Prostate Pathology - Iczkowski Flashcards

1
Q

Recall what pathology involves each prostatic zone.

A

Central - Infections, prostatitis

Peripheral - Cancers

Transitional - BPH

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2
Q

Describe the normal histology of the prostate. What tissue types are present? What cells?

A

Normal prostate divided into stromal and glandular tissue.

Glandular tissue is lined by a double layer of secretory (columnar) and basal (stem) cells.

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3
Q

What are some typical causes of acute prostatitis?

A

Infections or irritants, often facilitated by reflux from the urethra.

Pathogens are usually gram-negative rods: E. Coli, P. Aeruginosa, K. Pneumoniae

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4
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of chronic prostatitis.

A

Chronic prostatitis is usually abacterial (culture-negative), but result from multiple bacterial infections causing bouts of acute prostatitis.

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5
Q

Chronic prostatitis is often culture-negative. What is this condition also known as, and what organs may actually be responsibile?

A

“Chronic Pelvic Pain Syndrome” (CPPS)

Chlamydia Trachomatis, Ureaplasma Urealyticum, and Trichomonas Vaginalis appear to be implicated. However, it is unclear if this is due to occult infection or residual damage.

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6
Q

Compare and contrast the clinical presentation of acute and chronic prostatitis.

A

Acute: Fever, pain (lower back, perineal, or suprapubic), swelling, and dysuria/hematuria.

Chronic: As above, but may be asymptomatic.

Note: PSA elevation in either (<4)

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7
Q

A patient presents several times for evaluation of prostatitis. Each time the culture comes back positive for UPEC. Urine microscopy reveals 12 wbcs per high-power field.

What is the diagnosis, and why is this happening?

A

Chronic bacterial prostatitis.

Calculi in the prostate may be colonized by bacteria–UPEC is especially adept at this.

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8
Q

Describe the appearance and some possible causes of granulomatous prostatitis.

A

Histology reveals epithelioid histiocytes.

Causes: Infectious (TB/opportunistic mycoses), non-infectious (post-surgery/BCG)

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9
Q

BPH is a disease of the glands and stroma of the ____ zone. By age 80, __% of men will have developed it. It manifests chiefly as a result of _____, and so may be treated by _____.

Describe the clinical syndrome it causes.

A

Transitional zone, affecting 90% of men over 80, chiefly due to DHT, so treat with 5a-reductase inhibitors (eg Finasteride)

Causes bladder outlet obstruction: Frequency, incomplete emptying, nocturia, dysuria (LUTS - Lower urinary tract symptoms)

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10
Q

What is the function of PSA?

What is it for in the context of prostatic diseases?

Name 3 conditions which may elevate it.

A

It is a proteolytic enzyme: Increases sperm motility by liquefying semen.

It is elevated in a wide range of prostate conditions (note that it is therefore nonspecific)

Prostatitis, BPH, Prostatic carcinoma.

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11
Q

What is TURP?

What benefit may it confer?

A

Trans-urethral resection of prostate.

May relieve urinary obstruction due to BPH, and may reveal occult formation of pancreatic cancer.

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12
Q

What is the precursor to prostatic cancer?

What risk does it signify?

A

High-grade prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia (HGPIN).

In combination with elevated PSA, portends a 25-30% risk of cancer.

Note: Does not elevate PSA itself.

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13
Q

What is the appearance of BPH on histology?

Of HGPIN?

A

Nodules of both glandular and stromal tissue.

Large nucleoli.

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14
Q

Describe the epidemiology of prostate cancer: How abundant is it? How dangerous? Who is at risk?

A

Lecture says #1 cancer in incidence; actually Lung cancer is.

Lecture says #2 cancer in deaths; this is true for men.

Age is the only mentioned risk factor.

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15
Q

How do we screen for prostatic cancer?

Describe the scheduling of this screening

A

PSA blood tests and digital rectal exams.

Screen annually starting at age 50 (if family history positive or african-american, start at age 40)

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16
Q

Describe the grading system for prostate cancer.

A

The Gleason grading system:

Each cancer gets two grades, one for the most common and one for the least common patterns. Each score is 1-5 based on architecture only; scoring tends to start at 3 however. Add the scores together.

17
Q

Describe the histological appearance of the prostate as it progreses through Gleeson grades 3-5.

A

Grade 3: Small & separate glands, loss of the double-cell layer, and infiltrative patterning.

Grade 4: More gland fusion, prominent nucleoli.

Grade 5: Total loss of lumen spaces. Single cells.

18
Q

What is grade 1 prostatic adenocarcinoma?

Why is it “graded” as “3”?

A

Atypical adenomatous hyperplasia.

Patterns 1, 2, and 3 all have the same biologic potential for cancer. Apparently.

19
Q

Try to recall the subtle differences between each STAGE of prostate cancer:

T1a, T1b

T2a, T2b, T2c

T3a, T3b

T4

A

T1a (incidental TURP finding, <5% of tissue), T1b (>5% of tissue)

T2a (confined to half a lobe), T2b (one lobe), T2c (both lobes)

T3a (extraprostatic fat invasion), T3b (seminal vesicle involvement)

T4 (invaded nearby structures)

20
Q

Describe the pattern by which prostate carcinoma spreads.

What are some clinical consequences of this?

A

Spreads especially to seminal vesicles, but also external iliac nodes and lower axial skeleton (via Batson venous plexus)

Sample the external iliac nodes. Bony spread causes back/pelvic pain, elevated Alk-Phos, compression of spinal cord. Massive PSA increase?