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PRINCIPLES MICROBIOLOGY Flashcards

(123 cards)

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1
Q

what is the genus and what is the species:

Staphylococcus Aureus

A

genus - staphylococcus

species - aureus

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2
Q

do prion proteins have DNA or RNA

A

neither

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3
Q

what disease are prion proteins known to cause

A

mad cow disease - Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease

incurable

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4
Q

Why must surgical equipment used with prion proteins be destroyed

A

prion proteins not killed by sterilisation or disinfection

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5
Q

how is DNA stored in a bacterial cell (prokaryote)

A

contained within a tightly coiled double stranded chromosome (nucleoid)
+ extra circular rings of DNA in cytosol (plasmids)

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6
Q

what is the purpose of flagellae of bacterial cells

A

aid movement

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7
Q

what is the purpose of pili (fimbriae) of bacterial cell

A

adhesion

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8
Q

what are spirillum

A

tufts at each end of a bacterial cell to aid movement (flagellae)

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9
Q

what are spirochaete

A

spirals within periplasm that cause cork screw motion

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10
Q

what shape are coccus bacteria

A

round

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11
Q

what shape are bacillus bacteria

A

rod shaped

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12
Q

where does a gram stain stain

A

the cell wall

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13
Q

what colour does gram negative stain

A

pink

Negative stains piNk

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14
Q

what colour does gram positive stain

A

purple

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15
Q

describe the gram positive cell wall

A

thick layer of peptidoglycan

cytoplasmic phospholipid membrane

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16
Q

describe the gram negative cell wall

A

outer cytoplasmic membrane
middle thin layer of peptidoglycan cell wall
inner cytoplasmic membrane
Larger periplasmic space

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17
Q

why does mycobacterium tuberculosis not stain well

A

waxy coat

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18
Q

what does virulence mean

A

degree of pathogenicity - how easily organism can cause disease

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19
Q

how do bacteria replicate

A

binary fission

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20
Q

what do bacteria need to grow

A

food
moisture
correct temp and pH

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21
Q

what is the typical temperature and pH of a human pathogen

A

37 degrees

pH 7.4

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22
Q

what are the 4 phases of bacterial growth

A

Lag phase
log phase
stationary phase
death phase

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23
Q

describe the BR/DR in the 4 phases

A

lag phase - BR > DR
log phase - BR > DR
stationary phase - BR = DR
death phase - BR < DR

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24
Q

what is meant by the term microaerophilic

A

decreased oxygen and increased carbon dioxide

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25
do gram positive produce exotoxins or endotoxins
exotoxins - propelled
26
do gram negative produce exotoxins or endotoxins
Negative produce eNdotoxins - attached to cell wall
27
why is gram negative sepsis slightly worse
endotoxins can be released from cell walls when they die
28
are gram negative or gram positive more susceptible to antibiotics?
gram positive - outside peptidoglycan layer acts as a target
29
what is the effect of bacterial toxins
``` cause release of cytokines from immune cells damage red and white blood cells make BVs leaky reduced clotting ability reduced BP sepsis and septic shock ```
30
what do gram positive bacilli (C. Diff, bacillus anthracis) form
spores
31
what occurs if fusiform bacteria cross the placenta
still births / cancer
32
describe the 3 steps in spore formation
1) chromosome condensation 2) septum formation 3) calcium dipicolinate accumulation in core
33
what does a spore consist of
cytoplasm + contents + cytoplasmic membrane - surrounded by exosporium
34
give 5 times when hand washing is necessary
``` before patient contact before aseptic task after bodily fluid exposure after patient contact after contact with patient surroundings ```
35
what are the 2 types on fungi
moulds and yeasts
36
how do yeasts reproduce
budding
37
how do moulds reproduce
spores spread by air current | hyphae spread by invading organic tissue
38
when is asperigillus sp. mainly seen (mould)
immunocompromised patients (opportunistic)
39
what is the most common fungal infection in humans
candida spp. (yeast)
40
what do yeasts look like in a gram stain
large gram positive oval structures
41
do moulds stain?
no
42
what are protozoa
single celled parasites
43
Streptococci spp is ... | How is it subdivided?
a gram positive cocci in strips strep sounds like strip haemolyisis
44
staphylococci app. is ... | how is it subdivided?
a gram positive cocci in clusters aerobic but facultative in the STAPH room the teachers stand in clusters coagulase test
45
enterococci sp is ...
a gram positive cocci | aerobic but facultative
46
what is alpha haemolysis | What colour is it
partial haemolysis | caused by enzymes that denature haemoglobin inside RBCs causing a GREEN decolorisation around colony
47
what is beta haemolysis | What colour is it
complete haemolysis | caused by enzymes that lyse the RBC completely causing CLEAR/YELLOW around the colony
48
what is gamma haemolysis | give an example
``` no haemolysis (red appearance) enterococci ```
49
what are the most pathogenic strep species
Beta haemolytic
50
give 2 examples of alpha-haemolytic strep
``` strep pneumonia (pneumococcus) strep viridans ```
51
Streptococcus pneumoniae is ...
``` alpha haemolytic gram positive cocci in short chains or pairs (diplococci) most common cause of pneumonia ```
52
strep viridians is ...
alpha haemolytic gram positive cocci in chains
53
what are the 2 groups of beta haemolytic strep
``` group A (strep. progenies) - most infectious group B ```
54
give 3 things caused by strep pyogenes
strep throat ( tonsillitis or scarlet fever if rash also present) skin and soft tissue infection - necrotising fascitis puerperal sepsis - fatal infection in pregnant and recently post natal women
55
give 2 examples of enterococcus
enterococcus faecalis enterococcus faecium normal bowel commensals
56
what type of enterococcus can cause outbreaks in hospitals
enterococcus faecium - VRE (vancomycin resistant enterococci)
57
what is the most common cause of skin, soft tissue, bone, joint and wound infections
staph aureus
58
what causes toxic shock
staph aureus
59
how is staphylococci divided/identified
coagulase positive - staph aureus (golden) | coagulase negative - all others (white) e.g. staph epidermidis
60
what does MSSA stand for
methicillin sensitive staph aureus | sensitive to flucloxacillin
61
what does MRSA stand for
methicillin resistance staph aureus resistant to all penicillins, flucloxacillin and all cephalosporins alteration of PBP2 (penicillin binding protein 2)
62
how does staph epidermidis stick to plastic and other artificial material in body
produces a surface polysaccharide slime infection of prosthetic joint/valve/IV catheter normal commensal of skin
63
what is Panton-Valentine leukocidin
toxin produced by some strains of staph. aureus which causes damage to WBCs associated with necrolytic skin infection
64
how do endotoxins work
interact with macrophages to stimulate immune response and cytokine release cytokines cause adverse effects of sepsis and travel to hypothalamus
65
what is released in response to cytokines and from where
prostaglandin E - hypothalamus
66
what does prostaglandin E do
increases the body's thermal set point - shivering stimulated
67
what goes in the black bin bags
domestic waste
68
what goes in the orange bin bags
clinical waste
69
what is an FFP3 mask and when is it used
filter mask | airborne precaution
70
what is another airborne infection precaution
negative pressure room
71
what occurs in sepsis
``` leaky blood vessels loss of fluid into tissues hypotension / hypovolaemia tachycardia poor tissue perfusion ```
72
why is haemorrhage more likely in sepsis
clotting factors activated - blood clotting in tiny vessels | uses up clotting factors
73
what kind of symmetry do adenoviruses show
icosahedral symmetry
74
how many subunits in icosahedral symmetry
3 1 for apex 1 for centre of face 1 for edges
75
how many subunits in helical symmetry
1 repeated unit
76
give the 6 steps in the replicated of a virus
1) attachment to cell 2) entry into cell 3) uncoating of viral nucleic acid 4) nucleic acid and protein synthesis 5) assembly 6) release - budding / cell lysis
77
what is the Varicella - zoster virus
remains latent before reactivating in dorsal root ganglia (shingles)
78
Neisseria spp. are ...
aerobic gram negative cocci in pairs e.g. neisseira meningitides - most common cause of bacterial meningitis
79
coliform are...
``` rod shaped aerobic but facultative gram negative large bacilli non-spore forming ```
80
what are the 2 types of coliform
``` O antigens (cell wall) H antigens (flagella) ```
81
give 6 types of coliform
``` E. Coli Klebsiella Enterobacter Proteus Salmonella Shigella ```
82
what is the first line treatment for coliforms
gentamicin
83
Pseudomonas aeruginois legionella pneumophila are ...
gram negative bacilli strict aerobes
84
haemophillus influenza is ...
small gram negative bacillus aerobes
85
H. Pylori is ...
gram negative small curved bacilli microaerophilic
86
campylobacter spp is...
gram negative spiral bacilli microaerophilic
87
clostridium spp are...
gram positive bacilli produces spores strict anaerobe
88
bacteriodes spp. are ...
gram negative bacilli strict anaerobes
89
what is the first line treatment for anaerobes?
metronidazole
90
give 3 examples of clostridium spp
C. difficile - diarrhoea C. Tetani - tetanus C. Perfringens - gas gangrene
91
what do gram negative bacteria release when they die
lipopolysaccharides - form a ligand:receptor communication with toll-like receptor 4 (found on macrophage surface)
92
what are beta lactam antibiotics
contain beta lactam structure in their molecular structure | penicillins, co-amoxiclavs, cephalosporins
93
what are mycobacteria stained by
acid-alcohol fast bacilli
94
what is genetic variation in bacteria and what are the 3 ways it can occur
mutation and gene transfer transformation conjugation transduction
95
what is transformation
when DNA released from dead bacteria is taken up by living bacteria and incorporated into plasmids of nucleoid
96
what is conjugation
sex plus is produced by one bacteria through which plasmid DNA can be transferred
97
what is transduction
when viruses infect bacteria and transfer bits of DNA from one bacterium to another
98
What would a bacteria that produces beta lactamase be resistant to
amoxicillin
99
What would a bacteria that produces extended spectrum beta lactamase be resistant to
all penicillins and cephalosporins
100
What would a bacteria that produces carbapenemase be resistant to
all penicillins all cephalosporins all carbapenems
101
how does penicillin work
ACTS ON CELL WALL | inhibit cell wall synthesis by preventing cross linking of peptidoglycan subunit
102
how do cephalosporins work
ACT ON CELL WALL bactericidal inhibit cell wall synthesis
103
how do glycopeptides work | e.g. vancomycin, tercoplanin
ACT ON CELL WALL bactericidal bind to end of growing pentapeptide chain preventing cross linking and therefore weakening cell wall gram positive only
104
why can persistor cells not be targeted by antibiotics
enclosed within a biofilm so can't be targeted in a dormant/inactive state
105
give examples of 3 types of penicillin
benzylpenicillin - penicillin G (IV) phenoxymethyl penicillin - penicillin V (oral) benzathine penicillin - IM, long acting
106
what is the functional group of penicillin
beta-lactam ring
107
what is co-amoxiclav
amoxicillin + clavulanic acid - inhibits action of beta-lactamase enzyme so that amoxicillin can work where it wouldn't normally
108
how do macrolides work | e.g. erythromycin, clarithromycin, azithromycin
INHIBIT PROTEIN SYNTHESIS bacteriostatic - protein synthesis can resume once the antibiotic is removed taken into bacterial cell by AT, bind to 50S subunit and prevent tRNA from binding at receptor sites
109
how do tetracyclines work | e.g. tetracycline, doxycycline
INHIBIT PROTEIN SYNTHESIS bacteriostatic taken into bacterial cell by AT, bind to 30S subunit and prevent tRNA from binding at receptor sites
110
how do aminoglycosides work | e.g. gentamicin
INHIBIT PROTEIN SYNTHESIS bactericidal - binding to ribosome is lethal taken into bacterial cell by AT, bind to 30S subunit and prevent tRNA from binding at receptor sites
111
when should vancomycin be avoided
kidney failure
112
how are macrolides excreted
via liver, biliary tract and into faeces
113
how is gentamicin excreted
kidneys
114
what 2 things does gentamicin cause damage to
kidneys | vestibulocochlear nerve CN VII
115
how does metronidazole work
ACTS ON BACTERIAL DNA causes DNA strand breakage anaerobic infections and some protozoal
116
how does trimethoprim work
ACTS ON BACTERIAL DNA | inhibits bacterial folic acid synthesis
117
how is trimethoprim excreted
kidneys
118
what is co-trimoxazole
trimethoprim + sulphamethoxazole
119
how do fluoroquinolones work e.g. ciprofloxacin levofloxacin
ACT ON BACTERIAL DNA prevent supercoiling of bacterial DNA bactericidal
120
what is used for atypical cover
clarithromycin
121
Amoxicillin covers ... Gentamicin covers ... Metronidazole ...
gram positive gram negative anaerobes
122
(most) enterococci sensitive to ...
co-trimoxazole | (most) amoxicillin
123
what is pseudomonas aeruginosa treated with
ciprofloxacin | resistant to most antibiotics and gram negative

year 1 (45 decks)

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