Q3 Exam 2 Flashcards

(93 cards)

1
Q

lobes of the liver

A

left (lateral and medial), quadrate, right (medial and lateral), caudate (papillary and caudate process)

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2
Q

how much of the liver can you remove?

A

70%

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3
Q

when is U/S vs CT useful in liver diagnostics

A

US: focal or multifocal hepatic disease
CT: vascular anomalies and surgical planning

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4
Q

punch biopsy depth in liver

A

no more than 50% thickness of lobe

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5
Q

most common primary liver tumors in dogs vs cats

A

hepatocellular carcinoma, massive, left lobe
bile duct tumors (often more benign)

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6
Q

most common metastases in the liver

A

lymphosarcoma, carcinomas, sarcomas (like HGS)

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7
Q

why is the left lobes easiest to resect

A

pedunculated, no association with gall bladder or CVC

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8
Q

ideal hepatic surgical candidate

A

left, one lobe, less than 50% of liver mass, not diffuse or nodular

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9
Q

hepatic cysts

A

usually incidental, only treat if large enough to interfere with other organs, r/out abscess

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10
Q

cats extrahepatic biliary anatomy

A

common bile duct and pancreatic duct JOIN before entering duodenum

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11
Q

common biochemistry changes with hepatobiliary disease in dogs vs cats

A

dogs- cholestatic (ALP,GGT)
cats- any elevation in one of the 4 liver enzymes worrying

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12
Q

when to treat biliary sludge

A

secondary disease, more than grade 3, biliary sludge not gravity dependent, or at risk for a mucocele

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13
Q

most likely cause of gallbladder issues

A

hypomotility and hydrophobic bile acid overproduction

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14
Q

gallbladder mucocele in cats

A

not a thing

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15
Q

medical therapy for mild signs of gallbladder mucocele

A

ursodiol, SAMe, antibiotics, supportive care, low fat diet, search for endocrinopathy

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16
Q

cholecystitis dx

A

histo gold standard, usually assumptive on U/S and clinical signs, can do bile culture too!

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17
Q

cholecystitis tx

A

medical therapy for mild cases, still likely hospitalize (antibiotics, ursodiol, hepatoprotectants, low fat diet), medical and surgery for mod to severe cases

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18
Q

neutrophilic cholangitis

A

leading cause ascending bacterial infection (E coli, enterococcus, clostridium), will see fever often! make sure to feed cats!!! penicillin vs penicillin and fluoroquinolone

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19
Q

lymphocytic cholangitis

A

cats with episodic signs, immune mediated, liver biopsies (weird), need immune suppression and hepatoprotectants

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20
Q

hepatic lipidosis biochemical changes

A

increased ALP, hyperbilirubinemia, take to U/S!

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21
Q

ALT

A

hepatocellular injury

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22
Q

most sensitive hepatic function test

A

bile acids (not necessary if jaundiced), detects CH only 50%

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23
Q

breeds predisposed to chronic hepatitis

A

cocker spaniels, dobermans, dalmations, westies

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24
Q

infectious diseases causing hepatitis

A

lepto, leishmaniasis, histoplasmosis, protozoal

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25
copper-associated CH breeds and tx
westies, labs (+ dobies and dalmations), tx low Cu diets with protein supplement, D-penicillamine (chelator but expensive)
26
zone of liver most susceptible to injury
centrilobular zone 3, high CYP, low GSH and O2
27
quantitative Cu assessment in liver
atomic absorption spectroscopy
28
vacuolar hepatopathy
hepatocytes distended with cytosolic glycogen, "swiss cheese liver", scottish terriers, higher risk of cancer
29
parameters for blood transfusion in hemoabdomen
20% and not responsive to fluid, treat the patient, do not autotransfuse if neoplastic!!!!
30
common location of gastric necrosis with GDV
usually dorsal greater curvature, most serious if cardia
31
fluid analysis of uroabdomen
ratio creatinine fluid:periphery > 2:1 ratio K fluid:periphery >1.4:1
32
correct hyperkalemia
Ca gluconate if severe, need to follow with insulin and dextrose, maybe be able to dilute with fluids if mild
33
transfusion trigger for anesthesia
22% PCV
34
shock bolus for cat and dog
90 mL/lg dog and 60 mL/kg cat, 1/4 at a time
35
treat regurg during anesthesia
suction and flush protocol, promotility agents
36
4 drugs commonly used in emergency anesthesia
opioids, benzos, lidocaine, alfoxalone, *ketamine* (controversial)
37
CPP =
MAP - ICP
38
how can inhalants increase ICP
more than 1MAC of any inhalant
39
cushings reflex
increased ICP leading to bradycardia and severe hypertension
40
treatment for brain herniation
patient positioning, controlled ventilation, hypertonic saline and later mannitol, consider steroids
41
postop cognitive dysfunction
likely happen with older dogs, lidocaine and vitamin C may help??
42
opioid drug of choice for neurologic patients
methadone
43
safest induction drug for neuro patients
etomidate (myoclonus tho?)
44
FIV
cat bites, acute to asymptomatic to terminal/clinical, CD4+ long term affected, develop B cell lymphoma, serology detects ANTIBODIES
45
FIP
starts with FECV then mutates to affinity for monocytes/ macrophages, wet and dry form, gold standard is IHC on histopath from explore, not common lol, tx GS-441524 now conditionally FDA approved!!!
45
FeLV
just from saliva, abortive, regressive or infective, serology usually tests for ANTIGEN, T cell lymphoma very likely
46
papules vs pustules
smol solid elevation of skin, elevation of skin containing pus, BOTH primary lesions
46
rivaltas test
can only prove high protein effusion, effusion drop into water and acetic acid
47
what if I get a sterile pustule?
likely PF!!!
48
reasons for primary crusts
seborrhea, zinc responsive dermatitis, SND
49
zinc responsive dermatosis
husky and boston terriers, young puppies
50
superficial necrolytic dermatitis
old age, liver not producing things to create good skin in places that turn over often (paw pads and elbows)
51
5 layers of epidermis
basale, spinosum, lucidum , graulosum, corneum
52
4 allergy mimics
parasites, dermatophytosis, immune disease, neoplasia
53
atopy
most common allergic skin disease, a diagnosis of exclusion, treat by checking IDAT and allergy shots, frequent baths, good flea control, stop itchiness, no cure
54
CAFR
almost always to protein, non-seasonal pruritis, ridgeback, GSD, shar pei, dx with elimination diet trial
55
dermatophytosis tx
topical with antifungal product, maybe itraconazole or terbinafine, clean house
56
sebaceous adenitis
poodles, loss of curls or color change, oil soaks and baths + atopica
57
pemphigus foliaceus
acantholytic keratinocytes, pustules, start immune suppression (steroids to start), hard to treat
58
cutaneous lymphoma
T cell better (weird), exfoliative erythroderma and depigmentation, not great prognosis
59
pyoderma treatment
start with topical therapies, maybe move to oral antibiotics (but not fluoroquinolone)
60
hair growth phases
anagen, catagen, telogen, exogen
61
demodex tx
amitraz dips licensed, most treat with isoxazolines
62
vaccine induced alopecia
ischemic damage and vasculitis, rabies in small breeds, tx with pentoxifylline
63
dorsal thermal necrosis
bad sun burn, coag necrosis on histo
64
causes of paraneoplastic alopecia in dogs
nodular dermatofibrosis, feminization syndrome, SND, paraneoplastic pemphigus
65
causes of paraneoplastic alopecia in cats
paraneoplastic alopecia, thymoma associated
66
dermatomyositis
collies and shelties, asymptomatic atrophy of muscles months after skin lesions, double punch biopsy, pentoxifylline and immunosuppression
67
erythema multiforme
keratinocyte apoptosis and lymphocyte satellitosis
68
how does thyroid hormone act in the hair cycle
initiates anagen
69
calcinosis cutis
secondary to hyperadrenocorticism, will eventually turn very red, can help fix with slow administration of DMSO maybe
70
alopecia x
hair cycle arrest in plush coated breeds, diagnosis of exclusion, flax seed oil and melatonin, microneedling, neuter?
71
topical hormone replacement alopecia
feminization maybe, preputial linear dermatopathy
72
color dilution alopecia
abnormal melanin transfer and storage, trichogram, gently brush and bath
73
canine flank alopecia
unknown cause, bilateral, short day months, jelly fish follicle on histopath, flax seed and melatonin?
74
pattern baldness
pinna, ventrum, caudal thighs, miniaturization of follicles on biopsy, flax seed and melatonin
75
three parts to the tympanic membrane
pars flaccida (dorsal weird ridge), pars tensa (classic membrane), and stria mallearis
76
primary secretory otitis media
CKCS, bulging ear drums and deafness
77
what size ear cone?
4mm on EVERY PATIENT
78
which antibiotic to use if ruptured ear drum?
fluoroguinolone
79
three layers of the eye
fibrous outer layer (sclera and cornea), vascular middle layer (iris, ciliary body, and choroid), neural inner layer (retina and optic nerve)
80
jones eye test
evaluates nasolacriminal drainage patency, ~5min
81
seidel test
leakage of aqueous humor
82
meibomian gland
role in lipid tear film, in upper eyelid
83
third eyelid accessory tear gland
30-40% of tears
84
conjunctiva normal flora
mostly gram+ aerobes, gram- in few dogs, 65% cat eyes culture neg
85
where does tear film mucus come from?
conjunctiva goblet cells
86
entropion
spastic don't have to fix, some dogs grow out after 1 year, can do temporary tacking sutures
87
eyelid agenesis
lateral third of upper eyelid doesn't form, dumpster cats
88
eyelid neoplasia in dogs
most benign, majority from meibomian glands
89
eyelid neoplasia in cats
less common, mostly SCC (adenocarcinoma, PNS, and lymphoma also bad)
90
common causes of feline conjunctivitis
M felis, C felis, FHV-1
91
corneal reactions to disease (6)
edema, vascular, fibrosis, pigment, cellular infiltrate, accumulates substances