Test Day!!! Flashcards
(120 cards)
1
Q
Type 1 vs type 2 muscle fibers
A
Type one: small twitch, less force but slower to fatigue
Type two: fast twitch more force, fatigue quickly
2
Q
Number of vertebras each part
A
Cervical spine 7
Thoracic spine 12
Lumbar spine 5
Sacrum 5
Coccyx 3-5
3
Q
What are muscle spindles?
A
Receptor, sensitive to change and length of the muscle and the rate of change
4
Q
Electrolytes
A
Sodium, potassium, magnesium, water
5
Q
Which of the following nutrition professionals is nationally recognized by the Commission on Dietetic Registration to provide clinical, community, food service, and nutrition education?
a. Certified dietitian nutritionist
b. Certified nutrition specialist
c. Licensed dietitian
d. Registered dietitian nutritionist
A
Registered dietitian nutritionist
6
Q
Which regions of the spine demonstrate kyphotic curves?
a. Cervical and thoracic
b. Cervical and sacral
c. Thoracic and lumbar
d. Thoracic and sacral
A
thoracic and sacral
7
Q
what is lordosis and where does it occur?
A
Lordosis is the forward curved spine in your neck or lower back.
Your cervical and lumbar are naturally curved a little forward, toward the front of your body.
8
Q
FITTE-VP stands for?
A
Frequency (how often?), Intensity (how hard?),
Time (how long?),
Type (what kind?),
Volume
Progression
9
Q
Which muscles are typically underactive with knee valgus during the overhead squat?
a. Lower trapezius
b. Gluteus maximus and medius
c. Tensor fascia latae
d. Adductor complex
A
gluteus maximus and medius
10
Q
In what training zone are you exercising at a challenging to hard intensity, where continual talking would become challenging?
a. Zone 2
b. Zone 4
c. Zone 1
d. Zone 3
A
zone 2
11
Q
Which heart chamber gathers oxygenated blood coming to the heart from the lungs?
A
left atrium
12
Q
which theory relates to the muscle contraction?
A
sliding filament theory
13
Q
what is the process of getting oxygen from the environment to the bodies tissues?
A
diffusion
14
Q
what transports deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs?
A
pulmonary artery
15
Q
what transports oxygenated blood from the lungs?
A
right atrium
16
Q
what is the process of breaking down fat for energy?
A
lipolysis
17
Q
what transports oxygenated blood to the body?
A
left ventricle
18
Q
what pumps the blood under low pressure through the pulmonary valve into the pulmonary artery?
A
right ventricle
19
Q
Which muscles are typically underactive in association with lower crossed syndrome?
a. Lower trapezius
b. Abdominals
c. Adductor complex
d. Hip flexors
overactive
A
abdominals… as well as glutes, hamstrings
overactive: hipp flexors and lumbar extensors
20
Q
The upper trapezius works with what muscle as a force couple to create upward rotation of the scapula?
a. Rotator cuff muscles
b. Serratus anterior
c. Deltoid
d. Rhomboids
A
serrates anterior
21
Q
Besides Power Training, which phase of training would be the best option for someone who is attempting to improve their Olympic weightlifting?
a. Muscular Development Training
b. Stabilization Endurance Training
c. Maximal Strength Training
d. Strength Endurance Training
A
maximal strength training
22
Q
What concern should you have when prescribing flexibility exercises to a client with osteoporosis?
a. Osteoporosis is considered a contraindication to myofascial rolling.
b. Osteoporosis is considered more than a precaution for myofascial rolling.
c. Osteoporosis is not considered a precaution for static stretching.
d. Osteoporosis is not a contraindication for any flexibility exercises.
A
Osteoporosis is considered a contraindication to myofascial rolling.
23
Q
Which joint has the simplest movement, moving either back and forth or side to side?
a. Nonaxial
b. Synovial
c. Condyloid
d. Nonsynovial
A
non axial
24
Q
Which of the following effects of the cardiovascular system occurs during exercise?
a. Decreased ventricular filling
b. Decreased venous return
c. Venous pooling
d. Increased ventricular filling
A
increased ventricle filling
25
Which structures of the body does osteoporosis commonly affect?
a. Neck of the femur and the lumbar (low-back) vertebrae
b. Cranium and facial bones
c. Scapula and humerus
d. Sternum and clavicle
neck of the femur and the lumbar low back vertebrae
26
Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining foot position while standing on an unstable surface.
a. Vestibular
b. Somatosensation
c. Vision
d. Sensorimotor function
somatosensation
27
Which of the following phases does not reflect the traditional components of cardiorespiratory training?
a. Warm-up phase
b. Cool-down phase
c. Interval phase
d. Conditioning phase
interval phase
28
What is the most appropriate SAQ program design for a beginner adult who is apparently healthy?
a. 6 to 8 drills allowing greater horizontal inertia but limited unpredictability, such as 5-10-5, T-drill, box drill, and stand-up to figure 8
b. 4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills
c. 10 to 12 drills allowing maximal inertia and unpredictability, such as modified box drill, partner mirror drill, and timed drills
d. 6 to 10 drills allowing maximal inertia and unpredictability, such as modified box drill, partner mirror drill, and timed drills
4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills
29
pproximately what percentage of Americans aged 20 years and older are obese?
a. 0.2
b. 0.8
c. 0.6
d. 0.4
.4
30
In which phase of training would a person want to spend more time if they were looking to become better at beach volleyball and already has adequate leg strength?
a. Power Training
b. Strength Endurance Training Incorrect
c. Muscular Development Training
d. Stabilization Endurance Training
power training
31
When sequencing physiological assessments, which of the following would produce a better result if measured immediately after exercise rather than before exercise?
a. Body composition
b. Flexibility
c. Resting heart rate
d. Blood pressure
flexibility
32
Which of the following statements describes the abdominal skinfold location?
a. A horizontal skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)
b. A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)
c. A vertical skinfold taken on the mid-axillary line at the level of the xiphoid process (which is typically just below the nipple line)
d. A diagonal fold taken immediately superior to and in line with the natural angle of the iliac crest (top portion of the hip bone), aligned with the anterior axillary line
A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)
33
Which of the following is not a skill-related concept that would enhance core training?
a. Balance
b. Coordination
c. Quickness
d. Agility
quickness
34
he process of diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide gases in and out of the bloodstream occurs in what structure or structures?
a. Trachea
b. Bronchioles
c. Pulmonary arteries
d. Alveolar sacs
alveolar sacs
35
What component of breathing improves blood flow back to the heart?
a. Inspiration with an increase in intrathoracic pressure
b. Expiration with an increase in intrathoracic pressure
c. Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure
d. Expiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure
Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure
36
When performing a dumbbell biceps curl, the biceps brachii is considered the agonist (prime mover), and the triceps become the inhibited antagonist. What is this phenomenon called?
a. Reciprocal inhibition
b. Autogenic inhibition
c. Stretch reflex
d. Isometric contraction
reciprocal inhibition
37
What is cardiac output?
a. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction
b. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
c. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per beat or contraction
d. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction
The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
38
what type of diabetes occurs when cells are resistant to insulin, meaning that the insulin present cannot transfer adequate amounts of blood sugar into the cell?
type 2
39
What is adaptive thermogenesis?
a. Changes in energy intake due to changes in energy expenditure
b. Adaptations to exercise due to changes in energy intake
c. Metabolic adaptations and changes in energy expenditure due to changes in energy intake
d. Increased heat production due to changes in energy expenditure
Metabolic adaptations and changes in energy expenditure due to changes in energy intake
40
Which of the following statements would be accurate with regard to muscle force and velocity during a concentric contraction?
a. As the velocity of a concentric muscle action increases, its ability to produce force increases.
b. As the velocity of a concentric muscle action decreases, its ability to produce force decreases.
c. As velocity decreases, the force remains constant.
d. As the velocity of the muscle action increases, its ability to produce force decreases.
As the velocity of the muscle action increases, its ability to produce force decreases.
41
what would be accurate about the velocity during eccentric contraction
As the velocity of a concentric muscle action increases, its ability to produce force increases.
42
What must be maintained when performing exercises in a proprioceptively enriched environment?
a. A stable floor
b. The absence of perturbations Incorrect
c. Both feet on the floor
d. Correct technique
correct technique
43
Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain postural control within a stationary limit of stability but with a moving base of support?
a. Moderate-level balance
b. Dynamic balance Incorrect
c. Static balance
d. Semi-dynamic balance
semi-dynamic training
44
Ergogenic aids are typically consumed for what purpose?
a. To improve athletic performance and/or body composition
b. To correct nutrient imbalances
c. To mitigate the side effects of medication
d. For general well-being
to improve athletic performance and/or body composition
substances or devices that enhance energy production, use or recovery and provide athletes with a competitive advantage. e.g. creatine
45
Which form of SAQ training is characterized by the ability to start, stop, and change direction in response to a signal or stimulus quickly while maintaining postural control?
a. Agility
b. Stride rate
c. Quickness
d. Speed
agility
46
When a person loses body weight, what is the only way that mass is lost?
exhale carbon dioxide
47
Which of the following is characterized as a local muscle of the core?
a. Latissimus dorsi
b. Transverse abdominis
c. Erector spinae
d. Rectus abdominis
transverse abdominis
48
Which muscle acts to increase intra-abdominal pressure?
a. Diaphragm Incorrect
b. Pelvic floor musculature
c. Quadratus lumborum
d. Transverse abdominis
transverse abdominis
49
which muscles are typically underactive and overactive in association with lower crossed syndrome?
underactive: abdominals and gluteus maximus/medius
overactive: hip flexors and lumbar extensors
50
what muscles are
underactive causing
low back arching & excessive forward lean during OHSA
overactive:
underactive: gluteus maximus, hamstrings, abdominals
overactive: hip flexors, lumbar extensor, latissimus dorsi
51
what muscles are overactive leading to arms falling forward in OHSA
overactive: latissimus dorsi, pecs, teres major
underactive: mid/low trap, rhomboids, posterior deltoids
52
what muscles are underachieve causing should elevation during pushing assessment?
lower trap
53
Jackson pollock skinfold test
and
durnin wormsley
3 site: supraialac, thigh, tricep
7 sites add: axilla, abdominal, subscapular, chest,
durnin wormsley = bicep, tricep, sub scapular, spurailac
54
what muscle is overactive causing knee vulgus in OHSA
overactive: tensor fascia and adductor complex
55
what muscle is overactive/underactive causing arms to fall forward during OHSA
underactive: middle/lower trap
overactive: upper trap
56
what muscles are overactive/underactive if feet turn out in OHSA
overactive: gastrocnemius and soleus or hamstrings
underactive:tibialis, gluteus maximus/medius
57
If you have a client who wants to increase speed, what phase of the OPT model would they fall into?
a. Phase 4
b. Phase 5
c. Phase 1
d. Phase 3
phase 5
58
The development of muscular endurance of the legs requires light weights and high repetitions when performing leg-related exercises. What is this an example of?
a. Posture specificity
b. Metabolic specificity
c. Neuromuscular specificity
d. Mechanical specificity
mechanical specificity
Mechanical = weight
Metabolic= energy demands
neuromuscular = seed of contraction and type
59
In which phase of the OPT model would suspended bodyweight training be the most desirable for optimal outcomes?
a. Phase 4
b. Phase 5
c. Phase 2
d. Phase 3
phase 2
60
You have a client seeking weight loss. What number of repetitions is most appropriate for SAQ drills?
a. 3 to 5 reps
b. 6 to 8 reps
c. 1 or 2 reps
d. 8 to 10 reps
3-5 reps
61
During the standing cable chest press, the resistance should be positioned to do what?
a. Pull the shoulders into flexion and scapular protraction
b. Resist shoulder extension and scapular retraction
c. Resist shoulder horizontal adduction
d. Pull the elbows into extension
: Resist shoulder horizontal adduction
62
What is a key mechanism involved in internal feedback?
a. Motivation Incorrect
b. Knowledge of performance
c. Proprioception
d. Knowledge of results
Feedback
proprioception
63
Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the global muscles of the core?
a. Dead bug
b. Plank
c. Back extension
d. Medicine ball overhead throw
back extension
64
If someone were performing repeated sprints with each sprint lasting between 30 and 90 seconds, which energy system would be contributing the most to ATP production during this activity?
a. The electron transport chain
b. The ATP-PC system
c. Oxidative phosphorylation
d. Glycolysis
Also, Explain the different levels of energy production
glycolysis
ATP-PC: 10-15 sec
fastest
glycolysis 30-50 sec
uses carbs
medium duration
Oxidative phosphorylation
slow process
(includes aerobic glycolysis, Krebs cycle, and electron chain transport) can use pyruvate
65
What is sarcopenia?
a. Lower than normal bone mineral density
b. Chronic inflammation of the joints
c. Age-related loss in bone mineral density
d. Age-related loss of muscle tissue
Age-related loss of muscle tissue
66
Which of the following tests is designed to test reaction capabilities, acceleration, and maximal sprinting speed?
a. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
b. Overhead squat
c. Pro shuttle
d. 40-yard dash
Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral speed and agility?
a. Pro shuttle Incorrect
b. 40-yard dash
c. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
d. Vertical jump
40 yard dash-- acceleration, reaction capabilities, and max sprinting
lateral speed and agility--
Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
pro-shuttle 5-10-5
acceleration, deceleration, agility and control
67
What is it called when a ligament is overstretched or torn?
a. A sprain
b. A strain Incorrect
c. A twist
d. A pull
sprain (think ACL)
68
Which of the following is a component of agility training?
a. Deceleration
b. Stride rate
c. Reaction
d. Assessment of visual stimuli
decceleration
69
Which skinfold sites are measured if determining body composition via the Durnin-Womersley protocol?
a. Triceps, abdomen, mid-axillary, and suprailiac
b. Triceps, subscapular, chest, and thigh
c. Biceps, mid-axillary, subscapular, and chest
d. Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac
Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac
70
Which of the following is a limiting factor for how long anaerobic glycolysis can proceed?
a. Lack of pyruvate Incorrect
b. Depletion of phosphocreatine
c. Free hydrogen ions
d. Lack of fatty acids
free hydrogen ions
71
What is the best next progression for a client who can properly perform the power step-up exercise?
a. Depth jumps
b. Ice skaters
c. Proprioceptive plyometrics
d. Squat jump
ice skaters
72
What differentiates change of direction from agility?
a. Acceleration
b. Deceleration
c. Changing directions
d. Reaction to a signal
reaction to signal
73
You are training a youth client. What is the best choice for number of SAQ drills per workout for this athlete?
a. 4 to 8 drills per workout
b. 2 or 3 drills per workout
c. 9 or 10 drills per workout
d. 1 or 2 drills per workout
4-8 drills
74
What are the two physiological responses that can occur from myofascial rolling?
a. Pain response and muscle spasm
b. Mechanical and neurophysiological response
c. Delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) and increased strength
d. Davis's law and Wolf's law
mechanical and nuerophsyciological response
75
You have a client seeking weight loss. What range of sets is most appropriate for SAQ drills?
a. 3 or 4 sets
b. 7 to 8 sets
c. 5 or 6 sets
d. 1 or 2 sets
3-4 sets
76
Where in the heart is the sinoatrial node located?
a. Right atrium
b. Left ventricle
c. Right ventricle
d. Left atrium
right atrium
77
spotting- barbell vs. free weights
free weights at wrist
barbell at armpits
78
During the cable rotation exercise, which position of the hip will help to decrease stress to the low-back?
a. Hip adduction
b. Hip flexion
c. Hip internal rotation
d. Hip extension
hip extension
79
Which of the following muscles is primarily targeted when performing a biceps curl exercise with the thumb up?
a. Brachioradialis
b. Triceps brachii
c. Brachialis
d. Biceps brachii
brachioradialis
80
What RPE range (on a scale of 1 to 10) aligns with training in zone 2?
a. An RPE of 5 to 6
b. An RPE of 9 to 10
c. An RPE of 3 to 4
d. An RPE of 7 to 8
RPE 5-6
81
What is the term for the higher-than-normal energy expenditure during the recovery period after exercise?
a. Nonexercise activity thermogenesis
b. Exercise activity thermogenesis
c. Thermic effect of food
d. Excess postexercise oxygen consumption
excess post exercise oxygen consumption
82
The drawing-in maneuver increases activation of what muscle?
a. External obliques
b. Erector spinae
c. Diaphragm
d. Transverse abdominis
transverse abdominis
83
Which type of joint includes the sutures of the skull?
a. Ball-and-socket
b. Nonsynovial
c. Condyloid
d. Pivot
nonsynovial
84
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pushing assessment?
a. Lower trapezius
b. Cervical extensors
c. Serratus anterior
d. Upper trapezius
upper trapezius
85
at is reached when a talk test during exercise reveals a client to be working at ventilatory threshold 2?
a. The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources
b. The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes
c. The ability to talk or hold a conversation during an activity at various intensity levels
d. The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for only few seconds
Feedback
b. The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes
86
In what plane of movement do shoulder horizontal adduction and abduction occur?
a. Dorsal
b. Frontal
c. Sagittal
d. Transverse
transverse
87
When ADP is converted to ATP, what is this process called?
a. Transformation
b. Phosphorylation
c. ATP-PC
d. Oxidation
phosphorylation
88
What are the recommended training variables for dynamic stretching?
a. 15 sets, hold each stretch for 3 to 6 seconds, repeat for 2 to 5 repetitions
b. 1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises
c. 4 to 6 sets, 10 to 15 repetitions, 1 or 2 exercises
d. 3 to 9 sets, hold each stretch for 4 to 15 seconds, repeat for 5 to 20 repetitions
1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises
89
Before amino acids can be used to make ATP, what process do they have to go through?
a. Oxidation
b. Gluconeogenesis
c. Oxidative phosphorylation
d. Glycolysis
gluconeogensis (the formation of glucose from noncarb sources- proteins AMINO ACIDS and fast
90
What is a characteristic of a type I muscle fiber?
a. Less force production
b. Fewer capillaries
c. Larger in size
d. Quick to fatigue
less force production
91
What is the scientific term that describes the nervous system’s role in the contract/relax relationship between agonists and antagonists?
a. Muscle imbalance
b. Length-tension relationship
c. Stretch-shortening cycle
d. Reciprocal inhibition
reciprocal inhibition
92
What are two medical precautions for self-myofascial techniques?
a. Osteoporosis and uncontrolled hypertension
b. Cancer and bleeding disorders
c. Joint hypermobility and scoliosis
d. Extreme discomfort/pain and rheumatoid arthritis
joint hyper mobility and scoliosis
93
Which synergist would assist the upper-body pectoral muscles to enhance chest stabilization, strength, or power?
a. Quadriceps
b. Biceps brachii
c. Latissimus dorsi
d. Triceps brachii
tricep brachii
94
Which term describes the act of lightly pushing on a client’s shoulders when they are balancing on one foot so they can learn to maintain or recover balance?
a. Somatosensation
b. Sensorimotor function
c. Perturbation
d. Neuromuscular control
Feedback
perturbation
95
In what training zone would you be exercising at a vigorous to very hard intensity, where talking is limited to infrequent, short phrases?
a. Zone 2
b. Zone 3
c. Zone 1
d. Zone 4
zone 3
96
What condition is characterized by the narrowing of coronary arteries?
a. Heart valve problem
b. Ischemic heart disease
c. Arrhythmia
d. Hypertension
Ischemic heart disease
97
When properly activated, which muscle of the core creates tension in the thoracolumbar fascia?
a. Rectus abdominis Incorrect
b. Diaphragm
c. Transverse abdominis
d. Sternocleidomastoid
Transverse abdominis
98
Reactive training is another common name for which type of exercise?
Select one:
a. Power training
b. Stabilization training
c. SAQ training
d. Plyometric training
plyometric
99
If someone went out for a 5-mile jog with their friend, which energy system would provide most of the ATP for this activity?
a. Beta-oxidation
b. Oxidative phosphorylation
c. Glycolysis
d. The ATP-PC system
Oxidative phosphorylation
100
What term is defined as the generic modifiable factors that impact behavior?
a. Behavior change techniques Incorrect
b. Determinants
c. Self-efficacy
d. Attitudes
derminants
101
Which subsystem is responsible for providing both frontal plane mobility and stabilization of the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex?
a. Lateral subsystem
b. Posterior oblique subsystem
c. Deep longitudinal subsystem
d. Anterior oblique subsystem
Feedback
lateral subsystem
102
Which term defines the degree to which a test specifically measures what it is intended to measure?
a. Reliability
b. Relevance
c. Validity
d. Appropriateness
Feedback
validity
103
If your client is working in Phase 1 of the OPT model, what type of flexibility training should they utilize?
a. SMR/ballistic stretching
b. SMR/active stretching
c. SMR/static stretching
d. SMR/dynamic stretching
smr and static stretching
104
Which is a power-focused exercise for the back musculature?
a. Medicine ball chest pass
b. Medicine ball pullover throw
c. Front medicine ball oblique throw
d. Overhead medicine ball throw
medicine ball pull over throw
105
What is the concentric motion of the shoulder blades during the standing cable row exercise?
a. Upward rotation
b. Elevation
c. Retraction
d. Protraction
retraction
106
What two factors define any form or type of exercise?
a. Intensity and duration
b. Duration and time
c. Speed and complexity
d. Intensity and speed
intensity and duration
107
Inadequate hydration and mild dehydration can have several negative effects on athletic performance, including which of the following?
a. Lower rate of perceived exertion (RPE)
b. Increased cardiac output
c. Lower body temperature
d. Decreased blood flow
decreased blood flow
108
Competitive athletes who performed balance training exercises reduced the risk of which injury by 46%?
a. Ankle sprains
b. Concussions
c. Anterior cruciate ligament injuries
d. Medial collateral ligament injuries
ankle sprains
109
lever types
type one lever = seesaw fulcrum in middle
type two lever = fulcrum on either side like a whellbarrow
type three lever= force between fulcrum and resistance like bicep
110
fat soluble vitamins
A, D, E, K
111
4 p's of marketing
product, price, promotion, and place
112
types of stretching:
static min. 1-3 sets 30 sec
dynamic: 1-3 sets, 5-10 repps, 3-10 exercises ROM
active: 1-3 sets, 1-2 sec 5-10 reps
113
suggested vigorous and moderate exercise amounts
150 min mod
75 min vigorous
114
list local core muscles
rotatores, multifidus, transverse abdominis, diaphragm, pelvic floor, quadrates lumborum
115
list global core muscles
rectus abdominis, all obliques, erector spinae, latissimus doris, iliopsoas
116
frontside mechanics
ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, hip flexion
117
backside mechanics
ankle plantar flexion, knee extension, hip extension
118
overactive and underactive muscles related to pes plants distortion
overactive: gastrocnemius and soleus, adductors, hip flexors
underactive: tibialis, glutes
119
overactive and underactive muscles related to upper crossed syndrome?
overactive: pectoralis, neck muscles e.g. sternocleidomastoid, upper trap
underactive: lower/mid trap, rhomboids, deep cervical muscles
120
underactive/overactive knees cave in during OHSA
underactive: glutes and tibialis
overactive: tensor fascia (near front of hip), adductor complex
