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00LMR_PRACTICE QSTNS-PRETESTS > PQ3 > Flashcards

PQ3 Flashcards

(51 cards)

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1
Q

In the tolbutamide tolerance test, blood specimens are obtained for glucose and insulin before ________ of 1 g of a water-soluble form of tolbutamide and at 2, 15, 30, 60, 90, and 120 minutes afterwards.

A. Oral administration
B. Intramuscular injection
C. Intravenous injection
D. Sublingual administration

A

C. Intravenous injection

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2
Q

Current NCEP guidelines recommend patients be seated for how many minutes before sampling for cholesterol to prevent hemoconcentration:

A. 5 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 20 minutes

A

A. 5 minutes

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3
Q

A hormone which regulates water reabsorption in the collecting duct:

A. Aldosterone
B. Antidiuretic hormone
C. Growth hormone
D. Prolactin

A

B. Antidiuretic hormone

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4
Q

A system that stimulates water reabsorption by the collecting duct:

A. ADH
B. RAAS
C. Growth hormone
D. Thyroid hormone

A

B. RAAS

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5
Q

Most potent estrogen:

A. Estrone
B. Estradiol
C. Estriol
D. Testosterone

A

B. Estradiol

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6
Q

Which of the following is the most potent androgen?

A. Androstenedione
B. Dehydroepiandrosterone
C. Androsterone
D. Testosterone

A

D. Testosterone

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7
Q

When drawing a blood alcohol specimen, it is acceptable to clean the arm with:

A. Benzalkonium chloride
B. Isopropyl alcohol
C. Methanol prep
D. Tincture of iodine

A

A. Benzalkonium chloride

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8
Q

Urine solute exhibiting diurnal variation:

A. Creatinine
B. Glucose
C. Nitrite
D. 17-hydroxysteroids

A

D. 17-hydroxysteroids

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9
Q

Blood specimen for the creatinine clearance is collected:

A. At the start of the urine collection period
B. At the end of the urine collection period
C. At about 12 hours into the urine collection period
D. Any time during the urine collection period

A

C. At about 12 hours into the urine collection period

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10
Q

Reflectance photometry uses the principle that light reflection from the test pads _________ in proportion to the intensity of color produced by the concentration of the test substance.

A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Variable
D. Undetermined

A

B. Decreases

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11
Q

Black pleural fluid:

A. Hemothorax
B. Chylous material from thoracic duct leakage
C. Rupture of amoebic liver abscess
D. Aspergillus infection

A

D. Aspergillus infection

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12
Q

Possible cause of bulky or frothy stool:

A. Lower GI bleeding
B. Upper GI bleeding
C. Intestinal constriction
D. Pancreatic disorder

A

D. Pancreatic disorder

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13
Q

Standard precautions state: (UNIVERSAL PRECAUTION)

A. Handle only known HBV-positive or HIV-positive specimens as infectious
B. Personal protective equipment is required for only direct patient contact
C. Blood and body fluid precautions must be observed for all patients’ blood and body fluid specimens
D. Infectious specimens must be labeled with the biohazard symbol

A

C. Blood and body fluid precautions must be observed for all patients’ blood and body fluid specimens

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14
Q

The Biosafety Level that includes most common laboratory microorganisms and involves organisms such as HBV, HIV and enteric pathogens is:

A. BSL 1
B. BSL 2
C. BSL 3
D. BSL 4

A

B. BSL 2

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15
Q

A listless 12-month-old boy with a fever of 103°F was taken to the emergency department. He had been diagnosed with an ear infection 3 days earlier. A spinal tap was performed, but only one tube of CSF was obtained from the lumbar puncture. The single tube of CSF should be submitted first to which department?

A. Chemistry
B. Microbiology
C. Hematology
D. Cytology/Histology

A

B. Microbiology

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16
Q

Brown or green color surrounding the colony:

A. Alpha hemolysis
B. Beta hemolysis
C. Gamma hemolysis
D. Alpha prime hemolysis

A

A. Alpha hemolysis

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17
Q

Chocolate agar contains:

A. Chocolate
B. Clotted blood
C. Brown nutrient agar
D. Hemolyzed red blood cell

A

D. Hemolyzed red blood cell

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18
Q

All of the following are differential media except:

A. Blood agar
B. Chocolate agar
C. MacConkey’s agar
D. Eosin methylene blue agar

A

B. Chocolate agar

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19
Q

Addition of egg yolk to nutritive media:

A. Basal medium
B. Enriched medium
C. Enrichment medium
D. Selective medium

A

B. Enriched medium

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20
Q

Inhibitor of Mannitol Salt Agar:

A. Mannitol
B. Phenol red
C. Neutral red
D. Sodium chloride

A

D. Sodium chloride

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21
Q

Salmonella-Shigella (SS) Agar is a modification of:

A. BAP
B. CAP
C. DCA (Desoxycholate Citrate Agar)
D. EMB

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A

C. DCA (Desoxycholate Citrate Agar)

22
Q

Which method is most useful for confirmation that a culture isolate is Group B streptococcus?

A. Southern blotting
B. Polymerase chain reaction
C. Direct hybridization
D. Probe capture assay

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A

C. Direct hybridization

23
Q

Feather-edged colonies usually surrounded by zone of green discoloration; produces a highly characteristic, fruity odor resembling apples or strawberries:

A. Achromobacter denitrificans
B. Pseudomonas alcaligenes
C. Pseudomonas pseudoalcaligenes
D. Alcaligenes faecalis

Study These Flashcards
A

D. Alcaligenes faecalis

24
Q

A large, aerobic, beta-hemolytic, gram-positive rod is isolated from an eye culture. Subsequent testing reveals it is motile and produces a wide zone on egg yolk agar. The most likely identification of this organism is:

A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Escherichia coli
C. Bacillus cereus
D. Clostridium perfringens

Study These Flashcards
A

C. Bacillus cereus

25
Definitive host of Taenia saginata: A. Cattle B. Pig C. Dog D. Man
D. Man
26
In infections with Taenia solium, humans can serve as the: A. Definitive host B. Intermediate host C. Either the definitive or the intermediate host D. None of these options
C. Either the definitive or the intermediate host
27
It is more frequent in populations living in conditions of poverty or poor hygiene, in day care centers, and in persons living in institutional settings or prisons. A. Diphyllobothrium latum B. Hymenolepis nana C. Taenia saginata D. Taenia solium
B. Hymenolepis nana
28
Skin pH that keeps most microorganisms from growing: A. 5.6 B. 6.5 C. 7.2 D. 8.0
A. 5.6
29
Which cell is the most potent phagocytic cell in tissue and the most effective at antigen presentation? A. Neutrophil B. Dendritic cell C. Eosinophil D. Basophil
B. Dendritic cell
30
It is used to treat hepatitis C and Kaposi’s sarcoma, as well as certain leukemias and lymphomas: A. TNF-alpha B. TNF-beta C. IFN-alpha D. IFN-beta
C. IFN-alpha
31
IgA in serum: A. Monomer B. Dimer C. Pentamer D. None of these
A. Monomer
32
IgA in secretions: A. Monomer B. Dimer C. Pentamer D. None of these
B. Dimer
33
A single ASO titer is considered to be moderately elevated if the titer is at least ___ Todd units in an adult: A. 166 B. 200 C. 240 D. 320
C. 240
34
A single ASO titer is considered to be moderately elevated if the titer is at least ____ Todd units in a child: A. 166 B. 200 C. 240 D. 320
D. 320
35
This disease was endemic in Haiti and was subsequently contracted and CARRIED TO EUROPE by COLUMBUS CREW: A. Gonorrhea B. Syphilis C. HIV D. Tuberculosis
B. Syphilis
36
Which of the following serologic tests detects the polysaccharide capsule ANTIGEN in serum and CSF of patients with suspected infection with Cryptococcus neoformans? A. Complement fixation B. India ink test C. Latex agglutination D. Hemagglutination test
C. Latex agglutination
37
LATEX AGGLUTINATION for cryptococcal _____ is now recommended test for Cryptococcus neoformans. A. Polysaccharide capsule B. Antigen C. Antibody D. Nucleic acids
B. Antigen
38
T in TORCH: A. T cells B. Terminal C. Toxoplasmosis D. Trichinosis
C. Toxoplasmosis
39
Humans have _____ chromosomes. A. 2 B. 22 C. 23 D. 46
D. 46
40
Humans have how many pairs of autosomes? A. 22 B. 23 C. 44 D. 46
A. 22
41
Stem cells are present in the first few hours after an ovum is fertilized; most versatile type of stem cell: A. Multipotential stem cells B. Pluripotential stem cells C. Totipotential stem cells D. Any of these
C. Totipotential stem cells
42
Stem cells present several days after fertilization, may develop into any cell type except they cannot develop into fetus: A. Multipotential stem cells B. Pluripotential stem cells C. Totipotential stem cells D. Any of these
B. Pluripotential stem cells
43
Stem cells found in adults, but they are limited to specific types of cells to form tissues: A. Multipotential stem cells B. Pluripotential stem cells C. Totipotential stem cells D. Any of these
A. Multipotential stem cells
44
A unit of packed cells is split into 2 aliquots under closed sterile conditions at 8 AM. The expiration time for each aliquot is now: A. 4 PM on the same day B. 8 PM on the same day C. 8 AM the next morning D. The original date of the unsplit unit
D. The original date of the unsplit unit
45
What would be the result of group A blood given to an O patient? A. Nonimmune transfusion reaction B. Immediate hemolytic transfusion reaction C. Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction D. Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction
B. Immediate hemolytic transfusion reaction
46
Conduct of practice is lacking in due care: A. Negligence B. Malpractice C. Carelessness D. Unprofessionalism
A. Negligence
47
Sentinel event: A. Insufficient specimen B. Positive blood culture C. Wrong medication D. Surgery on wrong patient or body part
D. Surgery on wrong patient or body part
48
The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) involves three processes. Select the order in which these occur. A. Extension → Annealing → Denaturation B. Annealing → Denaturation → Extension C. Denaturation → Annealing → Extension D. Denaturation → Extension → Annealing
C. Denaturation → Annealing → Extension
49
In the PCR cycle, how is denaturation accomplished? A. Heat B. Alkali treatment C. Addition of sulfonylurea D. Formamide
A. Heat
50
What is the unique characteristic of the DNA polymerase, Taq DNA polymerase, used in PCR? A. It can be enzyme labeled B. It is more efficient than eukaryotic polymerases C. It is heat stable D. It works with DNA of any species
C. It is heat stable
51
In PCR testing, the initial step involves adding the DNA in question to a mixture of taq polymerase, excess nucleotides, MgCl2, and primers. This mixture is placed in which of the following instruments to allow the amplification to take place? A. Flow cytometer B. Capillary array sequencer C. Thermal cycler D. Electrophoresis chamber
C. Thermal cycler

00LMR_PRACTICE QSTNS-PRETESTS (8 decks)

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