Practice Test Attempt 2 Flashcards
(106 cards)
1
Q
What area of the body is most targeted during the single leg squat to row exercise?
A
Posterior chain
2
Q
During a squat, the lowering phase would be described as what muscle action?
A
Eccentric
3
Q
Which division of the skeleton is made up of arms, legs, and pelvic girdle?
A
Appendicular
4
Q
When designing a four zone model for cardiorespiratory training, what range of intensity define zone 2
A
Midpoint between VT1 and VT2
5
Q
What would make a person better at oxidizing fat?
A
Having more mitochondria in their muscles
6
Q
Durnin wormsley skin folds
A
Bicep, tricep, subscapular, and supraillac
7
Q
What is the limiting factor for how long anaerobically glycosis can proceed?
A
Free hydrogen ions
8
Q
What is the next best progression for a client who can properly performed the power step up exercise?
A
Ice skaters
9
Q
What differentiates change of direction from agility?
A
Reaction to signal
10
Q
What is the recommended stability
ball size for someone under 5 feet tall?
A
45 cm
11
Q
What number of SAQ drills per work out is suggested for a youth athlete?
A
4 to 8 drills per workout
12
Q
What is one benefit of high intensity, interval training?
A
It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work
13
Q
What type of movement happens during the concentric phase of a plyometric exercise?
A
Jump
14
Q
What is the best way to monitor exercise intensity for a hypertensive client that is taking a beta blocker?
A
The talk test
15
Q
What are the two physiological responses that can occur from myofascial rolling?
A
Mechanical and neurophysiological response
16
Q
How many SAQ drills should’ve client do who is seeking to lose weight
A
3 to 4 sets
17
Q
During what phase of the stretch shortening cycle is stored elastic energy converted to explosive force production?
A
Amortization
18
Q
Where in the heart in the sinoatrial node located?
A
Right atrium
19
Q
Where are you? Should you spot a
client who is doing a dumbbell overhead press?
A
The wrists
20
Q
Which test is used to measure lateral speed and agility?
A
Left
lower extremity functional test
21
Q
For someone training in the muscular development phase which is more optimal?
Body fat loss or muscle mass increase with no body fat loss
A
Body fat loss
22
Q
Active and dynamic stretching utilize which physiological action?
A
Reciprocal inhibition
23
Q
The ability of an individual to maintain proper spinal and Ted posture, while the extremities are moving, most accurately is described as ?
A
Core stability
24
Q
Which disease is caused by specific medical conditions are medication, including alcohol, abuse, smoking, specific disease, or particular medication’s, that disrupts normal bone reformation?
A
Type two (secondary) osteoporosis
25
What term is used for a condition that would make it unsafe for a client to participate in any type of flexibility exercise?
Contraindication
26
During the cable, rotation exercise, which position of the hip will help decrease stress on the lower back?
Hip extension
27
What type of muscle contractions/action attenuates force through muscle fibers lengthening?
Eccentric action
28
Which of the following muscles is primarily targeted when performing a bicep curl exercise with the thumb up?
Not the tricep brachii
It is the brachioradaialis
29
Which joints are most associated with human movement?
Synovial
30
Which exercise is typically used to measure muscular endurance for the upper extremities during a pushing movement?
Push-up test
31
What does the Eccentric phase of a plyometric movement accomplish?
Deceleration
32
What are RPE range on a scale of 1-10 aligns with trainings in zone two
RPE 5 to 6
33
Recommended training variables for self myofascial rolling
1-3 sets holding each tender area for 30 seconds
34
What is the term for the higher than normal energy expenditure during the recovery period After exercise?
Excess postexercise oxygen consumption
35
The drawing in maneuver increases activation of what muscle?
Transverse abdominis
36
Which type of joint includes the sutures of the skull?
Non-synovial
37
Which muscle would be considered under active leading to shoulder elevation during the pushing assessment
Lower trapezius
38
What scientific term is used to describe the concept whereby a loaded eccentric contraction prepares the muscles for a rapid concentric contraction?
Stretch shortening cycle cycle
39
I what is reached wanna talk test during exercise reveals that the client is in VT2?
The level at which the body can work at its highest, sustainable, steady state intensity for more than a few minutes
40
In what plane of movement do shoulder, horizontal adduction, and abduction occur?
Transverse
41
What is an optional component of an OPT work out and is based on client goals and fitness levels?
Skill development
Not resistance
42
What surrounds the skeletal muscles and connect them to other surrounding muscles?
Fascia
43
Which muscles are typically underactive in association with pes planus distortion syndrome?
Anterior and posterior tibialis, and gluteus Maximus and medius
44
Proper extensibility of which global core muscles important prior to performing a medicine ball, pool over throw?
Latissimus dorsi
45
What type of flexibility training is most likely to use instruments or equipment to help the body improve range of motion?
Self myofascial techniques
46
When a DP is converted to ATP what is this process called?
Phosphorylation
47
What is excess post exercise oxygen consumption? EPOC
The increase in aerobic metabolism above baseline that occurs for a period after exercise
48
Recommended training, variables for dynamic stretching
One set
10 to 15 reps
3 to 10 exercises
49
What describes the passage of digested food into the blood system to be processed for energy nutrients, and tissue building?
Absorption
50
What occurs during intermittent exercise regarding energy?
All three energy systems will be used at some point during activity
51
Before amino acids can be used to make ATP what process do they have to go through?
Gluconeogensis
Not glycosis
52
What type of input may provide a runner with a cute a contract that ever return muscles to avoid an inversion injury?
Proprioception
53
What is a characteristic of type one muscle fibers?
Less force production
54
What is the scientific term that describes the nervous system’s role in the contract/relax, relationship between agonist and antagonist?
Reciprocal inhibition
55
In regards to eccentric muscle action, as the contraction velocity —- the force ——
As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force also increases
56
What is the three categories within the lipid family?
Triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols
57
What are two medical precautions for self myofascial techniques?
Joint, hyper mobility and scoliosis
58
Which synergist would assist upper body pectoral muscles to enhance chest, stabilization, strength, or power?
tricep brachii
Not bicep
59
If pyruvate is being created via glycolysis faster than oxygen can be delivered to the muscle, what will happen to the pyruvate?
The pyruvate will be converted into lactate
60
What term describes the active lately pushing on a client shoulders when they are balancing on 1 foot, so they can learn to maintain an Recover balance?
Perturbation
61
What is the process called that prepares fatty acid substrates to enter the citric acid cycle?
Beta-oxidization
62
What term is used to describe muscle tension that is created without a change in muscle length and no visible movement of the joint?
Isometric (think hold)
63
And an integrated training program what would be the last portion of training session?
Resistance training
64
What muscle functions in a feedforward mechanism in anticipation of limb movement?
Multifidus
65
Omega-3 fatty acids do not include which of the following fatty acids?
Palmitic acid
66
What best describes core training the facts on decreasing the incidence of new injuries?
Injury resistance
67
Which exercise primarily targets the transverse abdominous?
Drawing in maneuver
68
Speed is the product of what two variables?
Stride rate in stride length
69
For an individual training and stage one what training volume and frequency would qualify that person to progress to stage two?
Ability to maintain zone one intensity for at least 30 minutes 3 times a week
70
When using battle ropes as a modality, what diameter of rope would be best be used for strength, power and anaerobic adaptations for 30 seconds or less?
2 in (largest)
71
If someone repeatedly lift heavy weights, that person will produce higher levels of maximal strength. What is this an example of?
SAID principle
Human body adopt specifically to imposed demands
72
The impact that family members, peers, or coworkers have on someone’s decision to exercise, describes which term?
Group influence, not societal
73
Posture of the spine is primarily controlled by which muscles of the core?
Local muscles
74
In what zone of training would you exercise vigorously at a heart, intensity, and talking would be very limited to short phrases
Zone three
75
What is a ketone bodies?
Acetoacetic acid
76
What would be an example of core musculature to stabilize the trunk and pelvis?
Pectoral group ?!
77
Carbohydrate intake, Parton Tenzin, long duration, exercise serves what function?
Replenish is glycogen stores, and provide adequate fuel for performance
78
What are two primary actions of a muscle spindle?
Since change in the muscle, length and speed of length change
79
What condition is characterized by the narrowing of the coronary arteries?
Ischemic heart disease
80
When properly activated, which muscle of the core creates tension in the thoracolumbar fascia?
a. Rectus abdominis
b. Diaphragm
c. Transverse abdominis
d. Sternocleidomastoid
transverse abdominis
81
Using battle ropes is considered which sort of exercise?
low-impact activity
82
What are the two components of a sarcomere?
actin and myosin
83
Which component contributes the most to total energy expenditure?
resting metabolism
84
What causes coronary heart disease?
Atherosclerosis
85
Reactive training is another common name for which type of exercise?
plyometric training
not SAQ
86
If someone went out for a 5-mile jog with their friend, which energy system would provide most of the ATP for this activity?
Oxidative phosphorylation
87
What term is defined as the generic modifiable factors that impact behavior?
Determinants
not behavior change techniques
88
What is defined as the ability to react and change body position with maximal force production, in all planes of motion, and from all body positions?
quickness
89
Which subsystem is responsible for providing both frontal plane mobility and stabilization of the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex?
Select one:
a. Lateral subsystem
b. Posterior oblique subsystem
c. Deep longitudinal subsystem
d. Anterior oblique subsystem
lateral subsystem
90
Which statement about lowering blood pressure is true?
a. Planned exercise alone is typically insufficient for acutely lowering and controlling hypertension.
b. There is no direct evidence that exercise will result in lower blood pressure.
c. Reducing excessive alcohol use will not have an impact on high blood pressure.
d. Exercise can help control body weight, but it cannot improve blood flow.
Planned exercise alone is typically insufficient for acutely lowering and controlling hypertension.
91
Programming exercises that are too advanced or physically demanding can have a lasting effect on which of the client's emotional considerations?
self-efficacy
92
Which term defines the degree to which a test specifically measures what it is intended to measure?
Select one:
a. Reliability
b. Relevance
c. Validity
d. Appropriateness
VALIDITY
not reliability
93
If your client is working in Phase 1 of the OPT model, what type of flexibility training should they utilize?
a. SMR/ballistic stretching
b. SMR/active stretching
c. SMR/static stretching
d. SMR/dynamic stretching
SMR and static stretching
94
What are the three movements performed during the ball combo I exercise?
a. Wrist flexion, elbow flexion, and shoulder flexion
b. Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation
c. Hip adduction, flexion, and internal rotation
d. Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra
Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra
95
Clients with chronic lung disease often have shortness of breath, also known as which of the following?
dyspnea
96
What is an appropriate tempo for Phase 1 of the OPT model?
Select one:
a. X-X-X-X
b. 4-2-1-1
c. 1-2-3-4
d. 2-0-2-0
4-2-1-1
97
Which is a power-focused exercise for the back musculature?
Select one:
a. Medicine ball chest pass
b. Medicine ball pullover throw
c. Front medicine ball oblique throw
d. Overhead medicine ball throw
b. medicine ball pullover throw
98
How many vertebrae make up the thoracic spine?
12
99
Which total daily energy expenditure (TDEE) is responsible for the most energy expenditure throughout the day?
resting metabolic rate
100
What is the concentric motion of the shoulder blades during the standing cable row exercise?
Select one:
a. Upward rotation
b. Elevation
c. Retraction
d. Protraction
c. retraction
101
Which exercise is a total-body power-focused movement?
Select one:
a. Front medicine ball oblique throw
b. Soccer throw
c. Medicine ball chest pass
d. Two-arm push press
two are push press
102
Which of the following core exercises best suits stabilization training?
Select one:
a. Deadlifts
b. Floor bridge
c. Barbell chest press
d. Repeat step-ups
floor bridge
103
What two factors define any form or type of exercise?
Select one:
a. Intensity and duration
b. Duration and time
c. Speed and complexity
d. Intensity and speed
intensity and duration
104
Inadequate hydration and mild dehydration can have several negative effects on athletic performance, including which of the following?
a. Lower rate of perceived exertion (RPE)
b. Increased cardiac output
c. Lower body temperature
d. Decreased blood flow
decreased blood flow
105
What is the sufficient recovery time that is generally needed between plyometric exercises during a workout?
a. 0 seconds
b. 5 minutes
c. 60 to 120 seconds
d. 30 seconds
60-120
106
Competitive athletes who performed balance training exercises reduced the risk of which injury by 46%?
a. Ankle sprains
b. Concussions
c. Anterior cruciate ligament injuries Incorrect
d. Medial collateral ligament
ankle sprains
