PQ4

Question 1

Which of the following would NOT be a typical methodology for a clinical chemistry test?

A. Immunoturbidimetry
B. Microscopy
C. EMIT®
D. ISE

Question 2

How should a laboratory verify the reference range it uses for a particular test?

A. Call another laboratory
B. Use the numbers from a textbook
C. Test samples from healthy people
D. Look on a medical internet site

Question 3

VERIFYING a reference interval (transference) is done to confirm the validity of an existing reference interval for an analyte using the same (identical) type of analytic system (method and/or instrument). These are the most common reference interval studies performed in the clinical laboratory and can require as few as ____ study individuals.

A. 20 study individuals
B. 50 study individuals
C. 100 study individuals
D. 120 study individuals

Question 4

A Gaussian distribution is usually:

A. Rectangular
B. Bell-shaped
C. Uniform
D. Skewed

Question 5

Which of the following sets of values for repeat analyses of a QC sample (target value of 50) reflects the best precision?

A. 50, 51, 52
B. 50, 52, 56
C. 48, 50, 52
D. 44, 50, 53

Question 6

What is used to zero the spectrophotometer before reading the test sample?

A. Calibrator
B. Sample blank
C. Reagent blank
D. Standard

Question 7

What is the best way to clean up blood that has dripped on the arm of a phlebotomy chair?

A. Absorb it with a gauze pad and clean the area with disinfectant.
B. Rub it with a damp cloth and wash the area with soap and water.
C. Wait for it to dry and then scrape it into a biohazard container.
D. Wipe it with an alcohol pad using an outward circular motion.

Question 8

Which of the following tests is a good marker of nutritional status?

A. Immunoglobulin M
B. Prealbumin
C. Ceruloplasmin
D. Lp(a)

Question 9

Which test is used as an indicator of congestive heart failure?

A. CRP
B. BNP
C. Cholesterol
D. Troponin

Question 10

Which test is the most specific for myocardial infarction?

A. LDH
B. CK
C. Troponin
D. Myoglobin

Question 11

If a screening TSH is high, which test is likely to be ordered next?

A. Cholesterol
B. Free T4
C. Ferritin
D. Glucose

Question 12

Which of the following is both hormone and enzyme?

A. ADH
B. Angiotensin
C. Acetylcholinesterase
D. Renin

Question 13

PLUMBISM, a deleterious effect of gradual accumulation of ______ in body tissues, as a result of repeated exposure.

A. Arsenic
B. Cyanide
C. Lead
D. Mercury

Question 14

Four blood cultures were taken over a 24-hour period from a 20-year-old woman with severe diarrhea. The cultures grew motile (room temperature), gram-negative rods. A urine specimen obtained by catheterization also showed gram-negative rods, 100,000 colonies/mL. Given the following results, which is the most likely organism?

TSI = A/A gas
Indole = +
MR = +
VP = Neg
Citrate = Neg
H2S = Neg
Urease = Neg
Lysine decarboxylase = +
Phenylalanine deaminase = Neg

A. Proteus vulgaris
B. Salmonella typhi
C. Yersinia enterocolitica
D. Escherichia coli

Question 15

A leg culture from a nursing home patient grew gram-negative rods on MacConkey agar as pink to dark pink oxidase-negative colonies. Given the following results, which is the most likely organism?
TSI = A/A
VP = +
Urease = +
Indole = Neg
Citrate = +
Motility = Neg
MR = Neg
H2S = Neg
Antibiotic susceptibility: Resistant to carbenicillin and ampicillin

A. Serratia marcescens
B. Proteus vulgaris
C. Enterobacter cloacae
D. Klebsiella pneumoniae

Question 16

A stool culture from a 30-year-old man suffering from bloody mucoid diarrhea gave the following results on differential enteric media:
MacConkey agar = clear colonies
XLD agar = clear colonies
Hektoen agar = green colonies
Salmonella–Shigella agar = small, clear colonies
Which tests are most appropriate for identification of this enteric pathogen?

A. TSI, motility, indole, urease, Shigella typing with polyvalent sera
B. TSI, motility, indole, lysine, Salmonella typing with polyvalent sera
C. TSI, indole, MR, VP, citrate
D. TSI, indole, MR, and urease

Question 17

All of the following are gram-positive spore-forming bacilli, EXCEPT:

A. B. anthracis
B. B. cereus
C. B. fragilis
D. B. subtilis

Question 18

Which of the following is the specimen of choice for detecting rotavirus?

A. Throat swab
B. Urine sample
C. Bronchoalveolar wash
D. Feces sample

Question 19

Ova recovered from the stool are routinely used to diagnose infections caused by all of the following EXCEPT?

A. Necator americanus
B. Ascaris lubricoides
C. Trichuris trichiura
D. Strongyloides stercoralis

Question 20

Fluke(s) associated with CHOLANGIOCARCINOMA (cancerous growth in bile duct epithelium):

A. F. buski
B. P. westermani
C. C. sinensis, O. viverrini
D. S. japonicum

Question 21

An operculated CESTODE egg that can be recovered from human feces is:

A. Clonorchis sinensis
B. Diphyllobothrium latum
C. Paragonimus westermani
D. Dipylidium caninum

Question 22

In a condition resulting from the accidental ingestion of eggs, the human becomes the intermediate rather than the definitive host:

A. Trichinosis
B. Cysticercosis
C. Ascariasis
D. Strongyloidiasis

Question 23

Normal urine odor:

A. Ammoniacal
B. Cabbage odor
C. Fragrant
D. Mousy

Question 24

Which of the following is soluble in dilute acetic acid?

A. Bacteria
B. Yeast
C. Amorphous phosphates, carbonate
D. White blood cells

Question 25

Differentiates WBCs and renal tubular epithelial (RTE) cells: A. Sternheimer-Malbin stain B. Toluidine blue C. Prussian blue D. Hansel stain

Question 26

A method of measuring specific gravity by measuring the change in the frequency of a sound wave after it enters a solution: A. Urinometry B. Oscillation densitometry C. Reagent strip D. Refractometry

Question 27

These crystals resemble a rectangular plate with a notch in one or more corners: A. Bilirubin crystals B. Cholesterol crystals C. Sulfonamide crystals D. Tyrosine crystals

Question 28

Maximum absorbance of amniotic fluid bilirubin and oxyhemoglobin (interference): A. Bilirubin 450 nm, oxyhemoglobin 540 nm B. Bilirubin 540 nm, oxyhemoglobin 450 nm C. Bilirubin 450 nm, oxyhemoglobin 410 nm D. Bilirubin 410 nm, oxyhemoglobin 450 nm

Question 29

Black pleural fluid: A. Hemothorax B. Chylous material from thoracic duct leakage C. Rupture of amoebic liver abscess D. Aspergillus infection

Question 30

Which cluster of differentiation (CD) marker appears during the first stage of T-cell development and remains present as an identifying marker for T cells? A. CD1 B. CD2 C. CD3 D. CD4 or CD8

Question 31

Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody is most often associated with this condition: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Celiac disease C. Chronic active hepatitis D. Goodpasture disease

Question 32

In chronic active hepatitis, high titers of which of the following antibodies are seen? A. Antimitochondrial B. Anti-smooth muscle C. Anti-DNA D. Anti-parietal cell

Question 33

In primary biliary cirrhosis, which of the following antibodies is seen in high titers? A. Antimitochondrial B. Anti-smooth muscle C. Anti-DNA D. Anti-parietal cell

Question 34

Which serum antibody response usually characterizes the primary (early) stage of syphilis? A. Antibodies against syphilis are undetectable B. Detected 1 to 3 weeks after appearance of the primary chancre C. Detected in 50% of cases before the primary chancre disappears D. Detected within 2 weeks after infection

Question 35

Tests to identify infection with HIV fall into which three general classification types of tests? A. Tissue culture, antigen, and antibody tests B. Tests for antigens, antibodies, and nucleic acid C. DNA probe, DNA amplification, and Western blot tests D. ELISA, Western blot, and Southern blot tests

Question 36

Which tests are considered screening tests for HIV? A. ELISA 4th generation, and rapid antibody tests B. Immunofluorescence, Western blot, radioimmunoprecipitation assay C. Culture, antigen capture assay, DNA amplification D. Reverse transcriptase and messenger RNA (mRNA) assay

Question 37

Which tests are considered confirmatory tests for HIV? A. ELISA and rapid antibody tests B. Western blot test, HIV-1,2 differentiation assays, and polymerase chain reaction C. Culture, antigen capture assay, polymerase chain reaction D. Reverse transcriptase and mRNA assay

Question 38

Interpret the following results for HIV infection. ELISA: positive Repeat ELISA: negative Western blot: no bands A. Positive for HIV B. Negative for HIV C. Indeterminate D. Further testing needed

Question 39

Tumor markers found in the circulation are most frequently measured by: A. Immunoassays B. Thin-layer chromatography C. High-pressure liquid chromatography D. Colorimetry

Question 40

A 55-year-old male with early stage prostate cancer diagnosed by biopsy had his prostate gland removed (simple prostatectomy). His PSA prior to surgery was 10.0 ng/mL. If the surgery was successful in completely removing the tumor cells, what would the PSA result be 1 month after surgery? A. Undetectable B. 1–3 ng/mL C. Less than 4 ng/mL D. Less than 10 ng/mL

Question 41

A patient has a prostate-specific antigen level of 60 ng/mL the day before surgery to remove a localized prostate tumor. One week following surgery, the serum PSA was determined to be 8 ng/mL by the same method. What is the most likely cause of these results? A. Incomplete removal of the malignancy B. Cross reactivity of the antibody with another tumor antigen C. Testing too soon after surgery D. Hook effect with the PSA assay

Question 42

What ABO types may donate to any other ABO type? A. A negative, B negative, AB negative, O negative B. O negative C. AB negative D. AB negative, A negative, B negative

Question 43

The k (Cellano) antigen is a high-frequency antigen and is found on most red cells. How often would one expect to find the corresponding antibody? A. Often, because it is a high frequency antibody B. Rarely, because most individuals have the antigen and therefore would not develop the antibody C. It depends upon the population, because certain racial and ethnic groups show a higher frequency of anti-k D. Impossible to determine without consulting regional blood group antigen charts

Question 44

The most serious hemolytic transfusion reactions are due to incompatibility in which of the following blood group systems? A. ABO B. Rh C. MN D. Duffy

Question 45

Which of the following vaccinations carries no deferral period? A. Rubella B. Varicella zoster C. Recombinant HPV D. Smallpox

Question 46

In OBESE patients, veins may be neither readily visible nor easy to palpate. Sometimes the use of a blood pressure cuff can aid in locating a vein. The cuff should: A. Inflated higher than 40 mm Hg and should be left on the arm for longer than 1 minute B. Inflated higher than 40 mmHg and should not be left on the arm for longer than 1 minute C. Not be inflated any higher than 40 mm Hg and should be left on the arm for longer than 1 minute D. Not be inflated any higher than 40 mm Hg and should not be left on the arm for longer than 1 minute.

Question 47

The average diameter of a normal erythrocyte is _____ µm. A. 5.2 B. 6.4 C. 7.2 D. 8.4

Question 48

Acanthocytes are found in association with: A. Abetalipoproteinemia B. G6PD deficiency C. Rh deficiency syndrome D. Vitamin B12 deficiency

Question 49

The RDW and MCV are both quantitative descriptors of erythrocyte size. If both are increased, the most probable erythrocytic abnormality would be: A. Iron deficiency anemia B. Acquired aplastic anemia C. Megaloblastic anemia D. Hemoglobinopathy

Question 50

Which parameters are calculated rather than directly measured? A. Hematocrit and erythrocyte distribution width B. Erythrocyte count and leukocyte count C. Leukocyte count and hematocrit D. Platelet count and platelet volume

Question 51

A combined scatter histogram measures: A. Overall size versus nuclear size B. Cytoplasm-to-nucleus ratio C. Cell size and granularity D. Cell shape and cytoplasmic color

Question 52

What reagents are used in the PT test? A. Thromboplastin and sodium chloride B. Thromboplastin and potassium chloride C. Thromboplastin and calcium D. Actin and calcium chloride

Question 53

If a child ingested rat poison, which of the following tests should be performed to test the effect of the poison on the child’s coagulation mechanism? A. APTT B. PT C. Fibrinogen assay D. Thrombin time

Question 54

What is the proper order for putting on protective clothing? A. Gloves first, then gown, mask last B. Gown first, then gloves, mask last C. Gown first, then mask, gloves last D. Mask first, then gown, gloves last

Question 55

What is the correct order for removing protective clothing? A. Gloves, gown, mask B. Gown, gloves, mask C. Gown, mask, gloves D. Mask, gown, gloves

Question 56

Which order of events should be followed at the conclusion of a laboratory worker’s shift in order to prevent the spread of bloodborne pathogens? A. Remove gloves, disinfect area, wash hands, remove lab coat B. Disinfect area, remove gloves, remove lab coat, wash hands C. Disinfect area, remove gloves, wash hands, remove lab coat D. Remove gloves, wash hands, remove lab coat, disinfect area

Question 57

All of the following are bluing agents, EXCEPT: A. Ammonia water B. Dilute lithium carbonate C. Sodium iodate D. Scott's tap water

Question 58

Using the tissue-transfer type of automatic tissue processor, the entire process takes about _____ hours. A. 5 hours B. 6 hours C. 12 hours D. 16 hours

Question 59

National Reference Laboratory for Dengue, Influenza, Tuberculosis and other Mycobacteria, Malaria and other parasites, Bacterial enteric diseases, Measles and other Viral exanthems, Mycology, Enteroviruses, Antimicrobial resistance and Emerging Diseases; NRL for confirmatory testing of blood units. A. RITM B. EAMC C. NKTI D. SLH

Question 60

National Reference Laboratory for HIV/AIDS, Hepatitis, Syphilis and other Sexually Transmitted Infections (STls) A. RITM B. EAMC C. NKTI D. SLH

Question 61

National Reference Laboratory for Hematology including Immunohematology, Immunopathology and Anatomic Pathology: A. RITM B. EAMC C. NKTI D. SLH

Question 62

National Reference Laboratory for Environmental and Occupational Health; Toxicology and Micronutrient Assay A. RITM B. SLH C. EAMC D. LCP

Question 63

A blood service facility duly authorized by the DOH – Center for Health Development (CHD), whose main function is to collect blood from volunteer non-REMUNERATED blood donors: A. Blood Bank (BB) B. Blood center (BC) C. Blood collection unit (BCU) D. Blood station (BS)

Question 64

A blood service facility duly authorized by the DOH – CHD, whose main function is the storage, issuance, transport and distribution of whole blood and packed red cells: A. Blood Bank (BB) B. Blood center (BC) C. Blood collection unit (BCU) D. Blood station (BS)

Question 65

A non-hospital-based blood service facility, licensed by DOH Bureau of Health Facilities and Services (BHFS), whose main function is to process blood units into blood components and testing these units for five (5) infectious disease markers: A. Blood bank (BB) B. Blood center (BC) C. Blood collection unit (BCU) D. Blood station (BS)

Question 66

Advocacy and promotion of voluntary blood donation and healthy life; storage and issuance of whole blood and blood components obtained from a BC; The following services are also be provided: * Compatibility testing of red cell units * Direct Coombs test * Red cell antibody screening * Investigation of transfusion reactions *Surveillance (hemovigilance) A. Blood bank (BB) B. Blood center (BC) C. Blood collection unit (BCU) D. Blood station (BS)

Question 67

The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) involves three processes. Select the order in which these occur. A. Extension→Annealing→Denaturation B. Annealing→Denaturation→Extension C. Denaturation→Annealing→Extension D. Denaturation→Extension→Annealing

Question 68

In PCR testing, the initial step involves adding the DNA in question to a mixture of taq polymerase, excess nucleotides, MgCl2, and primers. This mixture is placed in which of the following instruments to allow the amplification to take place? A. Flow cytometer B. Capillary array sequencer C. Thermal cycler D. Electrophoresis chamber

Question 69

Which component is needed for a thermal cycler to amplify DNA? A. Programmable heating and cooling unit B. Vacuum chamber with zero head space C. Sealed airtight constant-temperature chamber D. Temperature-controlled ionization chamber

Question 70

Which technique is used to detect DNA containing a specific base sequence by applying a labeled probe to DNA bands immobilized onto nitrocellulose paper following electrophoresis? A. Southern blot B. Northern blot C. Dot blot D. Western blot