PQ2 Flashcards by mt corner

All of the following are analytical (examination) errors, except:*

A. Oversight of instrument flags
B. Out-of-control QC results
C. Verbal reporting of results
D. Wrong assay performed

C. Verbal reporting of results

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Staff responsibility in SPECIMEN MANAGEMENT, except:

A. Specimens and aliquots are stored properly
B. Specimens are centrifuged correctly
C. Specimens are delivered intact, sealed, and in a timely manner
D. Tests begun within specified time frames

C. Specimens are delivered intact, sealed, and in a timely manner

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The positive predictive value predicts the probability that an individual with a positive assay result ___ the disease or condition.

A. Has (have)
B. Could have
C. May have
D. Will have

A. Has (have)

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For adult capillary puncture:

A. Index finger
B. Ring finger
C. Index or ring finger
D. Middle or ring finger

D. Middle or ring finger

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Proper application of the tourniquet:

A. Like a ribbon
B. Loop toward the shoulder
C. Ends pointed towards the shoulder
D. Ends pointed away from the shoulder

C. Ends pointed towards the shoulder

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The tourniquet should not remain tied for more than _______ at a time.*

A. 1 minute
B. 2 minutes
C. 3 minutes
D. 4 minutes

A. 1 minute

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The tourniquet should be applied ______ above the venipuncture site.

A. 1 to 2 inches
B. 3 to 4 inches
C. 6 to 8 inches
D. 10 to 12 inches

B. 3 to 4 inches

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Blood pressure cuffs can be used as tourniquets. They are used primarily for veins that are difficult to locate. The cuff should be inflated to a pressure of:

A. 40 mm Hg
B. 80 mm Hg
C. 100 mm Hg
D. 120 mm Hg

A. 40 mm Hg

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Blood pressure cuffs can be used as tourniquets. They are used primarily for veins that are difficult to locate. The cuff should be inflated to a pressure of:

40 mm Hg
80 mm Hg
100 mm Hg
120 mm Hg

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AccuVein is a handheld medical device that helps medical staff visualize veins before phlebotomy. The device emits ______ light and is held 7 inches over the potential phlebotomy site.*

A. Visible light
B. Ultraviolet light
C. Infrared light
D. UV and infrared light

C. Infrared light

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The advantage of using a ___-inch needle is that it provides better control during venipuncture.*

A. 0.5-inch
B. 1-inch
C. 1.5-inch
D. 2-inch

B. 1-inch

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Select the needle most commonly used in standard venipuncture in an adult:

A. One inch, 18 gauge
B. One inch, 21 gauge
C. One-half inch, 23 gauge
D. One-half inch, 25 gauge

B. One inch, 21 gauge

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Higher temperatures can cause:*

A. Decrease in blood draw volume
B. Increase in blood draw volume
C. Both of these
D. None of these

A. Decrease in blood draw volume

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High altitude:*

A. Decrease in blood draw volume
B. Increase in blood draw volume
C. Both of these
D. None of these

A. Decrease in blood draw volume

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Leakage of a large amount of blood around the puncture site:*

Hematoma

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Severe increase in abnormal erythrocytes in each microscopic field; an equivalent descriptive term is MANY:*

A. 1+
B. 2+
C. 3+
D. 4+

C. 3+

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The most common hemacytometer is the Levy chamber with improved Neubauer ruling. What is the total area of this counting chamber?*

A. 1 mm2
B. 4 mm2
C. 9 mm2
D. 16 mm2

C. 9 mm2

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Full conversion of hemoglobin to cyanmethemoglobin:*

A. 1 minute
B. 3 minutes
C. 10 minutes
D. 30 minutes

C. 10 minutes

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In the manual reticulocyte count, what is the ratio of blood and new methylene blue stain:*

A. 1:1
B. 1:3
C. 2:1
D. 3:1

A. 1:1

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Decreased ESR, EXCEPT:*

A. Acanthocytosis
B. Bubbles in ESR column
C. Hyperfibrinogenemia
D. Spherocytosis

C. Hyperfibrinogenemia

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Increased ESR:*

A. Hyperalbuminemia
B. Hyperfibrinogenemia
C. Microcytosis
D. Polycythemia

B. Hyperfibrinogenemia

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Increased ESR:*

A. Delay in testing
B. Hyperalbuminemia
C. Marked anisocytosis
D. Tilted ESR tube

D. Tilted ESR tube

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Leukemia:*

A. Decreased ESR
B. Increased ESR
C. Indeterminate
D. No effect

B. Increased ESR

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Marked leukocytosis:*

A. Decreased ESR
B. Increased ESR
C. Indeterminate
D. No effect

A. Decreased ESR

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Low room temperature:* A. Decreased ESR B. Increased ESR C. Indeterminate D. No effect

A. Decreased ESR

Refrigerated sample not returned to room temperature:* A. Decreased ESR B. Increased ESR C. Indeterminate D. No effect

B. Increased ESR

The major energy source for the platelet is ______, which is rapidly taken up from the plasma.* A. Fructose B. Glucose C. Proteins D. Lipids

B. Glucose

Reticulated platelets are cylindrical and beaded, resembling fragments of megakaryocyte proplatelet processes:* A. Citrate B. EDTA C. Heparin D. Oxalate

A. Citrate

Effects of platelet clumps in most hematology analyzers:* A. Decreased platelets and WBCs B. Increased platelets and WBCs C. Decreased platelets, increased WBCs D. Increased platelets, decreased WBCs

C. Decreased platelets, increased WBCs

Reference values for PTT in adults:* A. 12 to 14 seconds B. 13 to 15 seconds C. 25 to 35 seconds D. 1 to 2 minutes

C. 25 to 35 seconds

Factor I deficiency:* A. Normal PT, prolonged APTT, normal TCT B. Normal PT, prolonged APTT, prolonged TCT C. Prolonged PT, prolonged APTT, normal TCT D. Prolonged PT, prolonged APTT, prolonged TCT

D. Prolonged PT, prolonged APTT, prolonged TCT

Hemophilia A: Factor _____ deficiency

Factor VIII

Hemophilia B: Factor _____ deficiency

Factor IX

Hemophilia C: Factor _____ deficiency

Factor XI

Roman Numeral with NO Assigned Coag Factor

Factor VI (Activated Factor V)

Factor VII Deficiency: A. Normal PT, prolonged APTT, normal TCT B. Prolonged PT, normal APTT, normal TCT C. Prolonged PT, prolonged APTT, normal TCT D. Prolonged PT, prolonged APTT, prolonged TCT

B. Prolonged PT, normal APTT, normal TCT

Hemophilia A: A. Normal PT, prolonged APTT, normal TCT B. Prolonged PT, normal APTT, normal TCT C. Prolonged PT, prolonged APTT, normal TCT D. Prolonged PT, prolonged APTT, prolonged TCT

A. Normal PT, prolonged APTT, normal TCT

Factor X deficiency: A. Normal PT, prolonged APTT, normal TCT B. Normal PT, prolonged APTT, prolonged TCT C. Prolonged PT, prolonged APTT, normal TCT D. Prolonged PT, prolonged APTT, prolonged TCT

D. Prolonged PT, prolonged APTT, prolonged TCT

Resting phase:* A. Anaphase B. Interphase C. Metaphase D. Telophase

B. Interphase

The cell selected for chromosome analysis is usually in the metaphase stage of cellular division.* A. Prophase B. Metaphase C. Anaphase D. Telophase

B. Metaphase

Renal hormone which stimulates and regulates the bone marrow production of red blood cells:* A. Interleukin 2 B. Interleukin 3 C. Erythropoietin D. Thrombopoietin

C. Erythropoietin

RBC with membrane folded over:* A. Aplastic anemia B. Iron deficiency anemia C. Hemoglobin C, hemoglobin SC disease D. Sickle cell anemia, thalassemia

C. Hemoglobin C, hemoglobin SC disease

At 1 to 2 days of age, hemoglobin concentration is normally up to:* A. 12.0 g/dL B. 14.5 g/dL C. 16.0 g/dL D. 22.5 g/dL

D. 22.5 g/dL

The WBC count of a newborn baby is up to:* A. 5 x 10 9th/L B. 9 x 10 9th/L C. 11 x 10 9th/L D. 30 x 10 9th/L

D. 30 x 10 9th/L

Formed during the promyelocyte stage:* A. Primary (azurophilic) granules B. Secondary (specific) granules C. Tertiary granules D. Secretory granules (vesicles)

A. Primary (azurophilic) granules

Latest method for performing a leukocyte differential count:* A. Manual review of blood film B. Impedance C. Light-scattering D. Digital microscopy

D. Digital microscopy

Early indication of engraftment success after hematopoietic stem cell transplant: A. RBC count B. RBC and WBC count C. Immature reticulocyte fraction D. Immature reticulocyte fraction and immature platelet fraction

D. Immature reticulocyte fraction and immature platelet fraction

Solid tumor counterpart of monocytic leukemia:* A. Chloroma B. Myeloma C. Reticulum cell sarcoma D. Well-differentiated lymphoma

C. Reticulum cell sarcoma

Solid tumor counterpart of plasma cell leukemia:* A. Chloroma B. Myeloma C. Reticulum cell sarcoma D. Well-differentiated lymphoma

B. Myeloma

Cells have distinctive nuclear lobulation and have been termed “flower cells”: A. Acute myelogenous leukemia B. Adult T cell leukemia/lymphoma C. Hairy cell leukemia D. Hodgkin’s lymphoma

B. Adult T cell leukemia/lymphoma

A few isolated aggregates; mostly free-floating cells; supernatant appears red:* A. Negative B. Mixed-field C. Trace D. 1+

B. Mixed-field

Family of cytokines that enhance motility and promote migration of many types of white blood cells:* A. Interleukins B. Interferons C. Tumor necrosis factor D. Chemokines

D. Chemokines

Serum amyloid A (SAA) has been found to increase significantly more in _____ infections* A. Bacterial infections B. Fungal infections C. Parasitic infections D. Viral infections

A. Bacterial infections

The alternative complement pathway is activated by:* A. Antigen–antibody complexes B. Bacterial and fungal cell walls C. Carbohydrates in microbial cell walls D. Properdin

B. Bacterial and fungal cell walls

Serum sickness, Arthus reaction and SLE:* A. Type I hypersensitivity reactions B. Type II hypersensitivity reactions C. Type III hypersensitivity reactions D. Type IV hypersensitivity reactions

C. Type III hypersensitivity reactions

It is considered the gold standard in testing for contact dermatitis:* A. Mantoux test B. Patch test C. RIST D. RAST

B. Patch test

Which of the following would be considered an organ-specific autoimmune disease?* A. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener’s granulomatosis) B. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Systemic lupus erythematosus

B. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

Anti-phospholipid antibodies have been found in up to 60 percent of patients with:* A. Colorectal cancer B. Lupus C. Tuberculosis D. Syphilis

B. Lupus

Most specific for SLE, because they are mainly seen only in patients with lupus, and levels correlate with disease activity:* A. Anti-DNP B. Anti-RNP C. Anti-dsDNA D. Anti-Smith

C. Anti-dsDNA

Antigen for the RPR and VDRL test:* A. Cardiolipin B. Charcoal C. Reagin D. Nichol’s strain of Treponema pallidum

A. Cardiolipin

Antigen for the RPR test is dispensed from a small plastic dispensing bottle with a calibrated ____ gauge needle.* A. 18 gauge needle B. 19 gauge needle C. 20 gauge needle D. 21 gauge needle

C. 20 gauge needle

For RPR test, the card is rotated at: A. 100 rpm for 4 minutes B. 100 rpm for 8 minutes C. 180 rpm for 4 minutes D. 180 rpm for 8 minutes

B. 100 rpm for 8 minutes

For serum VDRL test, the slide is rotated at:* A. 100 rpm for 4 minutes B. 100 rpm for 8 minutes C. 180 rpm for 4 minutes D. 180 rpm for 8 minutes

C. 180 rpm for 4 minutes

Which test is recommended for testing cerebrospinal fluid for detection of neurosyphilis? A. RPR B. VDRL C. FTA-ABS D. Enzyme immunoassay

B. VDRL

A rapid screening test to help determine the possibility of typhoid fever; the antigens used in this procedure include Salmonella O (somatic) and H (flagellar) antigens:* A. ELISA B. Singer and Plotz C. Weil-Felix D. Widal

D. Widal

Primary antibody found in Helicobacter pylori infection:* A. IgA B. IgE C. IgG D. IgM

C. IgG

Current recommendations include the combined detection of mannan and anti-mannan antibodies for the specific identification of _____ species in serum samples:* A. Bordetella B. Candida C. Cryptococcus D. Mycobacterium

B. Candida

First marker to appear in HBV infection, becoming detectable 2 to 10 weeks after exposure to HBV.* A. HBe Ag B. HBs Ag C. Anti-HBc IgM D. Anti-HBs

B. HBs Ag

Posttransfusion hepatitis of unknown etiology; may be transmitted by parenteral exposure to blood, fecal-oral route and from mother to child:* A. HIV B. HBV C. HGV D. TTV

D. TTV

Western blot negative test result:* A. No band B. One band C. Black band D. Blue band

A. No band

Current recommended test to confirm HIV-1 and HIV-2

Rapid test

First time a blood transfusion was recorded in history:* A. King George B. Pope Innocent C. Pope Pius D. Queen Victoria

B. Pope Innocent

Attempts to find a nontoxic anticoagulant began in 1869, when Braxton Hicks recommended:* A. EDTA B. Heparin C. Sodium citrate D. Sodium phosphate

D. Sodium phosphate

Reported the use of sodium citrate as an anticoagulant solution for transfusions:* A. Charles Drew B. Edward Lindemann C. Hustin D. Lewisohn

C. Hustin

Determined the minimum amount of citrate needed for anticoagulation and demonstrated its nontoxicity in small amounts:* A. Charles Drew B. Edward Lindemann C. Hustin D. Lewisohn

D. Lewisohn

Second law of genetics:* A. Assortment B. Characteristics C. Dominance D. Segregation

A. Assortment

The simplest type of mutation and includes substitutions, insertions, and deletions:* A. Frameshift mutation B. Missense mutation C. Nonsense mutation D. Point mutation

D. Point mutation

Centrifugation time for the ABO tube test:* A. 20 seconds B. 60 seconds C. 2 minutes D. 5 minutes

A. 20 seconds

Agglutination with yellow antiserum; no agglutination with blue antiserum:* A. Group A B. Group B C. Group A+ D. Group B+

B. Group B

Genotype of a Bombay individual:* A. hh B. Hh C. O D. Oh

A. hh

Second most immunogenic Rh antigen:* A. D B. C C. E D. c

D. c

The antigen was reported in 1973 and is present on RBCs of 4% of Indians, 11% of Iranians, and 12% of Arabs:* A. Cromer B. Diego C. Indian D. Knops

C. Indian

Result in an increased rate of antibody uptake during sensitization and a decreased reaction incubation time:* A. 22% albumin B. Enzymes C. LISS D. Polyethylene glycol

C. LISS

Deferral for donor with multiple puncture marks:* A. 4 weeks B. 6 weeks C. 12 months D. Indefinite

D. Indefinite

Treatment with this drug is a cause of permanent donor deferral:* A. Accutane B. Propecia C. Proscar D. Tegison

D. Tegison

Donors who have ingested aspirin, Feldene, or aspirin-containing medications should be deferred for plateletpheresis for:* A. 24 hours B. 48 hours C. 7 days D. 14 days

B. 48 hours

Anticoagulant-preservative for modified whole blood:* A. ACD B. CPD C. CPDA-1 D. All of these

D. All of these

Frozen plasma stored at -65C:* A. 1 year B. 2 years C. 7 years D. 10 year

C. 7 years

What component is most frequently involved with transfusion-associated sepsis?* A. Plasma B. Packed red blood cells C. Platelets D. Whole blood

C. Platelets

Blue or purple spots in your mouth or skin can be a sign or symptom of:* A. Chagas disease B. Hepatitis C. HIV/AIDS D. Malaria

C. HIV/AIDS

A zoonotic disease, is usually transmitted by the bite of an infected deer tick:* A. Babesiosis B. Filariasis C. Malaria D. Toxoplasmosis

A. Babesiosis

A post-transfusion to pre-transfusion brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) ratio of ___ provides diagnosis of transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO):* A. 0.5 B. 1.5 C. 3.0 D. 4.5

B. 1.5

Antibodies not associated with HDN:* A. Duffy B. I C. Kell D. Rh

B. I

The most important serologic test for diagnosing HDFN is the DAT with anti-IgG reagent. What is the specimen for this test?* A. Infant’s serum or plasma B. Mother’s serum or plasma C. Infant’s RBCs D. Mother’s RBCs

C. Infant’s RBCs

What is the most possible reason when first baby suffered from RH HDN?* A. Naturally occurring Rh antibodies B. Strong immunogenicity of the D antigen C. Leakage of fetal RBCs to maternal circulation D. Prior exposure of mother to Rh+ red cells due to transfusion

D. Prior exposure of mother to Rh+ red cells due to transfusion

Mother should receive a full dose of RhIg within ____ of delivery:* A. 72 hours B. 96 hours C. 5 days D. 7 days

A. 72 hours

Infection rate is highest for laboratory professionals exposed to blood and body fluids containing:* A. Hepatitis A B. Hepatitis B C. CMV D. HIV

B. Hepatitis B

Which infectious agent is considered to be the primary occupational health hazard regarding transmission of bloodborne pathogens:* A. HIV B. HBV C. Tuberculosis D. MRSA

B. HBV

It occurs in the bronchi of cigarette smokers as cellular adaptation to smoke:* A. Hypertrophy B. Hyperplasia C. Dysplasia D. Metaplasia

D. Metaplasia

Due to chronic trauma induced by ill-fitting dentures:* A. Hypertrophy B. Hyperplasia C. Dysplasia D. Metaplasia

B. Hyperplasia

Commercially available solution of formaldehyde:* A. 10% B. 10 to 20% C. 15 to 25% D. 35 to 40%

D. 35 to 40%

Preparation of 10% formalin from 40% formaldehyde:* A. 10 mL 40% formaldehyde to 100 mL water B. 10 mL 40% formaldehyde to 99 mL water C. 10 mL 40% formaldehyde to 90 mL water D. 1 mL 40% formaldehyde to 99 mL water

C. 10 mL 40% formaldehyde to 90 mL water

Retention of paraffin blocks: A. 7 days B. 2 years C. 3 years D. 10 years

D. 10 years

Good materials to use for benchtops, as they are easy to clean and are resistant to deterioration from harsh disinfectants and aggressive cleaning products:* A. Cement B. Ceramic C. Steel D. Wood

B. Ceramic

Minimum technical working area for a tertiary category laboratory:* A. 10 square meters B. 20 square meters C. 30 square meters D. 60 square meters

D. 60 square meters

An act promoting voluntary blood donation, providing for an adequate supply of safe blood, regulating blood banks, and providing penalties for violation thereof:* A. RA 1517 B. RA 5527 C. RA 7719 D. RA 8504

C. RA 7719

A blood service facility duly authorized by the DOH – Center for Health Development (CHD), whose main function is to collect blood from volunteer non-renumerated blood donors:* A. Blood Bank (BB) B. Blood center (BC) C. Blood collection unit (BCU) D. Blood station (BS)

C. Blood collection unit (BCU)

A blood service facility duly authorized by the DOH – CHD, whose main function is the storage, issuance, transport and distribution of whole blood and packed red cells:* A. Blood Bank (BB) B. Blood center (BC) C. Blood collection unit (BCU) D. Blood station (BS)

D. Blood station (BS)

A non-hospital-based blood service facility, licensed by DOH Bureau of Health Facilities and Services (BHFS), whose main function is to process blood units into blood components and testing these units for five (5) infectious disease markers:* A. Blood Bank (BB) B. Blood center (BC) C. Blood collection unit (BCU) D. Blood station (BS)

B. Blood center (BC)

Philippine Clean Air Act of 1999:* A. RA 7719 B. RA 9288 C. RA 8749 D. RA 9482

C. RA 8749

Waste container for empty aerosol cans:* A. Yellow B. Yellow with black band C. Black D. Red

D. Red

PQ2 Flashcards

(111 cards)