Problems In Digestion Peds Flashcards

1
Q

Cleft lip (CL) and palate (CLP)

A

May be partial, complete, unilateral, bilateral. Incomplete fusion of nasomedial and intermaxillaey processes, in fourth week of embryonic development. Feeding difficulties are most significant clinical manifestation, due to inability to generate negative pressure needed for sucking. Also may be swallowing difficulty. May require feeding and swallowing consultation with specialist, special bottles with nipples, breast-feeding may be possible. Orthodontic prosthesis for roof of mouth may help with sucking.

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2
Q

Esophageal malformations

A

Atresia is most common. Five types, varying connections or fistulas with trachea. Excess amniotic fluid may be seen on US if fetus cannot swallow in utero. At birth, drooling, inability to swallow secretions, choking with feeding, respiratory distress, in ability to pass OG tube may be present. Abdomen may fill with air and become distended. Trouble breathing and intermittent cyanosis may occur. Late complications can include stricture, reflux, dysphasia, chronic cough, dyspnea on exertion. Could also have recurrent aspiration, pneumonia, atelectasis. Need US, echo, vertebral and limb radiographs. Surgical repair usually needed.

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3
Q

Infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

A

Most common cause of intestinal obstruction in infancy. More common in male infants. Acquired narrowing and distal obstruction of pylorus, common cause of postprandial vomiting. Occurs first few weeks or months after birth. May be genetic disposition. An infant who has fed well and gained weight begins to forcefully vomit nonbilious food after eating. Then demands to be refed due to hunger. Will be irritable due to hunger
Constipation can occur due to little food reaching intestine. In severe and untreated cases, can lead to fluid and electrolyte imbalances, malnutrition,
Weight loss. Can be fatal in 4-6 weeks. Are usually irritable due to hunger, may have esophageal discomfort due to repeat vomiting and esophagitis. Vomitus may be red streaked with blood. Vomiting is different than reflux vomiting, which is not as forceful and occurs ten or more minutes after feeding. Pylorus may be palpable, a hard olive in right upper quadrant, some infants may show a visible gastric peristaltic wave after eating, US will show hypertrophied pyloric muscles and narrowed pyloric channel. Needs corrective surgery-laparoscopic pylorotomy and needs fluid and electrolyte corrections. Can usually tolerate feeding several hours post op

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4
Q

Duodenum, jejunum , ileum obstructions

A

Persistent vomiting likely indicates high intestinal obstruction.

Duodenal obstruction will cause upper abdominal distention, visible peristaltic waves, decrease in size and frequency of meconium stools, progressive weight loss, persistent vomiting, dehydration. Vomiting may be bilious, feeding difficulties may be present. Double bubble” is seen on ultrasound. Larger bubble is air in dilated stomach, smaller bubble is dilated proximal duodenum. Needs NPO, gastric decompression, surgery

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5
Q

Intestinal malrotation

A

Most common congenital anomaly of small intestine. Small intestine lacks normal posterior fixation, is only attached near origin of superior mesenteric artery. Colon remains in right upper quadrant and may be compressed or obstructed. Intestines twist on themselves, can cause infarct and necrosis of entire midgut. Classic symptoms are intermittent or persistent bile-stained vomiting after feeding and epigastric distention. Dehydration and electrolyte imbalance can occur rapidly, fever can start with scant stools and pain. Diarrhea and blood stools are associated with progressive volvulus, vascular compression and infarction of intestine. Needs upper GI imaging, exploratory lap.

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6
Q

What is Hirschsprung disease?

A

A congenital condition characterized by the absence of nerve cells in the muscles of the colon, leading to severe constipation or intestinal obstruction. Dx with rectal biopsy showing a sense of ganglion cells in submucosa of colon. Surgery is treatment, taking out aganglionic segments and “pulling thru” proximal bowel to anus.

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7
Q

True or False: Hirschsprung disease primarily affects adults.

A

False: It primarily affects infants and young children.

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8
Q

Fill in the blank: The main symptom of Hirschsprung disease is __________.

A

severe constipation or inability to pass stool.

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9
Q

What is the primary treatment for Hirschsprung disease?

A

Surgical removal of the affected segment of the colon.

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10
Q

Which genetic mutation is commonly associated with Hirschsprung disease?

A

Mutations in the RET proto-oncogene.

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11
Q

Meconium syndromes

A

Meconium is what fills intestines before birth. Dark green, odorless mass of desquamated cells, mucus, free fatty acids, pancreatic phospholipases, and bile. Usually discharged 12-48 hours after birth.

Aspiration syndrome- contaminates lungs, predisposes to infection, respiratory distress, can cause persistent pulmonary hypertension with shunting thru patent ductus arteriosus and foramem ovale

Meconium Ileus-sticky meconium that causes ileus in neonate. Is simple or complex…complex is surgical emergency and is associated with bowel atresia, volvulus, necrosis, perforation. Peristalsis cannot propel this extra sticky goo so it becomes impacted. Mortality increases with peritonitis.

If simple, warm saline enemas can fix.

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12
Q

What does GER stand for in the context of infant health?

A

Gastroesophageal reflux

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13
Q

True or False: GER is a common condition in infants.

A

True

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14
Q

Fill in the blank: GER occurs when stomach contents flow back into the ______.

A

esophagus

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15
Q

Which of the following is a typical symptom of GER in infants? A) Excessive crying B) Persistent cough C) Arching of the back D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

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16
Q

What is the primary treatment approach for mild cases of GER in infants?

A

Dietary changes and positioning techniques

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17
Q

What does GERD stand for?

A

Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease

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18
Q

True or False: GERD is common in infants and can resolve as they grow older.

A

True

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19
Q

Fill in the blank: Symptoms of GERD in children may include ________ and regurgitation.

A

heartburn

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20
Q

What is a common diagnostic test for GERD in children?

A

Upper gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy

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21
Q

Which lifestyle modification can help manage GERD symptoms in children?

A

Avoiding large meals before bedtime

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22
Q

What is intussusception?

A

Intussusception is a medical condition where a part of the intestine telescopes into an adjacent segment, causing obstruction.
Symptoms are bile green vomit, colicky intermittent pain, irritability, knees drawn to chest (to reduce pressure on intussusception) abdominal mass, vomiting, bloody stools (late sign.) may fall into heavy sleep between pain periods due to endogenous morphine release. Needs US, xray, sometimes enema reduction works and prevents ischemia. Surgery is needed if ischemic, perforated. Is fatal if not treated. It also may spontaneously reduce.

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23
Q

True or False: Intussusception can occur in both adults and children.

A

True

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24
Q

Fill in the blank: The most common age group affected by intussusception is _____ years old.

A

6 months to 3 years

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25
What is a common symptom of intussusception?
Abdominal pain, often described as intermittent and severe.
26
Which imaging technique is commonly used to diagnose intussusception?
Ultrasound or CT scan
27
What is appendicitis?
Appendicitis is the inflammation of the appendix, a small pouch connected to the large intestine.
28
True or False: Appendicitis is more common in children than adults.
True.
29
Fill in the blank: The typical age range for children to develop appendicitis is _____ to _____ years.
5 to 15 years.
30
What are common symptoms of appendicitis in children?
Common symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and loss of appetite.
31
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a common diagnostic tool for appendicitis? A) MRI B) Ultrasound C) X-ray D) CT scan
B) Ultrasound and D) CT scan are common diagnostic tools.
32
What is cystic fibrosis?
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects the respiratory, digestive, and reproductive systems due to the production of thick and sticky mucus.
33
True or False: Cystic fibrosis is caused by a mutation in the CFTR gene.
True. This affects transmembrane regular protein CFTR, on epithelial membranes and regulates sodium and chloride channels.
34
Fill in the blank: The most common mutation associated with cystic fibrosis is _____.
ΔF508
35
What are common symptoms of cystic fibrosis?
Common symptoms include persistent cough, frequent lung infections, difficulty breathing, and poor growth or weight gain. Hallmark patho triad of CF is obstruction, infection, inflammation. All states screen for CF. Goal of tx is increase absorption of nutrients, improve growth, pulmonary toileting of secretions.
36
Which organ system is primarily affected by cystic fibrosis?
The respiratory system is primarily affected, but it also impacts the digestive and reproductive systems. Prognosis is mainly determined by pulmonary involvement, and death is usually caused by combo of respiratory failure and cor pulmonale.
37
What is Celiac disease?
Celiac disease is an autoimmune disorder where the ingestion of gluten leads to damage in the small intestine. Characteristics are fat soluble vitamin deficiency, diminished growth, anemia
38
True or False: Celiac disease can be diagnosed through a blood test.
True
39
Fill in the blank: The primary treatment for Celiac disease is a ________ diet.
gluten-free
40
Which of the following is a common symptom of Celiac disease? (A) Headaches (B) Skin rash (C) Digestive issues (D) All of the above
D) All of the above
41
What part of the body is primarily affected by Celiac disease?
The small intestine. Induces T cell autoimmune injury to the villi, along with atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, malabsorption of most nutrients if present with gluten. Onset can occur by 18 months, Can have growth failure, anorexia, constipation, Gas, abd pain, diarrhea, pain, inflammation, swelling, malnutrition
42
What is Kernicterus?
Kernicterus is a form of brain damage caused by excessive jaundice in newborns, leading to high levels of bilirubin in the blood.
43
True or False: Kernicterus can occur in adults.
False
44
Fill in the blank: Kernicterus is primarily caused by __________ in newborns.
hyperbilirubinemia Physiologic -transient, benign, occurs during first week of life. Subsides in 1-2 weeks. Pathologic- appears 24 hours after birth, total serum bilirubin above 20 mg/dL, can cause bilirubin encephalopathy, kernicterus or brain damage.
45
Which of the following is a potential consequence of Kernicterus? (A) Hearing loss (B) Improved vision (C) Enhanced motor skills
A) Hearing loss
46
What is a common method used to treat high bilirubin levels to prevent Kernicterus?
Phototherapy
47
Pyelonephritis or cystitis
Inflamed kidneys causes damage that results in production of WBC casts. Diff between the two.
48
What is Crohn's disease?
Crohn's disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) that causes chronic inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract.
49
True or False: Crohn's disease can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract.
True
50
Fill in the blank: Symptoms of Crohn's disease may include _____, abdominal pain, and diarrhea.
fatigue
51
common complication of Crohn's disease? Fistulas Malnutrition
Can involve any part of the GI tract from prophesy to perianal area. Skip areas are where diseased segments are separated by normal bowel. Inflammation can be transmural, extending thru serosa, resulting in sinus tracts or fistulas. Pathophys is neutrophil infiltration of crypts, which causes destructive abscess formation.
52
What are two common treatments for managing Crohn's disease?
Medications (such as anti-inflammatory drugs and immunosuppressants) and surgery.
53
What does SIADH stand for?
Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone secretion. It is oversecretion of ADH by posterior pituitary gland, including cancer. This causes distal tubules and collecting duct to reabsorb water and hyper dilute serum, causing decreased sodium level, low serum osmolality, high urine osmolality. Cancer patients can develop this, including prostate or renal. Can be admitted with confusion, thirst, nausea, oliguria, abd cramping. Patients gain weight from excess fluid.
54
True or False: SIADH is characterized by low levels of serum sodium.
True
55
Fill in the blank: In SIADH, there is an excess of __________, leading to water retention.
antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
56
Which of the following conditions is commonly associated with SIADH? A) Diabetes Mellitus B) Lung cancer C) Hyperthyroidism
B) Lung cancer
57
What is a common symptom of SIADH due to hyponatremia?
Confusion or seizures
58
59
After passing calculi, watch for what?
Marked polyuria (4-5 liters per day). Caused by excess sodium and water retention and accumulation of urea and non-reabsorbable solutes, resulting in osmotic diuresis.
60
Bursitis
Trauma and overuse can inflame the bursal sac. May heal with rest, heat, aspiration of fluid
61
Green stick fx
Partial thickness fx where only cortex and periosteum are interrupted on one side of the bone but remain uninterrupted on the other, usually in long bones.
62
Osteosarcoma
Usually present with pain and swelling in an affected bone. Is intermittent but progresses. Labs show elevation of serum alkaline phos. CT shows compact bone is replaced with dense callus of masses of osteoid. Pain can be worse at night. Pain increases with activity and may result in limp if tumor is in leg Bone
63
What is the normal range for adult fasting blood glucose levels?
70-99 mg/dL
64
True or False: A normal hemoglobin A1c level is below 5.7%.
True
65
What is the normal range for serum sodium levels in adults?
135-145 mEq/L
66
Fill in the blank: Normal total cholesterol levels should be less than ______ mg/dL.
200
67
What is the normal range for adult serum potassium levels?
3.5-5.0 mEq/L
68
What is the normal range for adult white blood cell (WBC) count?
4,500-11,000 cells/µL
69
True or False: A normal platelet count ranges from 150,000 to 450,000 cells/µL.
True
70
What is the normal range for serum creatinine levels in adults?
0.6-1.2 mg/dL
71
What is the normal range for adult serum calcium levels?
8.5-10.5 mg/dL
72
Fill in the blank: Normal liver function tests typically include AST and ALT levels below ______ U/L.
40
73
What is the normal range for adult albumin levels?
3.5-5.0 g/dL
74
True or False: Normal blood pressure is considered to be less than 120/80 mmHg.
True
75
What is the normal range for adult bicarbonate (HCO3) levels?
22-28 mEq/L
76
What is the normal range for fasting triglyceride levels?
Less than 150 mg/dL
77
Fill in the blank: A normal level of phosphate in the blood is typically between ______ mg/dL.
2.5-4.5