PRELIMS Flashcards
1
Q
Indicate whether the following peptides are hydrophilic
or hydrophobic:
a. MLWILSS
b. VAIKVLIL
c. CSKEGCPN
d. SSIQKNET
e. YAQKFQGRT
f. AAPLIWWA
g. SLKSSTGGQ
A
a. MLWILAA — hydrophobic
b. VAIKVLIL — hydrophobic
c. CSKEGCPN — hydrophilic
d. SSIQKNET — hydrophilic
e. YAQKFQGRT — hydrophilic
f. AAPLIWWA — hydrophobic
g. SLKSSTGGQ — hydrophilic
2
Q
. Is the following peptide positively or negatively
charged at neutral pH?
GWWMNKCHAGHLNGVYYQGGTY
A
Answer: The peptide is positively charged
3
Q
Consider an RNA template made from a 2:1 mixture
of C:A. What would be the three amino acids most
frequently incorporated into protein?
A
Answer: Proline (CCA), histidine (CAC), and
threonine (ACC) would be most frequently
incorporated.
4
Q
What is the peptide sequence encoded in
AUAUAUAUAUAUAUA . . .?
A
Answer: The peptide sequence would alternate
isoleucine (AUA) and tyrosine (UAU):
IYIYI. . .
5
Q
Write the anticodons 5’ to 3’ of the following amino
acids:
a. L
b. T
c. M
d. H
e. R
f. I
A
Answers:
a. L — UAA, CAA,AAG, GAG, UAG, CAG
b. T — AGU, GGU, UGU, CGU
c. M — CAU
d. H — AUG, GUG
e. R — ACG, GCG, UCG, CCG
f. I — AAU, GAU
6
Q
A protein contains the sequence LGEKKW
CLRVNPKGLDESKDYLSLKSKYLLL. What is the likely function of this protein? (Note: See
Box A3-4.)
A
Answer: This protein has a leucine residue at se
quential 7th positions forming a leucine zipper,
found in transcription factors.
7
Q
A histone-like protein contains the sequence:
PKKGSKKAVTKVQKKDGKKRKRSRK. What
characteristic of this sequence makes it likely to
associate with DNA?
A
This protein is positively charged, which would facilitate association with negatively charged DNA
8
Q
A procedure for digestion of DNA with a restriction
enzyme includes a final incubation step of 5 minutes
at 95ºC. What is the likely purpose of this final step?
A
The 95ºC incubation will inactivate the protein, preventing its activity in subsequent
steps of the assay.
9
Q
What is a ribozyme?
A
A ribozyme is an RNA molecule that can metabolize other molecules like an enzyme.
10
Q
Name the nonprotein prosthetic groups for the
following conjugated proteins:
glycoprotein
lipoprotein
metalloprotein
A
glycoprotein — sugars
lipoprotein — lipids
metalloprotein — metal atoms
11
Q
Calculate the DNA concentration in µg/mL from the following information:
a. Absorbance reading at 260 nm from a 1:100
dilution = 0.307
b. Absorbance reading at 260 nm from a 1:50
dilution = 0.307
c. Absorbance reading at 260 nm from a 1:100
dilution = 0.172
d. Absorbance reading at 260 nm from a 1:100
dilution = 0.088
A
a. 0.307 X 50 ug/mL = 15.35 ug/mL
15.35 ug/mL X 100 = 1535 ug/mL
b. 0.307 X 50 ug/mL = 15.35 ug/mL
15.35 ug/mL X 50 = 767.5 ug/mL
c. 0.172 X 50 ug/mL = 8.60 ug/mL
8.60 ug/mL X 100 = 860 ug/mL
d. 0.088 X 50 ug/mL = 4.40 ug/mL
4.40 ug/mL X 100 = 440 ug/mL
12
Q
If the volume of the above DNA solutions was
0.5 mL, calculate the yield for (a) – (d)
A
a. 1535 ug/mL 0.5 mL = 767.5ug
b. 767.5 ug/mL 0.5 mL = 383.8 ug
c. 860 ug/mL 0.5 mL = 430 ug
d. 440 ug/mL 0.5 mL = 220 u
13
Q
After agarose gel electrophoresis, a 0.5 µg aliquot of DNA isolated from a bacterial culture produced only a faint smear at the bottom of the gel lane. Is this an acceptable DNA sample?
A
This amount of bacterial DNA should produce a bright smear near the top of the gel lane. This DNA is probably degraded and is therefore unacceptable.
14
Q
Contrast the measurement of DNA concentration by
spectrophotometry with analysis by fluorometry with
regard to staining requirements and accuracy.
A
Spectrophotometry requires no DNA staining. Fluorometry requires staining of DNA to
generate a fluorescent signal. Fluorometry may
be more accurate than spectrophotometry, since
double-stranded DNA must be intact to stain and
generate a signal, whereas single nucleotides will
absorb light in spectrophotometry.
15
Q
Calculate the RNA concentration in µg/mL from the
following information:
a. Absorbance reading at 260 nm from a 1:100
dilution = 0.307.
b. Absorbance reading at 260 nm from a 1:50
dilution = 0.307.
c. Absorbance reading at 260 nm from a 1:100
dilution = 0.172.
d. Absorbance reading at 260 nm from a 1:100
dilution = 0.088.
A
a. 0.307 X 40 ug/mL = 12.28 ug/mL
12.28 ug/mL X 100 = 1228 ug/mL
b. 0.307 X 40 ug/mL = 12.28 ug/mL
12.28 ug/mL X 50 = 614 ug/mL
c. 0.172 X 40 ug/mL = 6.88 ug/mL
6.88 ug/mL X 100 = 688 ug/mL
d. 0.088 X 40 ug/mL = 3.52 ug/mL
3.52 ug/mL X 100 = 352 ug/mL
16
Q
An RNA preparation has the following absorbance
readings:
A260 = 0.208
A280 = 0.096
Is this RNA preparation satisfactory for use?
A
The A260/A280 ratio is 0.208/0.096 = 2.17.
This RNA preparation is satisfactory for use.
17
Q
A blood sample was held at room temperature for
5 days before being processed for RNA isolation. Will this sample likely yield optimal RNA?
A
This sample will likely not yield optimal RNA due to degradation and changes in gene expression at room temperature.
18
Q
Name three factors that will affect yield of RNA from a paraffin-embedded tissue sample.
A
Isolation of RNA from fixed tissue is especially affected by the type of fixative used, the age/length of storage of the tissue, and the preliminary handling of the original specimen
19
Q
You wish to perform an electrophoretic resolution of
your restriction enzyme–digested DNA. The size of
the expected fragments ranges from 100 to 500 bp.
You discover two agarose gels polymerizing on the
bench. One is 0.5% agarose; the other is 2% agarose.
Which one might you use to resolve your fragments?
A
The 2% agarose is best for this range of
fragment sizes.
20
Q
After completion of the electrophoresis of DNA frag
ments along with the proper molecular-weight stan
dard on an agarose gel, suppose (a) or (b) below was
observed. What might be explanations for these?
a. The gel is blank (no bands, no molecular-weight
standard).
b. Only the molecular weight standard is visible.
A
a. Since the molecular-weight standard is not
visible, something is wrong with the general
electrophoresis process. Most likely, staining
with ethidium bromide was omitted.
b. The presence of the molecular-weight standard
indicates that the electrophoresis and staining
were performed properly. In this case, the
DNA fragments were not loaded, or the
method used to produce the fragments was
unsuccessful
21
Q
How does PFGE separate larger fragments more efficiently than standard electrophoresis?
A
PFGE forces large fragments through
the gel matix by repeatedly changing the direction
of the electric current, thus realigning the sample
with spaces in the gel matrix.
22
Q
A 6% solution of 19:1 acylamide is mixed, deaerated,
and poured between glass plates for gel formation.
After an hour, the solution is still liquid. What might
be one explanation for the gel not polymerizing?
A
The nucleating agent and/or the polymerization catalyst were not added to the gel solution.
23
Q
A gel separation of RNA yields aberrantly migrating
bands and smears. Suggest two possible explanations
for this observation
A
This RNA could be degraded. Alternatively, improper gel conditions were used to separate the RNA.
24
Q
Why does DNA not resolve well in solution (without
a gel matrix)?
A
Particles move in solution based on their
charge/mass ratio. As the mass of DNA increases,
slowing migration, its negative charge increases,
counteracting the effect of mass.
25
Why is SyBr green I less toxic than EtBr
SyBr green is a minor groove binding
dye. It does not disrupt the nucleotide sequence of
DNA. EtBr is an intercalating agent that slides in
between the nucleotide bases in the DNA and can
cause changes in the nucleotide sequence (mutations) in DNA.
26
What are the general components of loading buffer
used for introducing DNA samples to submarine gels?
Gel loading buffer contains a density
agent to facilitate loading of sample into the wells
underneath the buffer surface and a tracking
dye to follow the migration of the DNA during
electrophoresis.
27
Name two dyes that are used to monitor migration of
nucleic acid during electrophoresis.
Bromphenol blue and xylene cyanol
green are two of several tracking dyes.
28
When a DNA fragment is resolved by slab gel electrophoresis, a single sharp band is obtained. What is the
equivalent observation had this fragment been fluorescently labeled and resolved by capillary electrophoresis?
Capillary electrophoresis results will be
a single peak on an electropherogram.
29
A master mix of all components (except template)
necessary for PCR contains what basic ingredients?
Components of a standard PCR reaction mix include dNTPs, oligonucleotide primers, a
buffer of proper pH and mono- and divalent cation concentration, and polymerase enzyme.
30
The final concentration of Taqpolymerase is to be
0.01 units/µL in a 50 µL PCR. If the enzyme is
supplied as 5 units/µL,how much enzyme would you
add to the reaction?
a. 1 µL
b. 1 µL of a 1:10 dilution of Taq
c. 5 µL of a 1:10 dilution of Taq
d. 2 µL
Use VCVC to determine the volume of
enzyme:
0.01 50 = 5 x
x= (0.01 50)/5 = 0.1 µL
Option b would deliver 0.1 µL enzyme.
31
Primer dimers result from
Primer dimmers occur when primers hybridize to each other at the 3' ends (option d).
32
Which control is run to detect contamination in PCR?
A reaction mix with all components except template (reagent blank, d) is used to
monitor for contamination.
Answer: Positive, negative, Molecular weight marker
33
Nonspecific extra PCR products can result from
a. mispriming
b. high annealing temperatures
c. high agarose gel concentrations
d. omission of MgCl2 from the PCR
Nonspecific products occur when
primers bind to regions other than the intended
target (a). Omission of magnesium could possibly
produce mispriming but more likely will prevent enzyme function.
34
Using which of the following is an appropriate way to
avoid PCR contamination?
a. High-fidelity polymerase
b. Hot-start PCR
c. A separate area for PCR setup
d. Fewer PCR cycles
A separate area for PCR setup
35
What are the three steps of a standard PCR cycle?
The three steps of the PCR cycle are denaturation, annealing, and extension.
36
How many copies of a target are made after 30 cycle of PCR?
2^30
37
Which of the following is a method for purifying a
PCR product?
a. Treat with uracil N glycosylase.
b. Add divalent cations.
c. Put the reaction mix through a spin column.
d. Add DEPC.
Spin columns (c) are used to purify PCR products from other components of the reaction mix.
38
In contrast to standard PCR, real-time PCR is
a. quantitative
b. qualitative
c. labor-intensive
d. sensitive
Quantitative
39
In real-time PCR, fluorescence is not generated by
which of the following?
a. FRET probes
b. TaqMan probes
c. SYBR green
d. Tth polymerase
Tth polymerase (d) does not fluoresce.
40
How does nested PCR differ from multiplex PCR?
Nested PCR requires two rounds of replication. Multiplex PCR is a single PCR reaction where more than one product is made using
multiple primer sets
41
What replaces heat denaturation in strand displacement amplification?
In strand displacement amplification, a nick in the double-stranded product is used to prime replication, rather than denaturation and primer binding.
42
An unlabeled collection tube with a requisition for a factor V Leiden test is received in the laboratory.
Notify the supervisor and reject the specimen.
43
After PCR, the amplification control has failed to yield a product.
Check the original DNA or RNA preparation. If it is adequate, repeat the amplification.
If not, reisolate the nucleic acid.
44
An isolated DNA sample is to be stored for at least
6 months.
Store at –70°C in a tightly sealed tube.
45
A bone marrow specimen arrives at the end of a shift
and will not be processed for the Bcl-2 translocation until the next day.
Place the specimen in the refrigerator.
46
The temperature of a refrigerator set at 8°C (±2°C)
reads 14°C.
Recheck the temperature after a few hours. If it does not return to range, notify the supervisor.
47
A PCR test for the BCR/ABL translocation was negative for the patient sample and for the sensitivity control.
Repeat the PCR with the addition of a new sensitivity control.
48
A fragile X test result has been properly reviewed and reported
File the test results, documents, and associated autoradiographs together in the laboratory archives.
49
A bottle of reagent alcohol with a 3 in the red diamond on its label is to be stored.
Place the alcohol bottle in a safety
storage cabinet for flammable liquids.
50
The expiration date on a reagent has passed.
Discard the reagent. If it can be used for nonclinical purposes, label and store it in a separate area away from patient testing reagents.
51
Test results are to be faxed to the ordering physician
Fax the results with a cover sheet containing the proper disclaimer.
52
Among a group of properly labeled containers, there
is a container similar to the others, but unlabeled.
Do not use the material in the unlabeled container. Consult the institutional safety representative for proper disposal of the contents.
53
A blood sample is received in a serum tube for PML-RARa testing by PCR
Notify the supervisor that the specimen cannot be tested and explain the collection error
(wrong/no anticoagulant).
54
The laboratory is reporting a gene mutation replacing glycine at position 215 with alanine. The results are written 215G→A in the test report.
Correct the test report to A215G before verification by the laboratory director.
55
The laser on a complex instrument malfunctions
Call the instrument manufacturer. Do not try to access the laser.
56
A test result falls outside of the analytical measurement range of the validated method
If the result exceeds the range, dilute the specimen and retest. If the results are below
the range, report the results as less than the lower limit of the assay.
57
Reference standards are reading higher than their designated concentrations.
Calibrate the instrument/detection system using the reference standards.
58
A new FDA-approved test does not perform as expected
Do not use the test. Contact the manufacturer. Consider an alternate test system
59
A solution containing radioactive waste has been
stored in a properly protected area for 10 half-lives
of the isotope.
The solution may be safely discarded;
however, contact the institutional safety department before discarding. Document all radioactive waste disposal.
60
There is no available proficiency test for a new method developed in the laboratory.
Establish an agreement with another laboratory to trade samples for testing. Use
split samples from reference standards. Compare results with a reference in-house method,
regional pools, previously assayed material, clinical evaluation, or other documented means
61
A research investigator asks for a patient specimen
Notify the supervisor. Do not release patient material without proper consent and
patient safety review board approval.
62
What characteristic of the genetic code facilitates identification of open reading frames in DNA sequences?
Out-of-frame or chance coding sequences tend to be short, often ending in a stop codon
63
Compare and contrast EIA with western blots for detection of protein targets
EIA is a liquid handling method and more easily automated than western blot. EIA is performed with immobilized antibodies exposed to test fluid. In western blot, antibodies or antigens are resolved by electrophoresis before exposure to test fluid.
64
On a size exclusion column, large molecules
will elute _______________ (before/after) small
molecules.
before
65
MALDI methods separate ions by
a. molecular volume
b. mass
c. charge
d. mass and charge
Mass and Charge
66
What is a heteroduplex?
A heteroduplex is a double-stranded nucleic acid with one or more noncomplementary
bases.
67
Which of the following methods would be practical to
use to screen a large gene for mutations?
a. SSP-PCR
b. SSCP
c. PCR-RFLP
d. DGGE
e. FP-TDI
DGGE (d) would be practical to use to screen a large gene for mutations as it can scan several hundred base pairs at a time.
SSCP is limited by the size and GC content of fragments that can be accurately analyzed. The remaining
methods are designed to detect known point
mutations
68
What is the effect on the protein when a codon sequence is changed from TCT to TCC?
There would be no effect on the protein as both TCT and TCC code for serine.
69
After an automated dye primer sequencing run, the
electropherogram displays consecutive peaks of the
following colors:
red, red, black, green, green, blue, black, red, green,
black, blue, blue, blue
TTGAACGTAGCCC
70
A dideoxy sequencing electropherogram displays
bright (high, wide) peaks of fluorescence, obliterating
some of the sequencing peaks. What is the most likely
cause of this observation? How might it be corrected
The likely cause is the presence of unincorporated labeled dideoxynucleotides or dye
blobs. Cleaning the sequencing ladder with spin
columns, ethanol precipitation, or bead binding
will correct this problem
71
In a manual sequencing reaction, the sequencing ladder on the polyacrylamide gel is very bright and read
able at the bottom of the gel, but the larger (slower migrating) fragments higher up are very faint. What is
the most likely cause of this observation? How might
it be corrected?
The loss of longer products is caused by an overly high dideoxynucleotide/deoxynucleotide
ratio. The problem can be corrected by lowering
the concentration of dideoxynucleotides in the
sequencing reaction.
72
Which of the following is not next-generation
sequencing?
a. 454 sequencing
b. tiled microarray
c. SOLID system
d. Illumina Genome Analyzer
b. tiled microarray
73
Which of the following projects would require mass array sequencing?
a. Mapping the hemochromatosis gene
b. Sequencing a viral genome
c. Characterization of a diverse microbial
population
d. Typing a single bacterial colony
Characterization of a diverse microbial population (c) would require high throughput
sequencing
74
Which of the following genes would be analyzed
to determine whether an isolate of Staphylococcus
aureus is resistant to oxacillin?
a. mecA
b. gyrA
c. inhA
d. vanA
mecA. S. aureus developed resistance to antibiotics that target its penicillin-binding
protein (PBP1) by replacing PBP1 with PBP2a encoded by the mecA gene. PBP2a found in
methicillin-resistant S. aureus (MRSA) has a low binding affinity for methicillin.
75
Which of the following is a genotypic method used
to compare two isolates in an epidemiological
investigation?
a. Biotyping
b. Serotyping
c. Ribotyping
d. Bacteriophage typing
Ribotyping
76
For which of the following organisms must caution be
exercised when evaluating positive PCR results
because the organism can be found as normal flora in
some patient populations?
a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
b. HIV
c. Chlamydophila pneumoniae
d. Streptococcus pneumoniae
Streptococcus pneumoniae. Although PCR is specific for S. pneumoniae, the clinical significance of a positive PCR assay is question
able because a significant portion of the population (especially children) is colonized with the
organism and PCR cannot discern between colonization and infection.
77
Which of the following controls are critical for ensuring that amplification is occurring in a patient sample and that the lack of PCR product is not due to the
presence of inhibitors?
Amplification control. The amplification control should always generate a product, even in the absence of the target.
78
A PCR assay was performed to detect Bordetella per
tussis on sputum obtained from a 14-year-old girl who has had a chronic cough. The results revealed two bands, one consistent with the internal control and the other consistent with the size expected for amplification of the B. pertussis target. How should these
results be interpreted?
The girl has clinically significant B.
pertussis infection. Molecular-based assays are used almost exclusively for analysis of microorganisms such as N. gonorrhoeae, C. trachomatis, and B. pertussis.
79
Which of the following is a disadvantage of molecular
based testing?
a. Results stay positive longer after treatment than
do cultures.
b. Results are available within hours.
c. Only viable cells yield positive results.
d. Several milliliters of specimen must be submitted
for analysis.
Results stay positive longer after
treatment than do cultures. Molecular-based results can detect both living and dead organ
isms. A positive result due to dead or dying organisms complicates interpretation of
treatment efficacy.
80
A molecular-based typing method that has high typing capacity, reproducibility and discriminatory
power, moderate ease of performance, and good
to-moderate ease of interpretation is
a. repetitive elements
b. PFGE
c. plasmid analysis
d. PCR-RFLP
PFGE
81
A patient has antibodies against HCV and a viral
load of 100,000 copies/mL. What is the next test that
should be performed on this patient’s isolate?
a. Ribotyping
b. PCR-RFLP
c. Hybrid capture
d. Inno-LiPA HCV genotyping
Inno-LiPA HCV genotyping. The
viral load and the HCV genotype are used to determine the therapeutic protocol, both type
of drug(s) as well as duration. Methods available in the laboratory for HCV genotyping are PCR with RFLP analysis and reverse hybridization
82
A positive result for HPV type 16 indicates
a. high risk for antibiotic resistance
b. low risk for cervical cancer
c. high risk for cervical cancer
High risk for cervical cancer. Of
the sexually transmitted types of HPV, 12 to 15 oncogenic genotypes have strong association
with cervical cancers and are considered high
risk (HR) HPV types.
83
This method is recommended for smear preparations of bronchial aspirates and fresh sputum
A.Pull apart - serous fluid specimen
B. Smear preparation - blood smear
C. Touch preparation - aka impression technique
D. Spreading
Spreading
84
Which of the ff concentration is ideal and preferred for
glutaraldehyde in immunoelectron microscopy?
A. 0.10%
B. 3% - associated conc
C. 10%
D. 0.25%
0.25%
85
Fixation time can be cut down by using the ff, except:
A. Heat
B. Cold temp
C. Agitation
D. Microwave
Cold Temp
86
The majority of non-fatty unfixed tissues are
sectioned well at temperatures between ___ and ____.
-10C, -25C
87
Best fixative tissue for tissues containing iron
pigments?
A. Zenker’s Fluid - ginagamit more on the content of
mercury fluoride: liver, spleen, connective tissue
and nerve fiber
B. Formol corrosive - aka formol sublimate, belongs to
aldehyde fixative, preferably for post-mortem tissue
C. 10% Buffered Neutral Formal
D. Picric Acid - e
10% NBF
88
What type of metallic fixative is specifically used for
Wharton’s jelly and umbilical cord?
A. Lead fixative - contains large amounts of
mucopolysaccharide, esp. Acid mucopolysaccharide
B. Mercuric Chloride fixative - damages integrity of
tissue, preferably umbilical cord
C. Chromate Fixative - for carbohydates
D. Picrate Fixative - for histones and basic proteins
Lead Fixative
89
This section may be cut from tissues that have been
fixed and frozen with CO2 or for fresh tissues frozen
with a cryostat.
A. Celloidin section
B. Frozen section
C. Paraffin section
D. Gelatin section
E. NOTA
Frozen section
90
Sections are not left on the water bath for a long time
due to:
A. To avoid undue expansion of the tissue
B. To avoid distortion of tissue
C. Both
D. NOTA
To avoid undue expansion of the tissue and to avoid distortion of the tissue
BOTH
91
Brittle or hard tissues are caused by:
A. Prolonged fixation
B. Paraffin is too soft
C. Compress section
D. Sections are too thin
E. NOTA
Prolonged Fixation
92
Select which among the ff is a common component
of an aqueous media together with its correct use
A. Glycerol-prevent cracking
B. Glycerin-prevent drying
C. Gum Arabic- increase Refractive Index
D. Sugar-solidify medium
Glycerol
93
Which of the ff defined as the rapid freezing of tissue
A. Quenching
B. Desiccation - removal of ice water molecules
C. Sublimation - transferring of frozen tissue block
using a vacuum
D. NOTA
Quenching
94
Process of removing ice water molecules
A. Quenching
B. Desiccation
C. Sublimation
D. NOTA
Dessication
95
Special processing technique for histochemical
evaluation involving enzyme studies.
A. Freeze-drying
B. Freeze-substitution
C. Both
D. NOTA
NOTA - Special processing technique (?)
AOTA
96
Prolonged decalcification of tissues is liable to ____
and lead to ____?
Prevent hydrolysis; macerate tissues
97
It permits excellent staining, and is also suitable for
most routine surgical specimens but is relatively slow.
A. Hydrochloric acid
B. Phloroglucin-Nitric Acid
C. Perenyi’s Fluid - 2-7 days but not excellent in
staining
D. Formic Acid - takes 2-7 days to decalcify
E. AOTA
Formic Acid
98
What is the specific pH used for Citric-Acid-Citrate
Buffer solution?
A. 4.5 - to neutralize and protect specimen from the
acidic component of solution
99
The following are disadvantages of Diethylene
Dioxide, except:
A. Expensive
B. Tend to ribbon poorly
C. Not miscible in xylol
D. Causes toxic action
E. NOTA
C. Not miscible in xylol - miscible dapat
100
Connective tissues are subdivided into four
categories. One of these is cartilage. Which of the ff best
describe hyaline cartilage?
A. Found in external ear and epiglottis - external
B. Contains fibroblasts and chondrocytes -
fribrocartilage
C. Most common cartilage - hyaline: larynx, brocnhioles,
and nodules
D. Derived from areolar tissues - adipose tissues
E. AOTA
C. Most common cartilage - hyaline: larynx, bronchioles,
and nodules
101
It is a semi-translucent, ground glass or hyaline
substance made up of chondroitin
A. Fibrin
B. Fibrinoid
C. Hyalin
D. Amyloid
D. Amyloid
102
Open muscle biopsies are usually received from the
operating room in a surgical clamp for orientation and
divided in three parts. What specific segment is fixed in
glutaraldehyde and is submitted for electron
microscopy?
A. Middle segment
B. Small segment
C. Large segment
D. Remaining segment
E. NOTA
B. Small segment
103
This type of glial cell represents the major
supporting cells in the brain.
A. Astrocytes
B. Microglia - major phagocytic cell
C. Myelin - insulating layer that modifies nerve
conduction
D. Ependymal cell - located in the line of ventricles of
the brain
A. Astrocytes
104
Clearing is done by:
A. 10 dips in alcohol
B. Gradual run through decreasing concentration of
alcohol
C. 2 changes of xylol, 2 hours each
D. 2 or 3 changes of xylene for 1 hour
D. 2 or 3 changes of xylene for 1 hour
105
What is the appropriate requirement for the
transportation of specimens intended for frozen
sections?
A. Frozen within 4 hrs
B. Transported on formalin-dampened gauze
C. Transported on top of warm water
D. Transported on saline-dampened gauze
E. NOTA
D. Transported on saline-dampened gauze
106
Freeze-drying may be used for special studies,
except:
A. Use of specialized silver stains
B. Scanning electron microscopy
C. Immunocytochemistry
D. Microspectrofluorimetry
E. NOTA
A. Use of specialized silver stains
107
It is a special processing technique that can be used
when chemical fixation is to be avoided. It is a process
of dehydration through subjecting the frozen tissue to
Rossman’s formula or in 1% acetone.
A. Freeze-drying
B. Freeze-substitution
C. Cryostat
D. Formalin Fixation
E. AOTA
Freeze-substitution
108
The ff are procedures done in teasing or
dissociation, except:
A. Forcibly compressing slide to another slide
B. Immersing the specimen in isotonic solution
C. Separating by direct or zigzag spread using
applicator stick
D. Transferred into a slide and mounted as a wet
preparation
A. Forcibly compressing slide to another slide - Crushing (Squash preparation
109
The ff statements describe the process of fixation,
except:
A. Removal of calcium ions
B. Prevent autolysis and putrefaction
C. Preserve morphologic integrity of cell
D. Harden the tissue
A. Removal of calcium ions - Dehydration
110
Metallic fixatives are one of the four major groups of
fixative and it includes the ff:
A. Formaldehyde, glutaraldehyde - aldehyde
B. Mercuric chloride, picric acid
C. Osmium tetroxide, potassium permanganate -
oxidizing fixative
D. Methanol, ethanol - alcohol-based fixative
B. Mercuric chloride, picric acid
111
Select which among the ff association between
difficulties by improper fixation and its cause is correct:
A. Tissue blocks are brittle; prolonged fixation
B. Removal of substances soluble in fixing agents;
incomplete washing of fixative
C. Presence of artefact pigments on tissue sections;
wrong choice of fixative
D. Shrinkage and swelling of cells; incomplete fixation
A. Tissue blocks are brittle; prolonged fixation
112
It is an example of decalcifying agent that decalcifies
and soften tissues at the same time.
A. Phloroglucin-nitric acid - decalcifying soln
B. Molliflex - softener only
C. Perenyi’s fluid
D. Neutral EDTA
C. Perenyi’s fluid
113
Choose the answer with the correct association
between the difficulties encountered and its cause or the
fault that is made
A. Frozen tissue chips into fragments when cut;
freezing is not adequate
B. Frozen tissue crumbles and comes off the block
holder when cut; tissue is frozen too much
C. Tissue shrinks away from wax when trimmed;
insufficient infiltration
D. Tissue is opaque and there is presence of alcohol;
insufficient clearing
D. Tissue is opaque and there is presence of alcohol;
insufficient clearing
114
During the handling and fixation of specimens, there
are general precautions that are needed to be followed.
One of the precautions is to avoid slow freezing because
this may cause:
A. Formation of ice crystal artefacts
B. Damage to cellular organelles
C. Release enzymes
D. Diffuse soluble components of the cell
A. Formation of ice crystal artefacts
115
Which of the ff will affect the speed of penetration of
the clearing agent?
A. Temperature
B. Viscosity
C. PH
D. AOTA
B. Viscosity
116
Which of the following is paired correctly?
a. Presence of artifact pigments on tissue
sections - incomplete fixation (Incomplete washing of fixative dapat)
b. Tissue blocks are brittle and hard -
incomplete fixation (Prolonged fixation)
c. Tissue are soft and feather like in
consistency - incomplete fixation
d. Shrinkage and swelling of cells and tissue
structure - incomplete fixation (Overfixation)
c. Tissue are soft and feather like in
consistency - incomplete fixation
117
What type of metallic fixative is specifically used in
wharton’s jelly and umbilical cord?
a. Lead fixative - contains large amounts of
mucopolysaccharide, esp. Acid mucopolysaccharide
b. Mercuric Chloride fixative - damages integrity of tissue, preferably umbilical cord
c. Chromate Fixative - for carbohydates
d. Picrate Fixative - for histones and basic
proteins
a. Lead fixative - contains large amounts of
mucopolysaccharide, esp. Acid mucopolysaccharide
118
The clearing agent turns milky as soon as the tissue
is placed in. What is the reason behind it?
a. Prolonged fixation
b. Incomplete fixation
c. Clearing agent is not completely removed
d. AOTA
e. NOTA
NOTA - Incomplete dehydration dapat
119
Prolonged decalcification of tissues is liable to ___
and lead to ____
a. Good staining: Complete dehydration
b. Maceration of tissues: prevent hydrolysis
c. Prevent hydrolysis: macerate tissues
d. Complete dehydration: good staining
c. Prevent hydrolysis: macerate tissues
120
What is the decalcifying agent that also acts as a
tissue softener?
a. Aqueous phenol solution
b. Perenyi’s fluid
c. Phloroglucin nitric acid
d. Moliflex
b. Perenyi’s fluid
121
The most simple, reliable, and convenient way of
measuring the extent of decalcification
a. Chemical test
b. Radiological
c. Mechanical test
d. Physical test
A. Chemical test
122
The very slow decalcifying agents
a. Ion exchange resins
b. Chelating agents
c. Acids
d. Electrical ionization
b. Chelating agents
123
This is a type of decalcifying agent that may be
used as a simple solution with a recommended
concentration of 5 - 10%?
a. Trichloroacetic acid
b. Chromic acid
c. Nitric acid
d. Formic acid
d. Formic acid
124
Fixation time can be cut down by using the following
except:
a. Heat
b. Cold temperature
c. Microwave
d. Agitation
b. Cold temperature
125
This clearing agent can cause aplastic anemia
a. Benzene
b. Xylol
c. Toluene
d. Chloroform
a. Benzene
126
It is a method whereby cut tissues, preferably fresh
are cut into pieces and brought into contact and
pressed to the surface of a clean slide
a. Spreading
b. Pull apart
c. Touch preparation
d. Smear preparation
c. Touch preparation
127
The tissue is soft when the block is trimmed, what
causes this?
a. Incomplete embedding
b. Incomplete dehydration
c. Incomplete fixation
d. Incomplete clearing
c. Incomplete fixation
128
Which of the following should not be done in the
cryostat procedure?
a. Slow freezing
b. Temperatures near -20C
c. Freezing quickly
d. Using fresh tissues for freezing
a. Slow freezing - Can produce Ice artifacts
129
What causes the presence of artifact pigments on
tissue sections during fixation?
a. Wrong choice of fixative
b. Prolonged fixation
c. Incomplete washing of fixative
d. Incomplete fixation
c. Incomplete washing of fixative
130
The commonly used concentration for
formaldehyde.
a. 0.10%
b. 0.25%
c. 3%
d. 10%
d. 10%
131
Fixatives that may react with histones and basic
proteins -
a. Mercuric chloride fixative
b. Neutral buffer
c. Glutaraldehyde
d. Chromate fixative
e. NOTA
NONE OF THE ABOVE - PICRATES
132
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a
good fixative
a. Permits rapid and even penetration of
tissues
b. Inhibits bacterial decomposition and
autolysis
c. Capable of removing calcium salts from
the tissue without considerable destruction
d. It must produce minimum shrinkage of
tissue
c. Capable of removing calcium salts from
the tissue without considerable destruction
Pang dehydration 'yan lods!
133
Which of the following is not a characteristics of
smooth muscle tissue
a. Arranged closely to form sheets
b. Spindle- shaped cells with central nuclei
c. Presence of intercalated discs
d. No striations
c. Presence of intercalated discs - Pang Skeletal muscle (Cardiac)
134
The universal molecular fixative, known as UMFIX,
is a mixture of ___ and ___, and is an excellent and
cost-effective alternative to formalin.
a. Methanol: polyethylene glycol
b. Glutaraldehyde: aceton
c. Ethanol: glycerol
d. Picric acid: carbowax
a. Methanol: polyethylene glycol
135
It is an apparatus used in fresh tissue microtomy?
a. Ultrathin microtome
b. Cryostat
c. Microtome
d. Electron microtomy
b. Cryostat
136
What is the type/ form of fixation whereby a primary
fixed tissue is placed in an aqueous solution of 2.5
3% potassium dichromate for 24 hours?
a. Heat fixation
b. Post chromatization
c. Secondary fixation
d. Primary fixation
b. Post chromatization
137
Which method of fresh tissue examination is used
for cancer diagnosis?
a. Crushing
b. Smear preparation
c. Frozen section
d. Ceasing
B. Smear preparation
138
It is a special way of preserving tissues by
quenching and sublimation
a. Cryostat procedure
b. Freeze- substitution
c. Cold knife procedure
d. Freeze- drying
d. Freeze- drying
139
All of the following has more than one function in
tissue processing, except:
a. Cetrahydrofuran
b. Acetone
c. Dioxane
d. Triethyl phosphate
D. Triethyl phosphate
140
Which type of tissue can transmit electrical signals
from sensory receptors to effectors
a. Skeletal muscle tissue
b. Connective tissue
c. Cardiac muscle tissue
d. Epithelial tissue
e. NOTA
Nervous tissue - NOTA
141
50-70% alcohol is used to wash which type of
fixative?
a. Picric acid
b. Formalin
c. Osmic acid
d. Mercury chloride
Picric acid and Bouins
142
A type of fresh tissue examination that allows cells
to be transferred directly to a slide for examination
of phase contrast microscopy without destroying the
intracellular relationship
a. Pull apart
b. Streaking
c. Squash preparation
d. Impression smear
d. Impression smear
143
This section is normally utilized when a rapid
diagnosis of the tissue is required
a. Plastic section
b. Frozen section
c. Paraffin section
d. Celloidin section
e. Stat section
Frozen Section! Alam na alam mo 'yan buddybear!
144
Best fixative for tissues containing iron pigments
a. 10% BNF
b. Formol corrosive
c. Zenker’s fluid
d. Picric acid
10% NBF
145
Uses an “en bloc” technique
a. Virchow
b. Letulle
c. Gohn
d. Rokitansky
Gohn
Virchow - one by one
Lettulle - en mass
Rokitansky - in situ
146
Term used for the change in body temperature after
death until it reaches the ambient temperature
a. Post mortem
b. Livor mortis
c. Putrefaction
d. Algor mortis
d. Algor mortis
147
Which of the following is the primary preliminaries
for post mortem examination?
a. Written consent from the next of kin-abide
by the extent of restrictions allowed
b. Death certificate (blue form)
c. Medical abstract/ clinical data
d. Medicolegal clearance
i. 1 and 4
ii. 1 amd 2
iii. 1, 2 and 3
iv. AOTA
iv. AOTA
148
Which of the following is correct about the post
mortem examination?
a. After death examination of the body and
dissection of its internal organs to confirm
or determine the cause of death
b. Autopsy can uncover the existence of
diseases not detected during life
c. Determine the extent of injuries may have
contributed to a person’s death
d. Autopsy can cover the existence of
disease that are detected during life
e. Determine the extent of injuries that may
not have contributed to a person’s death
i. 1 and 5
ii. 3 and 4
iii. 1, 2 and 3
iv. 1 and 4
1 and 4!
149
POther term for “livor mortis” which is the settling of
the blood lower portion of the body
a. Bruising
b. Condensation
c. Suggillation
d. AOTA
c. Suggillation
150
This section may be cut from tissues that have been
fixed and frozen with CO2 or for fresh tissues frozen
with a cryostat.
A. Celloidin section
B. Frozen section
C. Paraffin section
D. Gelatin section
E. NOTA
Frozen section
151
Sections are not left on the water bath for a long time
due to:
A. To avoid undue expansion of the tissue
B. To avoid distortion of tissue
C. Both
D. NOTA
To avoid undue expansion of the tissue and to avoid distortion of the tissue
BOTH
152
Select which among the ff is a common component
of an aqueous media together with its correct use
A. Glycerol-prevent cracking
B. Glycerin-prevent drying
C. Gum Arabic- increase Refractive Index
D. Sugar-solidify medium
Glycerol
153
What is the specific pH used for Citric-Acid-Citrate
Buffer solution?
A. 4.5 - to neutralize and protect specimen from the
acidic component of solution
154
It is a semi-translucent, ground glass or hyaline
substance made up of chondroitin
A. Fibrin
B. Fibrinoid
C. Hyalin
D. Amyloid
D. Amyloid
155
Open muscle biopsies are usually received from the
operating room in a surgical clamp for orientation and
divided in three parts. What specific segment is fixed in
glutaraldehyde and is submitted for electron
microscopy?
A. Middle segment
B. Small segment
C. Large segment
D. Remaining segment
E. NOTA
B. Small segment
156
This type of glial cell represents the major
supporting cells in the brain.
A. Astrocytes
B. Microglia - major phagocytic cell
C. Myelin - insulating layer that modifies nerve
conduction
D. Ependymal cell - located in the line of ventricles of
the brain
A. Astrocytes
157
Clearing is done by:
A. 10 dips in alcohol
B. Gradual run through decreasing concentration of
alcohol
C. 2 changes of xylol, 2 hours each
D. 2 or 3 changes of xylene for 1 hour
D. 2 or 3 changes of xylene for 1 hour
158
Choose the answer with the correct association
between the difficulties encountered and its cause or the
fault that is made
A. Frozen tissue chips into fragments when cut;
freezing is not adequate
B. Frozen tissue crumbles and comes off the block
holder when cut; tissue is frozen too much
C. Tissue shrinks away from wax when trimmed;
insufficient infiltration
D. Tissue is opaque and there is presence of alcohol;
insufficient clearing
D. Tissue is opaque and there is presence of alcohol;
insufficient clearing
159
Which of the ff will affect the speed of penetration of
the clearing agent?
A. Temperature
B. Viscosity
C. PH
D. AOTA
B. Viscosity
160
This clearing agent can cause aplastic anemia
a. Benzene
b. Xylol
c. Toluene
d. Chloroform
a. Benzene
161
Dirty knife edge can cause this fault
Sections roll up
162
Sections adhere to knife or other parts of the microtome can be caused by? Except:
Knife edge is dirty
Knife edge is dull
Knife is too high
Knife tilt is too low
Knife tilt is too low
163
Celloidin section does cut come off in ribbons
False
Do not come off in ribbons dapat
164
Ultrathin microtome is widely known for cutting sections for electron microtome. What is the specific type of knives used in this type of microtome
Diamond knives
165
Optimum temperature of the water bath that is used to float tissue cut from the microtome
45-50C
166
For proper cutting, specific clearance angle must be used. Which of the ff angle is considered as the most effective
0-15 degrees
167
Process in histotechnology involves trimming and cutting embedded tissues into uniformly thin slices or sections
Microtomy
168
Kind of microtome that is ideal to use for unembedded frozen section
Freezing microtome
169
Microtome for paraffin embedded tissue
Rocking microtome for large and rotary for small
170
Microtome for celloidin sections
Sliding microtome
171
There are certain safety measures in handling the microtome to avoid accidents. What safety measure could be done to avoid getting injured when changing blocks?
Use hand wheel lock
172
What kind of microtome knife is used for cutting
resin blocks for electron microscopy?
Diamond knives
173
Which of the ff are important measures that are needed to be performed after embedding the tissue blocks and solidifying the paraffin wax, except:
Take out both the thin and thick sections
Remove the wax Block from the mold
Note the identification number
Cut off the excess wax
Take out both the thin and thick sections
174
Becomes milky when incomplete dehydration
Xylene
175
What factor should be met when doing the floatation of section
Water should be free from bubbles
176
Celloidin embedding is another technique besides paraffin embedding. Compared with paraffin embedding, what could be its advantage in tissue processing?
Completely avoids the use of heat
177
Possible reason why there is an uneven or unequal
thickness of the sections produced
a. Clamp set screw on knife or block holder is loose
b. Blocks are too large
c. Tilt of knife is too great
d. Blocks are too hard
e. AOTA
f. NOTA
Tilt of knife is too great
178
Part of microtome where tissue is held in position
Block holder
179
Most dangerous type of microtome due to the movable exposed knife
Standard-sliding microtome
180
Biconcave and plane-concave knifes are both used for paraffin sections. THe less concave side of plane-concave knife is used for celloidin embedded tissue blocks
Both statement are correct
Plane concave - celloidin
Biconcave - paraffin
-Glass and diamond knives - EM
181
The static electricity is due to low atmospheric
humidity because of
Sections adhere to the knife
Knife edge is dull
Knife tilt is too great
knife edge is dirty
AOTA
182
A type of block-out mold that is made up of interlocking plates resting on flat metal base
Compound embedding unit
Two L-Shaped brass arranged on a flat metal - Leuckhart's
Special stainless steel base mold fitted with plastic - Plastic embedded rings and base mold
183
Apparatus used in fresh tissue microtomy
Cryostat
184
Double embedding is done by infiltrating tissue with ____ then _____
Celloidin - paraffin
185
A process in which the edge of the coverslip is sealed
Ringing
186
Removal of gross nick on the knife edge to remove blemishes and grinding the cutting edge of the knife on a stone
Honing - heel to toe
Types of honing:
Belgium yellow - Manual sharpening when cutting edge has been rendered blunt
Arkansas - Gives more polishing effect
Fine carborundum - much coarser
Stropping is removing the "burr" - toe to heel
187
Type of processing where impregnation can be performed involves wax impregnation under negative atmospheric pressure
Vacuum embedding
188
Method of staining that is responsible for the staining of living cells by INJECTING the dye into any part of the animal body
Intravital staining
189
Microtome should be covered when no one is using it to avoid accumulation of dust and dirt all over the machine which may interfere with the normal sectioning of tissue
True
190
Application of different color stain to provide contrast and background
Metachromic staining
191
Vegetable dye extracted from certain LICHENS which are normally colorless and is mainly used for staining elastic fibers
Orcein
192
Serves as a link or bridge between the tissue and the dye
Mordant
193
The blockholder moves the block holder either towards the knife or away from the knife
Coarse handwheel
194
Most common staining method utilized for microanatomical studies of tissues
H and E
195
Process by which an active coloring agent is formed by the oxidation of hematoxylin
Ripening
196
Substances with define atomic grouping and are capable of producing visible colors
Chromopores
197
A good regressive stain used in nuclear staining , in exfoliative cytology and for staining of sex chromosomes
Harris hematoxylin
198
Process whereby the tissue constituents are demonstrated in section by direct interaction with a dye producing coloration of the active tissue component
Histological staining
199
Medium used for methylene blue-stained nerve preparation and as a general purpose aqueous mountant
Apathy's medium
200
Cant be used for the preparation of body cavity effusion except:
10% formalin
70% ethanol
Sodium citrate
Heparin
Heparin
CANT BE USED FOR BODY CAVITY EFFUSION YUNG 10%F, 70% ETHANOL, and SODIUM CITRATE
201
Exfoliative cytology is recommended for the
Detection of precancerous cervical lesions
202
Papanicolau method uses the following stains except:
Harris hematoxylin
OG6
Eosin azure 60
AOTA
Eosin azure 60
EA-65 is used
EA50 for gynecological
203
Papanicolaou method has the following advantages
except:
a. Excellent nuclear staining is identified
b. Transparent pink staining of cytoplasm
allows overlapping cells to be identified
c. Color range is predictable and of great
value in classification of cells
d. Valuable in comparing cellular
appearances in smears with their
counterpart
b. Transparent pink staining of cytoplasm
allows overlapping cells to be identified
204
It is the junction of endocervical mucosa where the majority of cervical carcinoma arises
T-zone (transformation zone)
205
Saccomano preservative is made up of:
a. 95% alcohol
b. 50% alcohol
c. Ether
d. Carbowax
i. 1 and 2
ii. 2 and 4
iii. 1, 2 and 3
iv. 1 and 4
2 and 4
50% alcohol and Carbowax
206
BOAT shaped cells with FOLD ON EDGES
Navicular cells
207
Used for hormonal evaluation
Lateral vaginal scrape
208
All of the following are true about parabasal except:
a. Round to oval cells
b. 45-50 um
c. Smaller than intermediate cells
d. Found after menopause
45-50um
Mature superficial cell yan
15-30 parabasal
209
True acidophilia is a characteristic of superficial vaginal cells under ___ influence
Estrogen
ESPI -Estrogen = Superficial cells
Progesterone = Intermediate cells
210
Which of the following is/ are true regarding periodic
acid schiff?
a. Produces a red magenta/ purplish pink color
b. Intensity of reaction is directly proportional
to the sugar content
c. Specific for glycol/ glycol amino group
d. Oxidizes 1,2 glycol group of
polysaccharides and mucin
a. Produces a red magenta/ purplish pink color
211
Complex, water-soluble phtalocyanine dye used for acid mucopolysaccharide
Alcian blue
212
This method of staining bone is based on the
deposition of thionin precipitate within the lacunae
and bone canaliculi using 0.125% thionin.
Scmorl's spicro-thionin method
213
chief solvents used for stains
Ethyl alcohol and Phenol
214
Which of the following statements is true regarding
sputum smear preparation?
a. Obtain at least 2 consecutive morning
sputum specimen
b. Collect early morning sputum by a deep
cough in a wide-mouthed jar containing
50% ethyl alcohol and 2% carbowax
c. Absence of alveolar macrophages
suggests unsatisfactory specimen
d. Due to the hardening effect of alcohol,
specimen fixed in said solution should be
sent to the laboratory and smears should
be made without delay
b. Collect early morning sputum by a deep
cough in a wide-mouthed jar containing
50% ethyl alcohol and 2% carbowax
c. Absence of alveolar macrophages
suggests unsatisfactory specimen
d. Due to the hardening effect of alcohol,
specimen fixed in said solution should be
sent to the laboratory and smears should
be made without delay
215
Which of the following statements is false regarding
smear preparation of breast secretion
a. Cytologic examination of nipple discharge
has an extremely low diagnostic yield for
the diagnosis of breast carcinoma.
b. Spontaneous nipple discharge is usually a
result of hormonal imbalance in young
patients, and when the secretion is bloody
a benign intraductal papilloma should be
considered clinically.
c. The nipple discharge is usually due to a
benign breast lesion such as duct ectasia
and papilloma, or due to endocrine
problems.
d. Place the labeled slide upon the nipple and
draw it quickly across the nipple. If more
than a drop is collected, use another slide
to smear with a spreading technique..
e. Secretions obtained from both breasts can
be put in the same slide.
d. Place the labeled slide upon the nipple and
draw it quickly across the nipple. If more
than a drop is collected, use another slide
to smear with a spreading technique..
e. Secretions obtained from both breasts can
be put in the same slide.
216
Which of the following describes lysochromes
a. Water soluble dyes
b. Do not contain auxochrome
c. Natural dye
d. Strongly stains proteins
e. AOTA
Does not contain auxochrome
217
It is an aqueous detergent, used for mounting
sections, that is diluted in 1:10 distilled water
a. poly-L-lysine
b. Dried albumin
c. Starch paste
d. APES
a. poly-L-lysine
218
This is an acidic dye that stains a basic group of
tissues, particularly basic proteins and histones
a. Alkaline fast green
b. Phosphates
c. Gomori calcium method
d. Peraceticalcian blue
Alkaline fast green
219
All of the following are stains used for collagen
except:
a. Van gieson’s stain
b. Mallory’s stain
c. Feulgen technique
d. Azocarmine method
Feulgen technique
220
Which of the following statements are considered
unsatisfactory for interpretation,and recommended
for repeat collection of the cervicovaginal samples,
except
a. If there is an Inadequate number of
parabasal cells
b. If there is an adequate number of cells
from the T-zone
c. Specimen submitted is without a
requisition
d. Less than 50% of the cells obscures
contain blood or inflammation cells and squamous
e. Endocervical cells and squamous metaplastic cells are not seen
B and D
221
Staining method of choice for exfoliative cytology
a. Giemsa stain
b. Papanicolaou stain
c. Romanowsky stain
d. Wright-Giemsa stain
b. Papanicolaou stain
222
Cajal's Gold sublimate method is used for
Astrocytes
223
Which of the following materials are usually seen in the pap's smear of diabetic patient
YEAST
224
First sudan dye to be introduced into histochemistry
Sudan III
225
Which of the following involves the oxidation of
methylene blue, resulting in loss of methyl group
and leaving lower homologues of the dye and de
aminized oxidation products.
a. Accentuating
b. Mordanting
c. Blueing
d. Polychroming
d. Polychroming
226
Which of the following stain the Cryptococcus
neoformans
a. Southgate mucicarmine techniques
b. Levaditi's method
c. Lendrum's method
d. Orcein Method
Southgate mucicarmine techniques
227
The most Common aqueous mounting media used
are the following EXCEPT:
a. Water
b. Farrant's Medium
c. Glycerin
d. Canada Balsam
Canada balsam
228
What aqueous mounting medium has the substance
Sodium Merthiolate in their formula?
a. Brun's Fluid
b. Farrant's medium
c. Apathy's Medium
d. Glycerin
b. Farrant's medium
229
Which among the following is the most commonly
used adhesive?
a. Starch Paste
b. Gelatin (1%)
c. Mayer's Egg Albumin
d. Dried Albumin
c. Mayer's Egg Albumin
230
Which of the following is used as a methods of
staining axons and neuronal processes by using a
primary " sensitizing" solution?
a. Bodian's stain
b. Bielschowsky's Techniques
b. Bielschowsky's Techniques
231
Iron Hematoxylin
a. Enhances the combination of the dye with the nucleus
b. Colors the nucleus black
c. Used for progressive staining
d. All of the above
e. A and B
e. A and B
232
Which of the following are true of staining, except?
a. Shows a hypochromic characteristic for neoplastic and malignant cells
b. It is the process that renders the different tissue components more visible through variation in color
c. Promotes easier optical differentiation
d. Accomplished by the use of dyes and stains
a. Shows a hypochromic characteristic for neoplastic and malignant cells
