Pre-Test Review Flashcards
1
Q
Can the ADVs operate without IA?
A
Yes. They have a nitrogen backup
2
Q
What mode will the DFWCS Master Controller be in 5 seconds after a reactor trip?
A
TRACKING the RTO controller
3
Q
What role does PKA-M41 play in the AF System?
A
AFA govornor control power
AFN normal control power
4
Q
When does the first MSSV lift?
A
1250 psig
5
Q
What does pressing the SG Low Pressure Reset push button do?
A
It lowers the setpoint 200 psig
6
Q
AFAS 1 is for #__ SG and will start ____ AF pump(s) and cycle based on level
A
#1 both
7
Q
From where do MCCs get control power for their magnetic starters?
A
From downstream of the circuit breaker
8
Q
If containment pressure reaches ____ psig on any two channels ____ RTCBs open.
A
3 psig
4 RTCBs open
9
Q
If the Steam Blanketing switch is taken to the steam blanketing position, what will happen?
A
The RSSV and the RSCV will close
10
Q
What signal does RRS send CEDMCS if selected TLI fails low?
A
Insert
11
Q
At what header pressures do the different fire pumps start?
A
As pressure decreases: Jockey Pump - 104 psig Motor Pump - 95 psig Diesel Pump A - 90 psig Diesel Pump B - 85 psig
12
Q
Taking the MSIV EXER/TEST switch to EXER does what?
A
Closes the valve to 90% open using the air operated pump
13
Q
When does the MFP swap to the D MSR?
A
at 90%
14
Q
What cools the isophase bus ducts?
A
TC
15
Q
What happens if you depress the TEST pushbutton on a FBEVAS channel?
A
Complete actuation of FBEVAS and CREFAS
16
Q
What is the time delay associated with start of the standby CEDM fan?
A
120 seconds
17
Q
Which SGWL detector does DFWCS use for control?
A
The higher reading NR detector
18
Q
What determines what’s on the SESS Panel?
A
This display checks which components must change status to be in their Post-ESF position.
19
Q
What starts automatically on a Control Building Air Intake RU Monitor alarm?
A
Control Room Essential ACUs
20
Q
Why does the Fuel Building Exhaust Fan have a higher capacity than the Fuel Building Supply Fans?
A
To maintain a negative pressure on the Fuel Building
21
Q
What would happen to the Essential Chiller if operating under load and the EW pump trips?
A
The Essential Chiller would trip on high condenser pressure
22
Q
What is the power supply to the Ex-Core NI’s?
A
NNN-D11 and NNN-D12
23
Q
CEA movement within the Reactor Vessel requires refueling water level to be greater than or equal to ______ ft above ________________________.
A
23 ft above the irradiated fuel asseblies
24
Q
From where does the ESOP take a suction?
A
The bearing oil supply header
25
What happens to the MSIVs on a loss of IA?
You lose the air operated pump. They'll remain as-is and may be Fast Closed
26
What is the purpose in the flywheel on the RCPs?
To increase coast down time
27
When in Auto-Sequential or Manual-Sequential, once Group 1 CEAs reach 90", what will happen?
Group 2 CEAs will begin to withdraw simultaneously with Group 1.
28
What does the TG for the MFP need to engage?
Adequate oil pressure
29
If Tave decreases, what signal does RRS send to CEDMCS?
Withdraw
30
What will happen if you take the PPCS Master Controller to 0 output?
Spray will secure
| B/U heaters will energize 100%
31
If RVLMS indication lowers, what has happened to the void size?
It has increased
32
What does the main turbine trip at -3" in the MSR protect from?
Moisture carryover
33
What is the difference between COLSS and the CMC?
COLSS is for indications
| CMC is for protection
34
What happens to boron concentration if CVCS IX temperature lowers?
Boron concentration will lower
35
When, on an up power, will the CPC value for ASI swap to a calculated value vice a canned value?
When the sum of the 3 excore detectors reaches 51%
36
AFN requires both suction valves to be > ____ % open to start.
80
37
What calibrates JCPCAL?
JSCALOR
38
How does a loss of PND-D28 effect CEDMCS?
You'll get a reverse Pac-Man on the Core Mimic
39
What will trip off the Normal Battery Exhaust Fans?
CO2 discharge
40
List the CPC Aux Trips
- < 2 RCPs running
- Th saturation (19F from saturation)
- Asymmetric SG Temps
- VOPT
- Input parameters out of range
- Internal Computer Processor Faults
41
If SGWL transmitter fails low, what effect does it have on the DFWCS?
None
42
What is used to compensate excore power for shielding effects?
Tcold
43
When the AUTO/MAN switch for the MFP is in MAN only the _____________ can control the MFP.
potentiometer
44
Theres a leak in pressurizer level transmitter LT-110 variable leg. How does this effect indicated level, letdown flow, and heaters?
Indicated level will lower which will in turn lower letdown flow and trip off all heaters
45
A LOP occurs and starts AFB. A SIAS occurs later. What is the status of AFB?
It'll load shed but it'll be running again once the sequencer starts it again.
46
The downcomer controller is in LOCAL. The operator places the downcomer controller on the board in valve output and attempts to use the up/down arrows. Will this move the valve?
Yes
47
What do the background detectors in the ICI's compensate for?
the current flow caused by non-neutron interactions
48
What happens to the PK Battery Room Normal Exhaust Fan if the room is flooded with Carbon Dioxide?
The fans will stop.
49
What happens if the selected Lpzr instrument fails high?
B/U heaters will energize (+3% insurge)
Letdown increases (Level is now higher than called for)
Normally Running Charging Pump stops ( > +15%)
50
If Tave fails low, how will this effect RTO in the DFWCS?
This will cause DFWCS to feed at a lower rate in RTO
51
What is the status of CHA-UV-524 while at 100%?
Down powered with position indication provided from a secondary power source
52
During holding ops, how many stages of the AR pump are in service?
both
53
What is RTO in DFWCS designed for?
To prevent a post-trip overcooling event
54
A single CEA cannot be withdrawn above the ______.
UEL (Upper Electrical Limit)
55
What type of detectors are the ICI's?
Rhodium detectors
56
What kind of reactivity is added to the Reactor if SG pressure increases? Why?
Negative because the increase in SG pressure will increase Tc.
57
During a plant startup, what is AS used for?
heating the #4 heater
58
What is required to be running to start a RCP?
its lift oil pump
59
Who determines duration for alarms in fast flash and any required monitored parameters or contingency actions for an annunciator?
The CRS
60
How do you get Setpoint Override on the B/U heaters?
Go to OFF then ON
61
What cools the hydrogen coolers?
TC
62
Communicate alarms to the CRS ________ activity. If not previously briefed, treat alarms as ____________.
- before
| - un-expected
63
When do we go to one Letdown Control Valve and one Letdown Back Pressure Control Valve and why?
When RCS pressure > 1200 psia to prevent from exceeding the capacity of the installed relief valve
64
How does QSPDS calculate upper head saturation margin?
The hottest of the top 3 unheated junction thermocouple temperatures
65
If the DWST becomes contaminated are there any other options we can use to supply the DW header?
We can use the Water Rec Header
66
What happens to pump current when its discharge valve is throttled closed?
Current will lower and stabilize at that lower value
67
At 7% power, what is the status of the MSR Drain Tank Hi Level Control Valve?
Failed Open
68
You're selected to Tave. Tc fails high. What signal will be generated?
AMI
69
What happens to DNBR POL as ASI goes more positive?
DNBR POL will increase
70
What component in the EC system minimizes stacking?
The RHPCV
71
Where is the only Containment temperature detector that will read > 200F displayed?
ERFDADS
72
What does the red breaker light signify?
That the breaker is closed and there is continuity through the trip coil
73
How does a loss of IA affect SBCS?
All the SBCS valves fail closed
74
Who is required to be in the Control Room during refueling operations?
The RO and Responsible Engineer representative
75
How much time will 2.75ft in the DG FOST give you?
About 1.5 hours
76
How does the WC makeup valve on the surge tank fail on a loss of IA?
closed
77
What happens to CW on a loss of TC?
The CW Pump bearings will overheat
78
B CREFAS is in BYPASS. You get a valid alarm on a FBEVAS channel. What will be running?
Both trains of FBEVAS and CREFAS
79
Only one Aux Building Exhaust and Supply are running. What happens if you take the other Supply Unit to START?
It won't start
80
How fast is rod insertion?
30"/min
| possible to be 3"/min in Auto-Sequential
81
What happens to the Letdown Back Pressure Control Valves if Letdown is lost?
They will go closed trying to maintain pressure
82
What do you have to do if you get the AZ TILT alarm?
Change the addressable constant in CPCs.
83
At 1275#, how may SG safeties are open?
4
84
What happens in PPS if a single matrix relay fails?
one RTCB will open
85
The black and white pointer on the Pressurizer Level Controller is the __________ set point.
Remote
86
What is the makeup for WC?
DW
87
How will JSCALOR indicate if blowdown is in service with a 0 BD constant?
High
88
What cools the Charging Pump Room ACUs?
WC
89
If on SDC, a leak occurs in the SDCHX, what would happen to the EW System?
The EW Surge Tank level would rise
90
How do the vacuum breakers operate?
Air to open and spring to close
91
Reactivity Briefs should contain what three aspects of control?
Rate
Duration
Method of Control
92
PMS is OOS. How does this affect COLSS?
COLSS is now INOP
93
What happens to the feed system if you lose NBN-S01?
You lose two CD pumps which cases you to lose a MFP on low suction pressure
94
What happens if you lose supervisory service air to pre-action valves?
Alarms - no actuations
The air is applied to the piping to ensure piping integrity. Lowering air pressure may indicate a system breach.
95
What rooms are not protected by CO2?
Remote Shutdown Panel
96
What is the vent path for the MSR Drain Tank?
The Hot Reheat Line
97
The normal overload setpoint for the fuel transfer machine is _____ lbs.
800 lbs
98
How is TC temperature maintained?
By throttling HX outlet and bypass
99
RVLMS has ___ sets of heated and unheated thermocouples located in the upper head and outlet plenum per train.
8
100
What alarm can you expect when taking a component to override from its actuated position?
SEAS Alarm
101
What cools the AR pumps?
PW
102
What does the combo of a Reactor Trip with a low Tave do to SBCS?
it will prevent a Quick Open of the SBCS Valves
103
When down powering from 85% to 70%, what will the downcomer do?
nothing
104
The MFT trips at ________ inches of mercury.
13.5
105
The Load Limit light is lit. How can the turbine be controlled in this condition.
Only the Load Limit Pot will control at this time.
106
Smoothed Power = 99.8%. DNBR POL = 109%. LPD POL = 111%. What does the Margin Meter read?
< 2%
The margin meter reads the difference between Smoothed Power and the lowest of either Licensed Power (101.5%), DNBR POL, or
107
Which RCS Pressure does QSPDS monitor: Narrow Range or Wide Range?
Wide Range
108
Where do the SBCS valves go?
A shell - 3
B shell - 2
C shell - 1
Atmos - 2
109
How is a leak in the SP System detected in the Control Room?
A gross flow deviation from the supply and return header
110
CEA movement within the Reactor Vessel requires refueling water level to be greater than _____ feet above the _________________.
23 feet
| irradiated fuel assemblies
111
What is the purpose in the background detector for the ICI's?
Corrects for the signal wire
112
'A' MSIS will do what?
Close all MSIVs, one Economizer and one Downcomer in each line
113
When should you have GS applied?
Whenever vacuum is present
114
What is the purpose in the Dropped Rod Contact?
To reset the pulse counter in the Plant Computer
115
How does the failure of a Tc instrument affect COLSS?
There is no effect. The redundant instrument will take over.
116
What rod groups insert on a LLR and why?
Groups 4 and 5 because SBCS alone cannot remove all the RCS heat
117
You get a 2/4 on Containment Pressure at > 3 psig. What happens?
Reactor Trip
SIAS
CIAS
MSIS
118
What happens to COLSS NKBDELT as RCP D/P lowers?
NKBDELT will increase.
D/P does down as flow goes up. Lower D/P means more flow. More flow means higher power. Higher power means NKBDELT increases.
119
When does the High Log Power Trip occur?
10 -2%
120
What is the status of the RCP HP seal cooler inlet and outlet valves at 100% power?
Open and de-energized
121
How are the Class 86 Lockouts reset?
By going to the trip position
122
If you place the Local Mode Control Switch for the DG in OFF, will you be able to start the DG?
no
123
What will the PPS Power Trip Test Interlock (PTTI) trip and why?
It will trip DNBR and LPD in the event of NI switch misalignments or voltage problems.
124
What does the PPCS Master Controller do with its output to increase pressure?
It lowers it.
125
Name one CPC output.
Calibrated Neutron Flux
126
What signals are sent to the EHC System on a RPCB?
Setback
Runback
Increase Inhibit
127
How is reactor head flange leakage detected?
Flange seal pressure
128
What is the Pressurizer Pressure Safety valve setpoint?
2475 psia
129
Which forces do a thrust bearing absorb?
axial
130
When a MSIV slow closes what is doing the closing?
the air operated pump
131
If blowdown flow is lowered, how will JCPCAL read immediately after and one hour after?
JCPCAL will read lower immediately and lower again over the next hour.
132
The SBCS valves are open due to a normal signal. If pressure drops below the Permissive Setpoint, how will the valves close?
They will modulate closed because of the 15 second time delay that prevents a quick close of the valves.
133
What happens to the CVCS System on a loss of NKN-D42?
All charging pumps will stop and letdown will isolate
134
What would be the status of the VCT makeup system if LT226 saw 0 D/P?
It would be on continuous makeup
135
Are the PC pumps sequenced back on if the Class bus loses power?
No - it must be manually restarted
136
What in the SP System do the multipoint recorders monitor?
SP Pump bearing temperatures
137
If D/P goes down on a wet reference leg D/P indicator, what happens to indicated level?
it goes up
138
Containment Spray is designed to reduce Containment pressure by ______ in _______ hours.
Half
| 24
139
If a FBEVAS is actuated by a RU monitor, what happens to the Control Room Normal AHU?
It trips.
- You'll get all the cross trips which means CREFAS will actuate, closing the Control Room Normal dampers which trips the ACU
140
If Tc is high, what CEDMCS signals will be generated?
AMI and AWP
141
How does the CE Heat Exchanger temperature control valve fail?
Through the HX's and it lowers temperature
142
What happens to the PW System if a low discharge pressure is detected on the running pump?
The standby pump will start
143
When do we normally use the reactor makeup water flow alarm?
During refueling operations
144
Does AFB start on a CIAS?
no
145
What will happen to the MSIVs if you lose a PKA battery charger?
The MSIVs will remain as-is and will operate normally until the battery is depleted at which time they will Fast Close
146
How would one clear a Main Turbine Setback?
Lower the Load Limit Pot until the Load Limit Light illuminates.
147
What cools the normal chillers?
NC
148
Per the TRM, what mode must the LPVMS be in?
Supervisory Mode
149
Who has free access to the 'at the controls' area of the control room?
On-Shift Personnel
Ops Management
NRC Inspectors
One member of Nuclear Oversight Operations
150
What happens to the discharge valve of a CW pump if it trips?
It goes fully closed
151
When can a peer check be forgone?
During AOPs if the action must be taken immediately and there is no peer checker available.
152
What happens to the mass flow rate in a density compensated steam flow instrument if steam pressure rises?
Mass flow rate goes up
153
You actuate a BOP-ESFAS trip from B05. What lights will be lit?
Actuate, RST, MAN
154
How often should the RO do a thorough evaluation of the control room?
Every 2 hours minimum
155
What is the purpose of the Local/Remote switches on the B Class components?
To prevent spurious actuations during a fire
156
Volts/Hz Regulator operates to ________ voltage.
limit
157
How long do the Class and Non-Class batteries last?
2 hours
158
LSPI A has lost control power. You get a SIAS. What lights are lit on the SESS panel for the LPSI A pump?
The white and blue lights are lit.
159
If a leak occurs in the RCS, how will indicated leak rate and actual leak rate relate on the ERFDADS screen?
Actual leak rate will exceed indicated leak rate for 7.5 minutes
160
What is needed to get a LOFP RPCB?
Low Control Oil Pressure (75 psig) on 2/3 switches for the same feed pump
161
Do the Normal Supply and Exhaust dampers for the Aux Building have override?
No
162
What happens when a Class 480 LC transformer trips on over current?
Both the LC B2 breaker and the 4160V transformer supply breaker open
163
What is the minimum level in the RDT? Why?
52% to provide a quench volume for the Pressurizer Safeties
164
When does the RESET lamp illuminate on a BOP-ESFAS trip initiated by a RU monitor?
When the RU monitor alarm condition clears
165
From where can you immediately secure a CW Pump?
The Control Room
| Locally at the breaker
166
As IA pressure lowers, what occurs first: IA Lo pressure alarm or start of the standby IA Compressors?
Standby Compressors first followed by the low pressure alarm
167
How many starts is each DG starting air receiver sized for?
5
168
What will a single upper detector excore safety monitor failing high cause?
VOPT
High LPD
Low DNBR
169
How does a loss of NKN-D42 effect Charging Pumps and Letdown flow?
All charging pumps will stop
| Letdown flow will isolate (high temp RHX)
170
What would be the status of NNN-D15 and NNN-D16 in Unit 1 with a LOOP and a SIAS?
Both de-energized
171
IA to the Containment isolates on a _________.
CSAS
172
CETs monitor _______ plenum temperature and enter from the _________ of the core.
Outlet
| Bottom
173
Why is ASN-HV-14 kept open?
To prevent a loss of GS in the event of a MSIS
174
What does the DG need to auto close its output breaker?
DG at rated speed and voltage
normal and alternate breakers open for PB bus
no 86 lockouts
175
What would happen if the DG TG was not fully disengaged while attempting to start the DG?
The DG would not turn over at all
176
What does the SG Low Flow trip protect against?
RCP Shaft Shear
177
In the EHC System, which error signal controls at high rotor speed and which at low rotor speed?
Acceleration Error controls at low rotor speed
| Speed Error controls at high rotor speed
178
What will isolate NC to the Containment?
CSAS
179
What safety device is installed on the SGs in the event of a main steam line break?
Flow restrictors
180
What system provides the operator with indication of the approach to, the existence of, and the recovery from an inadequate core cooling condition?
QSPDS
181
The __________ and ___________ are required to be in the Control Room during refueling operations.
Reactor Operator
| A RE Representative
182
How do you de-select the chosen CEAs for a RPCB and leave RPCB in service?
Press the TEST/RESET button twice
| Procedure says the AAOOS button twice also
183
From what does the High SGWL Trip protect?
Moisture carryover to the Main Turbine
184
What is the cooling medium for the Containment Normal ACUs?
Normal Chill Water (WC)
185
Both sets of Aux Building Supplies and Exhausts are running. 'B' Exhaust gets a low D/P. What happens?
The 'A' Supply AHU will trip
186
N2 backup to IA comes in at ______ psig.
85 psig
187
What will happen on the loss of a single PN bus?
Two RTCB will open and the plant will remain at power
188
What cools the DG Turbocharger Intercooler?
SP
189
What aspects of the Spray Ponds does LCO 3.7.9 address?
Level and Temperature only
190
How is NKCBTFSP generated by COLSS?
COLSS correlates Turbine Power from TFSP and then calibrates that with JSCALOR to get NKCBTFSP.
191
What is the power supply to the CEDMCS Logic?
Non-Vital 120VAC (NNN-D11 and NNN-D12)
192
When is Stage Pressure Feedback used and what is it for?
It is used during Control Valve testing to maintain TLI
193
How do the CO pumps maintain discharge pressure?
By varying their pump stroke
194
You're selected to Ppzr Instrument 100X. What happens if 100Y fails high?
Alarms - thats it
195
What happens to the Fuel Building Ventilation on receipt of a B FBEVAS?
The Fuel Building Normals will run dead-headed.
196
What will start an EW Pump?
LOP
CSAS
CREFAS
AFAS
197
What cools the AS Vent Condenser?
NC
198
What do the Second Stage Reheater Vents do on a Hi-Hi Level in #7 HPFWH?
They align to the condenser
199
At 1285#, how may safeties are open?
4
200
If Tave fails high, how will this effect RTO in the DFWCS?
This will cause DFWCS to feed at a higher rate in RTO
201
You lose NNN-D12. A Cutback occurs. What happens with CEAs, Setback, and Runback?
CEAs - all cutback rods drop
Setback - to 60% like normal
Runback - will not occur
202
What would happen if you went through OFF while cross connecting NBN-S01 and NBN-S02?
You would lose both buses
203
Does SBCS send a RBCP signal every time it senses a Load Rejection?
No; it has to be of a large enough magnitude to warrant a RPCB
204
What will auto start a RCP Lift Oil Pump?
If its RCP is secured
205
What will auto close the Aux Feed Room Supply dampers?
High liquid level in the pump room
206
What pump can fill the SITs?
B HPSI
207
Where does the HDP seal water come from?
The Condensate Header
208
How does a SIAS effect the proportional heaters?
It doesn't
209
________ is sprayed into the ________ manifold of the AR Pump to condense steam at high vacuum conditions.
Coolant
| inlet
210
When is the Main Generator Output Breaker Bypass used?
When closing the second breaker during synchronization
211
VCT is at 25% and CHE-536 is open. What will CHN-501 do if CHE-536 is taken to close?
CHN-501 will open
212
A low Tc will cause CPC compensated neutron flux power to _______ and delta T power to _______.
Rise (Signal has to get boosted more)
| Rise (A larger Delta T means higher power)
213
Who maintains plant oversight and continuous monitoring during shift turnover?
The RO
214
The RWT is sized for _______ minutes of full ECCS close.
20
215
Where does core bypass flow go?
To the Upper Head and Upper Guide Structure
216
Loads in excess of ________ lbs shall be prohibited from travel over fuel assemblies in the spent fuel pool.
2000 lbs
217
When the main turning gear is engaged, how many lift pumps turn off and why?
2 to prevent the rotor from spinning too fast and disengaging the turning gear
218
What is the Main Turbine Trip on High Vibes?
12 mil
219
What is the status of the NN buses in Unit 2 after a LOOP + SIAS?
NNN-D11/12 will transfer to alternate power
| NNN-D15/16 will de-energize
220
If a FBEVAS is initiated normally, what cross trips will you receive?
Both trains of FBEVAS and both trains of CREFAS
221
Why is a loss of IA to the Downcomer Control Valves not a huge deal?
Because they have a dedicated Nitrogen backup
222
Which valves receive a QOB on a LOFP Cutback?
All of them; X and Y valves
223
What is the RCS Safety Limit?
2750 psia
224
Where does the HDP suction vent?
To the HDT
225
What directly causes the AFA ACU to start?
The opening of the steam supply valves
226
What happens if CDN-UV-191 motor fails and starts to close at 100% power?
The Demin Bypass valve will start to open
227
You've got a SIAS/CIAS. What would be needed to change sequencer modes?
LOP
228
Pressurizer Pressure is 2310 psia. What would be the next thing to happen in the plant?
A Reactor Trip on High Pressurizer Pressure
229
What supplies the generator field prior to syncing onto the grid?
P Bars
230
What would happen to the EW System if SP were secured while on SDC?
EW temperaures would rise
231
Which MFP stop valve has an internal pilot valve?
The Low Pressure Stop Valve
232
What will trip AFN?
Load Shed
Electrical Protection
SIAS
Suction < 80% open
233
Power is 50%. Th fails high. What happens to letdown flow?
Letdown flow will lower to 30 gpm
234
When excitation is removed from the generator, the field shorting breaker _________ and the SCRs are ____________.
Closes
| Fired On
235
On a lo-lo level in the RWT, what happens to a running BAMP?
It auto stops
236
What will auto start the Containment Normal ACUs?
Loss of power to the running fan.
237
Who can grant permission for someone to be the peer checker and the IV'er? What must also be done if this permission is granted?
- SM
| - A CR has to be written
238
At what pressure does the RDT isolate?
10 psig
239
What will start the standby TC Pump?
low discharge pressure
240
What do the servos on the control valves do?
They control the flow of EHC fluid to and from the control valves
241
How many ADVs are operable if you lose PNC?
4
242
When at lower powers (< 20%), what is the steam supply for the Main Feed Pumps?
Main Steam
243
What is the purpose of the HPSI cold leg injection orifice?
It helps balance the flow between the hot and cold legs
244
How long does a RPCB signal last?
10 seconds. After that, rods are in control of the RRS or the operator
245
If the Normal Level Control Valve and the High Level Control Valve for the MSR Drain Tank both fail closed, what will happen?
The Main Turbine will trip on MSR level at -3".
246
Stacking is prevented by ___________ EW flow to the EC Chiller.
Lowering
247
How do the Economizer Isolation valves fail on a loss of IA?
As-Is and remains capable of Fast Closing
248
How does the NBN-X03 transformer failing affect the NC Pumps?
it doesn't - FBT should pick up before anything happens
249
Where does 12th stage extraction steam go?
to the #1 LPFWH
250
When EW is supplying NC Priority loads, does RU-6 monitor for radiation?
No. RU-2 or RU-3 will monitor flow
251
What happens to the #5 Extraction Steam Block valve on a HDT Hi-Hi?
It closes
252
What happens to a RMWP on a RMWT lo-lo level?
It will trip and get a blue light
253
To what power will the Main Turbine Setback? How fast will it get there?
60%
| 480%/min
254
If the Essential Chiller secures itself on Low Load Recycle, how long will this be in effect?
Until EC temperature rises > 45F
255
What is used to calibrate Safety Channel NI's?
JSCALOR
256
What will secure the Containment and CEDM ACUs
SIAS
257
What will cause the DG to trip if in Emergency Mode?
Low LO Pressure
Generator Differential
Over Speed
258
What happens to the mini-flow valves on a RAS?
They go closed
259
What pumps does a RAS secure?
both LPSI Pumps
260
What alarm(s) is(are) received when a CEA subgroup is placed on the Hold Bus?
CEDMCS TRBL ALARM
261
From what does the High Pressurizer RPS trip protect?
The RCS in the event of a loss of condenser vacuum
262
What will cross trip on a FBEVAS?
CREFAS
263
Who can maintain the command function in the control room in modes 5 and 6?
A qualified SRO or RO
264
What does WHITE data on an ERFDADS Screen signify?
That the data is suspect
265
What supplies AF pumps if theres no water in the CST?
RMWT
266
How do the Downcomer Control Valves fail on a loss of IA?
As-Is
267
What percentage of feed flow is the High Pressure Heater Bypass rated for?
25%
268
How many buttons are required to be pushed to reset a SIAS from the Aux Relay Cabinet?
1 - either one for that channel
269
What will cause the DG to start automatically?
SIAS
CSAS (test)
LOP
AFAS (1 and 2)
270
What is the EW design temperature for a LOCA?
135F
271
When does a MSIS actuate on SGWL?
91% NR
272
When do we go to two Letdown Control Valves and two Letdown Back Pressure Control Valves and why?
RCS pressure < 1000 psia to ensure sufficient letdown flow due to the reduced D/P
273
What events will result from a loss of any two PN buses?
Reactor Trip
| Full ESFAS
274
When do the 1st stage MSR drain tank high level dumps close on a start up? Second Stage?
10%
| 20%
275
The Regen Heat Exchanger minimizes thermal shock to ______________________.
The RCS inlet nozzles
276
What happens to plant efficiency and CD pump cavitation as condensate depression rises?
Plant efficiency lowers and CD Pump cavitation lowers
277
Brittle fracture concern is from a large tensile stress on the _________ wall of the reactor vessel.
inner
278
What is the purpose of the delay coil?
Allows for the decay of N-16 gammas to reduce exposure
279
What indication is given in the Control Room that AFA-54 is in standby?
Two red lights: one for the valve and one for the actuator
280
How do the BFT vents work?
4A will open to maintain set pressure in the BFT. When 4A is full open, 4B opens to relieve excess pressure to the condenser.
281
How is the Core Monitor filter normally operated?
Bypassed
282
What is the makeup source for WC?
DW
283
Can EW supply cool the SFP?
Yes
284
Actual Lpzr is 50%. Setpoint is 33%. What will happen with charging pumps and letdown flow?
Normally Running Charging Pump will stop.
| Letdown flow will increase.
285
When the DG trips on overspeed, what happens to the butterfly valve?
It trips shut
286
How must AFA be reset if tripped on overspeed?
locally
287
What is the control valve configuration on chest warming?
#2 Stop valve is open with all control valves closed
288
What happens to the Fuel Building Essentials on receipt of a SIAS?
The suction shifts from the Fuel Building to below 100' of the Aux Building.
289
From where do the SDC isolations inside containment get their power?
125 VDC inverters
290
Theres a LOCA. You've got a bright green light on A HPSI pump. What happens if you take this switch to START?
SIAS override light comes on
| Pump stays off.
291
Aux Building Supply/Exhaust Fans 'A' are running. What happens if you start the 'B' Aux Building Supply Fan?
The 'A' Supply Fan will secure.
292
What will close the motor operated EW cross connect valves to NC?
SIAS
| Lo-Lo Level in EW Surge Tank
293
While on SDC, how is RCS temperature maintained?
By throttling SDCHX Bypasses
294
What is the position of the discharge valve for CW pumps when they are started? Why?
Closed to prevent runout
295
What happens if the running Containment Normal ACU loses power?
The standby unit will start after a 60 second time delay
| - sensed by low D/P
296
How does a complete loss of the Incore Instruments affect the CMC and the PC?
COLSS will not function on either computer
297
What cools the BDHX?
Condensate
298
What happens in the DFWCS at 50% steam flow going down?
The downcomer control valve goes closed
299
How can a RCP cause a DNBR Trip?
If one RCP reaches 95% of rated speed the reactor will trip.
300
How is steam aligned to AFA on an auto start signal?
both steam supplies are aligned
301
Normal Supply and Exhaust dampers for the Aux Building automatically close on a _______.
SIAS.
302
The _______ grants permission to enter the control room and the _________ grants permission to approach the 'at the controls' area.
CRS
| RO/CO
303
How do the GS valves fail on a loss of IA?
Both regulating valves fail open to preserve GS and there is no effect to the unloading valve
304
What is the preferred source for GS? AS or MS? Why?
AS - so you don't lose GS on a MSIS
305
What effect to the Load Limit Pot and the Load Set Motor have while in Standby Mode?
None
306
If you were to lose UV relays 727-1/5, would the DG start?
no
307
The Reed Switch Position Transmitters input into the Plant Computer. Why?
To zero the the pulse counter position when a CEA drops
308
What will isolate RU-1?
CIAS
309
AC Regulator regulates _________ voltage and the DC Regulator regulates ________ voltage.
terminal
| field
310
IAA-UV-2 auto closes on what ESFAS signal?
CSAS
311
Does indicated SDC flow include loop bypass flow?
yes
312
What is the supply for 1st and 2nd stage reheat steam in the MSRs?
first: 3rd stage extraction steam
second: Main Steam
313
HV-11 is fully open with all four CW pumps running. If CW Pump C is taken to STOP, what will happen?
C Discharge valve will close and at 8% the pump will trip and the valve will then close fully. All other valves stay as is
314
What uses the COLSS inputs?
PC and CMC
315
SFP Cooling takes a suction on the _____ of the SFP and discharges to the _____ of the SFP to aid in _______________.
Top
Bottom
Natural Circulation
316
What cools the generator collector housing?
WC
317
When the EC System is started up, what is the first component to start?
The Essential Chilled Water Pump
318
Taking the SBCS Master Controller to MAN controls the controller ___________ and defeats the _____________ and ________________
output
Quick Open
Auto Modulate
319
What will cause the hotwell draw off valve to close?
Low Feed Pump pressure
| High conductivity
320
What happens to the MSIVs on a complete loss of electrical power?
They Fast Close
321
What is the sequence for starting the main turning gear?
- piggyback motor
- engagement
- big motor
322
When in purge mode, where are the MSR tube bundles aligned?
To the Main Condenser
323
What happens on a loss of IA to the Charging Pump Room
The TCV will fail to max cooling
324
If the Main Feed Pump trips on low suction pressure, what valve will auto close?
The Hotwell Drawoff Valve
325
After 90 minutes of full ECCS flow after a LOCA, from where will the CS pump be taking a suction?
The RAS Sump
326
How do CHA-UV-505 and CHB-UV-506 fail?
Closed on a loss of air and power
327
What will start the ESF Switchgear Room Essential AHUs?
SIAS
| LOP
328
What happens if you lose PK while the DG is running?
The DG will trip and the output breaker will stay closed causing the DG to motorize
329
The CPC Operational Bypass will automatically come out of Bypass when power reaches ______%.
10 (-4)%
330
Following an inadvertent CSAS with a SIAS, what must the operator do to start a CS pump?
Go to START twice
331
What happens if a short occurs on an NC pump when the bus has no control power?
The feeder breaker for the NB bus will open
332
How would PNA in Unit 1 be restored on a loss of PKA?
By manual shift to its voltage regulator
333
What are the interlocks that must be met before a CW Pump can be started?
Its discharge must be closed
| Its waterbox outlet valve must be open
334
What happens to the PC pumps on a LOOP?
They will both lose power. However, they can be manually restarted once the DGs are on the bus.
335
CEAC penalty factor _________ over a _____ hour period due to xenon redistribution.
increases
| 6 hour
336
What is the purpose of the MSIV Bypass Valves?
To warm up downstream piping and to equalize pressure around the MSIVs
337
What other system uses the SBCS Master Controller?
DFWCS;
| for use in 1E anticipitory control
338
What would happen if during a LOFP RPCB a LLR RPCB was manually initiated?
This would result in the SBCS Valves Quick Opening
339
If you lose GS, what must be done with the secondary plant?
Trip the Turbine and break vacuum
340
Loads in excess of _______ lbs shall be prohibited from travel over fuel assemblies in the storage pool.
2000 lbs
341
How is the position of the Pressurizer Safeties determined?
Acoustic Monitors
342
Hot Gas Bypass prevents _____________.
Surging
343
How long can the DG run without SP flow?
2.6 minutes loaded
| 15 minutes unloaded
344
What is the max temperature allowed for SDC?
350F
345
What happens to speed and voltage control of the DG if it is taken to override?
Speed and Voltage control are restored to the Control Room
346
How does CEDMCS determine that the UGS has been reached?
Once a certain number of pulse counts is attained
347
What happens to the CVCS system on a loss of PK?
The Auxiliary Spray valves fail closed
348
What is control power to the RTSG?
PK
349
There's a Reactor Trip with a MSIS. No operator actions. What is the plant doing?
AF feeding both SGs and SG safeties controlling SG Pressure at 1250 psig.
350
What information from QSPDS is sent to B02?
The more limiting of either RCS or Upper Vessel Head Saturation Margin
351
The TEST/RESET button is backlit on the RPCB control panel. A RPCB occurs. What happens?
Signals will be sent but no rods will drop
352
What must be done to regain heater control if RCN-LT-110Y fails low?
The heater selector switch must be taken to the X channel
353
AFA requires _______ rpm for adequate lubrication.
1000
354
How do the valves fail for the AR post filter blower on a loss of IA?
Through the filter
355
What protects the Remote Shutdown Panel from fire?
Halon
356
What will trip the Control Room Normal AHU?
LOP
SIAS
CREFAS
CRVIAS
357
Reactor Power is ramping up at 15% per minute. How long before you get a VOPT?
2 minutes
358
What is the design basis for CPC's?
To prevent exceeding Specified Acceptable Fuel Design Limits (SAFDLs)
359
What effect does a loss of IA have on the GS unloading valve?
none
360
A higher generator frequency results in a _________ load when synching onto the grid.
higher
361
B CD pump is running with one suction valve open. If this valve is taken off its open seat, will anything happen?
Yes, the pump will trip
362
What is reflux boiling?
A flow path from the hot leg to the SG and back down the hot leg.
363
A CPIAS will close the __________ __________ Isolation Valves.
Refueling Purge
364
What closes the Hydrogen Analyzer supply valves? Can they be overridden?
CIAS
| Yes
365
What signals will close the Power Access Purge Containment Isolation valves?
CIAS
| CPIAS
366
During a Refueling Purge, a __________ pressure is maintained due to the exhaust fans having a _________ capacity than the supply fans.
negative
| higher
367
Where does the LRS Evaporator Steam Condensate Pump send its discharge?
The AS Receiver Tank
368
What flow rate is required to keep hydrogen below the combustion limit during a waste gas release?
25000 scfm
369
How long before a Radwaste alarm rings in the Control Room?
5 minutes
370
What is the purpose in the GR Surge Tank?
Absorbs fluctuations in gas volume to minimize compressor run time.
371
If RU-7 alarms, to where does the AS Receiver Tank discharge get sent?
Low TDS Holdup Tank
