Section 5 Flashcards

(101 cards)

1
Q

 exercises performed back to back in rapid succession

A

Superset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Synergist

A

Assist the main muscle in force production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Concentric vs eccentric

A

lifting the dumbbell is due to concentric contraction of the biceps brachii muscle, while lowering the dumbbell is the result of eccentric contraction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which synergist with a sister, upper body pectoral muscles to enhance chess stabilization, strength and power

A

 Triceps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which Adl would most likely involve hip hinge

A

Cleaning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is not a benefit of resistance training?

A

 Decreased metabolic rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which plyometric term relates to rapid eccentric motion, followed by an explosive concentric motion

A

 Stretched shortening cycle 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which phase of training would be most appropriate for a beginner who has had previous experience in the last few months

A

Strength, endurance, training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which term refers to the neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when synergist take over function for a week or inhibited prime movers

A

 Synergistic dominance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is altered, reciprocal inhibition

A

When an overactive agonist muscle decreases the neural drive to it’s functional antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which law states that soft tissue models along the line of stress

A

Davis’s law

Adhesion may begin to form structural changes in the soft tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the minimum duration that a static stretch should be held?

A

 30 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define active stretching

A

 Using agonist and synergist muscles to dynamically, move the joint into a range of motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the mechanism of action for active stretching?

A

 Reciprocal inhibition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the recommended training variables for active stretching

A

1-3 sets
Hold 1-2 sec
Repeat 5-10x

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Relative flexibility

A

 Altered movement patterns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Process and speed from which frequency, intensity time and type are increased

A

 Rate of progression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Five components of fitness

A

Cardio respiratory aerobic fitness

Muscular strength
 Muscular endurance
Flexibility,
 body composition, 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

FITTE-VP

A

Frequency, intensity, type, time, enjoyment, volume, progression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does not reflect the traditional components of cardiorespiratory training

A

Interval phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Control spinal posture/control

Local muscles consist primarily of which type of muscle fiber

A

Type one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Local muscles

A

Provide dynamic control of spinal segments, limiting excessive compression and rotational force
Eg. Rotatores, multifidus, transverse abdominis, diaphragm, pelvic floor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Global muscles

A

 More superficial. Act to move the trunk transfer loads between upper and lower extremities and provide stability of the spine.
Eg. Rectus abdominis, obliques, erector spines, lat Doris, iliopsoas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Kyphotic/kyphosis

A

The normal curvature of the thoracic spine region, creating a convex portion of the spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Anterior pelvic tilt  Posterior pelvic tilt
 Interiors excessive forward, rotation of the pelvis, the results in greater lumbar Lordosis (concave curvature of the cervical and lumbar spine)
26
Eccentric
 Force reduction
27
Concentric
 Force production
28
Isometric
Dynamic stabilization
29
What issue is indicated by abdominal Petrushin during marching exercises
 Poor activation of the local core
30
Which anti-rotational exercise is designed to target the local core muscles
Kenneling pallof press
31
Forward head posture is permitted during the drawing in maneuver, what muscles may be activated, leading to poor balance
Sternocleidomastoid (neck muscles)
32
What is an example of an exercise that targets the global muscles of the core
 Back extension
33
What exercise modality, well enrich the proprioceptive nature of exercise
Wobble board
34
Excessive anterior pelvic tilt would lead to this posture of the lumbar spine
Increased lordosis
35
Scoliosis refers to deviations of the spine in which plane of motion
Frontal plane
36
Proper extensibility, of which of these global core muscles is important prior to performing a medicine ball pull overthrow through
 Lat dorsi
37
When performing a flower, bridge, exercise, why should you not raise your hips too far off the floor?
It may place excessive stress on the lumbar spine through hyper extension
38
During the cable rotation exercise, which position of the heck will help decrease stress on the low by
Hip extension
39
Which muscle is classified as a local muscle involved in stabilizing the spine?
Multidus
40
What regions of the spine demonstrate lordotic curve
Lose back curve Cervical and lumbar
41
How should back the position for bird dog?
Neutral
42
Perturbation
An alteration of the bodies, current state caused by the application of external force
43
What exercise is appropriate for entry level balance training
Single leg lift, and chop
44
Sensorimotor function
Receptors involved with the sense responsible for determining position while standing on an unstable surface
45
Vestibular
Senses controlled by receptors in the inner ear that provide the brain information about spatial orientation and movement around the head
46
Which system provides information to the central nervous system about where the body is in space
Visual system
47
Which is the most highly progress plyometric
Transverse (side) plane box jumps down
48
Repeat, squat jumps are progression for which exercise
Multiplanar jump with stabilization
49
What is the complete transition from eccentric to concentric action
Amortization phase
50
What variable of plyometric training is determined by the clients fitness level current training program, training, history, injury, history, and, training, goals?
Training frequency
51
What percentage of bone density loss does the risk of hip fracture increase 2.5 times?
10%
52
SAQ drill amounts
Weight loss 3-4 sets 3-5 reps 15-60 sec rest Beginner 4-6 drills Kids 1-3x week 1-4 sets intermediate 6-8 drills 0-60 sec rest
53
What differentiates change of direction from agility
 Reaction to a signal
54
What best describes the triple flexion when referring to the front side mechanics
Ankle, dorsiflexion, knee flexion, hip flexion of the lead leg
55
Which is a component of quickness training
Assessment of visual stimuli
56
Neuromuscular specificity
Refers to the speed of contraction and exercise selection
57
Mechanical specificity
Refers to the weight and movements placed on the body
58
Metabolic specificity
Refers to the energy demands placed on the body
59
The Giant set system
Performing for more exercises in succession with as little rest as possible between sets
60
Drop set
Performing a set to failures, and removing a small percentage of the loading continuing with the next set
61
Split routine system
 Training different body parts on different days
62
Three stages of the general adaptation syndrome
 Alarm reaction, resistance, development, exhaustion
63
If a client is performing a barbell, squat exercise, how should they be spotted?
Underneath armpits
64
4-3-2-1 push-up
4 eccentric action 2 concentric action
65
Peripheral heart action system
Variation of circuit training that alternate upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit
66
Common power, focused, resistance, training, exercise
Medicine ball soccer throw
67
What type of muscle contraction occurs between landing in jumping during plyometric training?
Isometric
68
What scheme is the most ideal to achieve stabilization muscular endurance adaptations? Science for maximal strength?
2 sets, 20 reps @ 50% Max strength 5 sets 5 reps @85%
69
Define Ventilatory threshold one VT1 What defines zone 2
The point at which the body uses an equal mixture of carbohydrate in size fuel sources Zone 2 between vt1 and vt2 Above vt2 = zone 4
70
Shortest time. Per day for balance training for children 3 times a week
10 minutes
71
Which client position during exercise has been shown to lead to the highest core muscle activity during breathing exercises?
Standing
72
During balance training, gluteal muscles should remain in which state to hold the body stable?
Isometrically contracted
73
What zone of training is the ability to talk limited to short phrases?
Zone 3 Zone 2 talking is becoming more challenging
74
What exercise targets the triceps musculature
Close grip bench press
75
What is a component of agility training?
Deceleration
76
Recommended training, variables for dynamic stretching
 One set, 10 to 15 reps, 3 to 10 exercises
77
Asking a client to turn their head to the side during a balancing exercise challenges which system?
 Vestibular
78
What is one of the following things specified in the protocol to improve balance?
 Biomechanical ankle platform system
79
Training, the E centric phase of plyometric movements with a new client, will help them improve, which of the following
Landing mechanics
80
What is one advantage of using the Karvonen Method, (heart rate reserve) to calculate training, heart rates versus percentage of maximal heart rate
Edit accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate
81
Why is arching quadriceps stretch considered a controversial lower body stretch?
The stretch provides excessive stress on the kneecap and other tissues in the front knee
82
The goal of the stabilization endurance phase is to focus on which aspect
Movement quality
83
What is an example of an exercise that targets the local muscles of the core?
Side plank
84
In phase 1 of the OPT model, what type of flexibility training should be utilized
Static stretching
85
How is a general warm up best defined?
 Low intensity, exercise, consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following A specific warmup is something diff
86
What muscles work with the obliques will assist a client in standing cable rotation movement
Erector spinae
87
Which body part is not subject to increase intensity, through resistance training
Nerves
88
What is the key characteristic of plyometric exercise?
 A faster tempo similar to daily life
89
What type of movement should be used before progressing to single foot plyometric exercises?
Dual foot drills
90
What would be the back squat volume for a client who has completed 10 sets of three repetitions at 225 pounds
6750 lb Volume= reps x sets x added weight
91
What is considered a benefit of performing a warm up prior to cardiorespiratory training?
Increased respiratory rate and tissue temperature
92
Tabata training
2:1 ratio Total duration of the workout 4 minutes long and preformed at 170% of vo2max
93
A client performing a multiplanar stop up with a curl to overhead press has a lower back arch what muscles are potentially overactive and underactive?
Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals
94
Knee valgus underactive and overactive
Overactive hip adductors and underactive glutues medius
95
What phase of the OPT model aims to increase growth of muscles to maximal levels?
 Muscular development
96
What variable of plyometric training is determined by clients fitness level crunch training program training, history, injury, history, and training goals?
Training frequency
97
What is the component of quickness training?
Assessment of visual stimuli (not acceleration)
98
What is a superficial muscle of the core?
Erector spinae
99
What is defined as the ability to react, and change body position with maximal, force, production, and all planes of motion, and from all body positions?
Quickness
100
Appropriate progression for a core training program to optimize function
Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic, stability, movement efficiency
101
Agility plus ______
Change of direction