Thick
132
Specimen of choice for diagnosis of malaria via smear
Fresh/EDTA anti-coagulated blood
133
Preferred stain for blood parasite
Giemsa
134
All spills and potential surface contamination with Cryptosporidium oocysts should be disinfected using the following protocol: After removing organic material from the contaminated surface (e.g., by using a conventional laboratory detergent/cleaner) and absorbing the bulk of the spill with disposable paper towels, flood and completely cover the surface with undiluted _______.*
Ethyl alcohol
Formalin
3% hydrogen peroxide
30% hydrogen peroxide
3% hydrogen peroxide
135
Composition of 0.5 McFarland (barium sulfate) standard
1% sulfuric acid
1.175% barium chloride
136
Type of infections that are spread from animals to humans.
Zoonotic
137
Work practice controls, except:*
Handwashing after each patient contact
No eating, drinking or smoking in the laboratory
Splash guards
Warning signage
Splash guards
138
Deadly:*
0
4
X
Z
4
139
Following collection, urine specimens should be delivered to the laboratory promptly and tested within:*
30 minutes
1 hour
2 hours
3 hours
2 hours
140
In the four-glass urine collection method, which of the following is tested for urethral infection:*
VB1
VB2
EPS
VB3
VB1
141
Individual from whom specimen for drug testing is collected:*
Collector
Donor
Patient
Pusher
Donor (or client)
142
When drug test results are challenged, who is responsible for the final decision?
NRL for Toxicology: East Avenue Medical Center
143
When drug test results are not challenged, what happens to urine specimen?
Discard urine w/in 15 days
144
Amount of urine for refractometry:*
1 to 2 drops
1 to 2 mL
10 to 15 mL
15 to 20 mL
1 to 2 drops
145
Amount of urine for urinometer:
1 to 2 drops
1 to 2 mL
10 to 15 mL
15 to 20 mL
10 to 15 mL
146
Biggest variable in urinalysis testing is the conscientiousness of the laboratory personnel in:*
Physical examination of urine
Interpretation of color reactions
Microscopic examination
Reporting of result
Interpretation of color reactions
147
Hold the reagent strip ______ while comparing it with the color chart is recommended.*
Horizontally
Vertically
Either of these
None of these
Horizontally (to ensure against run-over)
148
Reagent pad for protein: trace values are considered to be:*
Less than 25 mg/dL
Less than 30 mg/dL
100 mg/dL
300 mg/dL
Less than 30 mg/dL
149
Nitrite detected by the Greiss reaction:*
Green to blue
Red to brown
Pink
Purple
Pink
NOTE: must be UNIFORM pink
Pink spots/edges: NEGATIVE for nitrite
150
The purpose of performing an albumin:creatinine ratio is to:*
Estimate the glomerular filtration rate
Correct for hydration in random specimens
Avoid interference for alkaline urines
Correct for abnormally colored urines
Correct for hydration in random specimens
151
Collecting duct RTE cells:*
Columnar
Cuboidal
Round
Oval
Cuboidal
152
PCT RTE cells:
Columnar
Cuboidal
Round
Oval
Columnar (or rectangular or convoluted)
153
DCT RTE cells:
Columnar
Cuboidal
Round
Oval
Round or oval
154
Transitional Epithelial (Urothelial) cells have (centrally, eccentrically) located nucleus.
Centrally located
155
RTE cells have (centrally, eccentrically) located nucleus
Eccentrically located
156
Largest epithelial cell
Squamous
157
largest RTE cells come from which part of the kidney
from PCT
158
Failure to inherit the gene to produce the enzyme hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyltransferase is responsible for the accumulation of ____ throughout the body.*
Calcium carbonate
Calcium oxalate
Cystine
Uric acid
Uric acid
159
Urinary crystals associated with foods high in oxalic acid, such as tomatoes and asparagus, and ascorbic acid:*
Ammonium biurate
Calcium carbonate
Calcium oxalate
Magnesium ammonium phosphate
Calcium oxalate
160
The finding of clumps of calcium oxalate crystals in fresh urine may be related to:*
Acute tubular necrosis
Metabolic disorder
Nephrotic syndrome
Renal lithiasis
Renal lithiasis
161
Cholesterol crystals are soluble in:*
10% NaOH
Ammonia
Chloroform
Dilute HCl
Chloroform
162
Differentiation between cystitis and pyelonephritis is aided by the presence of:*
WBC casts
RBC casts
Bacteria
Granular cast
WBC casts
163
Primary urinalysis results: leukocyturia; bacteriuria; microscopic hematuria; mild proteinuria and increased pH.*
Acute interstitial nephritis
Acute pyelonephritis
Acute tubular necrosis
Cystitis
Cystitis
164
Primary urinalysis results: leukocyturia; bacteriuria; WBC casts; bacterial casts, microscopic hematuria and proteinuria.*
Acute interstitial nephritis
Acute pyelonephritis
Acute tubular necrosis
Cystitis
Acute pyelonephritis
165
Urinalysis results include hematuria, possibly macroscopic, mild to moderate proteinuria, numerous WBCs, and WBC casts without the presence of bacteria:
A. Acute interstitial nephritis
B. Acute pyelonephritis
C. Acute tubular necrosis
D. Cystitis
A. Acute interstitial nephritis
166
Urinalysis findings include mild proteinuria, microscopic hematuria, and most noticeably the presence of RTE cells and RTE cell casts containing tubular fragments consisting of three or more cells:
A. Acute interstitial nephritis
B. Acute pyelonephritis
C. Acute tubular necrosis
D. Cystitis
C. Acute tubular necrosis
167
Odor of urine in cases of acute tubular necrosis
Odorless
168
Expected staining reaction of Trichomonas vaginalis in urine sediment (Sedi-stain):*
Pale pink
Pale purple
Light blue-green
Dark shade of blue-purple
Light blue-green
169
Following a head injury, which protein will identify the presence of CSF leakage through the nose?*
C-reactive protein
Myelin basic protein
Tau protein
Transthyretin
Tau protein
170
CSF cell count should be performed:*
Immediately
Within 5 minutes
Within 30 minutes
Within 1 hour
Immediately
171
A CSF total cell count is diluted with:*
Distilled water
Normal saline
Acetic acid
Methylene blue
Normal saline
172
A CSF WBC count is diluted with:*
Distilled water
Normal saline
Acetic acid
Methylene blue
Acetic acid
NOTE:
Rgts in CSF WBC ct = 3% acetic acid with methylene blue
173
A daily control slide for bacteria in CSF should also be prepared using:*
95% alcohol
0.2 mL saline and 95% alcohol
30% albumin
0.2 mL saline and 30% albumin
0.2 mL saline and 30% albumin
174
CSF test is frequently requested for patients with coma of unknown origin:*
Glucose
Glutamine
Lactate
Protein
Glutamine
175
The test of choice to detect neurosyphilis is the:*
RPR
VDRL
MHA-TP
FTA-ABS
VDRL
176
Normal appearance of gastric fluid:*
Clear and colorless
Clear and pale yellow
Pale gray with mucus
Pale gray with mucus and food particles
Pale gray with mucus
177
Amniotic fluid color in the presence of meconium:*
Blood-streaked
Yellow
Dark green
Dark red-brown
Dark green
178
Amniotic fluid color in cases of hemolytic disease:
Blood-streaked
Yellow
Dark green
Dark red-brown
Yellow
179
Amniotic fluid color in cases of trauma:
Blood-streaked
Yellow
Dark green
Dark red-brown
Blood-streaked
180
Amniotic fluid color that is indicative of fetal death:
Blood-streaked
Yellow
Dark green
Dark red-brown
Dark red-brown
181
First intestinal discharge of fetus
Meconium
182
Presence of plasma cells but noticeable lack of mesothelial cells in pleural fluid is associated with:*
Autoimmune disorders
Viral infections
Malignancy
Tuberculosis
Tuberculosis
183
Factor to convert immunoglobulin value from mg/dL to mg/L:
0.01
0.02586
0.05551
10
10
