Quiz 2 Flashcards

(126 cards)

1
Q

Other names for fungal infections

A

mycosis, dermatophytosis, tinea

pg 71

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Fungal infections on non-hairy portions of the body

A

tinea corporis

pg 72

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Fungal infections on the scalp

A

tinea capitis

pg 72

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Fungal infections on the nail bed

A

tinea unguium

pg 72

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Fungal infections on the feet/toes

A

tinea pedis
athlete’s foot
pg 72

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Fungal infections on the beard follicle

A

tinea barbae

pg 72

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Fungal infections on the groin

A

tinea cruris
jock itch
pg 72

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the causative organism for Aspergillosis?

A

aspergillus fumigatus

pg 78

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What population is most at risk for aspergillosis?

A

immunocompromised

pg 78

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What causative agent for warts?

A

HPV infections

pg 80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What causative agent for low grade warts?

A

HPV-6 & HPV-11

pg 80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What causative agent for high grade warts?

A

HPV-16 & HPV-18

pg 80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Warts are most common in what population?

A

pediatrics

pg 80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

More common type of warts

A

verruca vulgaris

pg 83

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Less common type of warts

A

verruca plana

pg 83

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

“Proper” name for genital warts

A

condylomata acuminate

pg 84

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

90% of genital warts are caused by which causative organism(s)?

A

HPV-6 or HPV-11

pg 84

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Fairly rare autoimmune attack on epidermis causing painful blisters

A

pemphigus

pg 88

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Pemphigus is a type __ hypersensitivity

A

type II

pg 88

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

3 Blistering Disorders

A

1) pemphigus
2) bullous pemphigoid
3) dermatitis herpetiformis
pg 86

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Microscopic presentation of pemphigus

A

fishnet-like pattern of IgG

pg 88

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

2 types of pemphigus

A

1) pemphigus vulgaris
2) pemphigus foliaceus
pg 89

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Most common type of pemphigus

A

pemphigus vulgaris

pg 90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Where are the blisters located in pemphigus vulgaris?

A

suprabasil

pg 90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Where are the blisters located in pemphigus vulgaris?
subcorneal | pg 92
26
Which is more severe: pemphigus vulgaris or pemphigus foliaceus?
pemphigus vulgaris | pg 90/92
27
Autoimmune attack causing subepidermal blisters
bullous pemphigoid | pg 95
28
Population commonly affected by bullous pemphigoid
older adults or pregnant women | pg 95
29
Microscopic presentation of bullous pemphigoid
linear pattern of IgG | pg 96
30
Autoimmune attack on skin associated with celiac disease
dermatitis herpetiformis | pg 98
31
% of patients with celiac disease who have dermatitis herpetiformis
10% 1:10 | pg 98
32
Common location of dermatitis herpetiformis
torso and gluteal region | pg 99
33
Microscopic presentation of dermatitis herpetiformis
IgA on dermal papillae | pg 101
34
Benign dark "coin-like" skin lesion
seborrheic keratosis | pg 103
35
Genetic mutation associated with seborrheic keratosis
FGFR3 mutation | pg 103
36
Explosive onset of seborrheic keratosis
leser-trelat sign | pg 104
37
Leser-trelat sign is indicative of was underlying condition
cancer; paraneoplastic syndrome | pg 104
38
Mild dermatitis causing scaly, flaky, and itchy patches of red skin
seborrheic dermatitis | pg 106
39
Benign tumor of sebaceous glands
sebaceous adenoma | pg 107
40
Common location of sebaceous adenoma
head and neck | pg 107
41
Dysplastic skin lesion causes by chronic sun-exposure
actinic keratosis | pg 110
42
Describe the appearance of actinic keratosis
small, tan/brown (pinkish) lesions, "sandpaper-like" texture | pg 110
43
Conical projections of keratin
cutaneous horns | pg 115
44
Purple macules resulting from cumulative UV damage
senile purpura | pg 116
45
Most common location of senile purpura
``` extensor surfaces (forearm, hands) pg 116 ```
46
Clinical term for "liver spots"
solar lentigo | pg 118
47
Brown macules from hyperplasia of melanocytes as a result prolonged UV exposure
solar lentigo | pg 119
48
Results from cumulative UVA and UVB exposure which active MMPs
dermatoheliosis | pg 121
49
2nd most common skin cancer
squamous cell carcinoma | pg 127
50
Common population(s) affected by squamous cell carcinoma
older adults and individual with xeroderma pigmentosum | pg 127
51
% of squamous cell carcinoma that metastasize
5% | pg 128
52
Most common skin cancer
basal cell carcinoma | pg 130
53
Common population affected by basal cell carcinoma
older adults | pg 130
54
Benign tumor of melanocytes usually acquired in childhood
melanocytic nevus | pg 135
55
2 types of melanocytic nevus
1) common nevus 2) dysplastic nevus pg 135
56
Type of melanocytic nevus uniform in color with well-defined boarders
common nevus | pg 136
57
Type of melanocytic nevus containing dysplasia with irregular boarders
dysplastic nevus | pg 138
58
Individuals with >10 dysplastic nevi have and increased risk of what?
melanoma | pg 139
59
3rd most common skin cancer
melanoma | pg 142
60
Early stage of melanoma growth
``` radial growth (horizontal) pg 143 ```
61
Late stage of melanoma growth
vertical growth | pg 143
62
Common melanoma sights of metastasis
liver, lungs, CNS, heart | pg 143
63
Characteristics of melanoma
"striking variation"black, brown, red, dark blue, grey irregular boarders aggressiveness pg 145
64
ABCDE Rule
``` Asymmetry Border Color Diameter Evolving/elevation pg 148 ```
65
Flesh-colored, benign tumor, fibroepithelial polyp
``` skin tag (acrochordon) pg 153 ```
66
Common locations of skin tags
creases; neck, truck, face, axilla, anogenital region, skin fold near breast, between digits pg 153
67
Disease cause by coxsackievirus A infection
Hand-Foot-and-Mouth Disease | pg 155
68
Clinical term for canker sore
aphthous ulcer | pg 4
69
Shallow and painful ulceration found in the oral mucosa and/or pharynx
canker sore | pg 4
70
Cold sores are caused by what organism?
herpes simplex virus | pg 6
71
What percent of herpes simplex viruses turn into acute herpetic gingivostomatitis?
10-20% | pg 6
72
What is the most common cause of orofacial herpes?
herpes simplex 1 | pg 9
73
What is the most common cause of genital/anal herpes?
herpes simplex 2 | pg 9
74
Features of herpes simplex
grouping of small vesicles, itching, burning, tingling | pg 9
75
Name for the spread of herpes to the brain
herpesviral encephalitis | pg 12
76
Clinical name for thrush
oral candidiasis | pg 13
77
Causative organism of oral candidiasis
candida albicans | pg 13
78
Gray/white pseudomembranes within the mouth that may be scraped off
oral candidiasis | pg 13
79
Oral candidiasis is present in what percent of newborns?
~40% | pg 14
80
Nodular mass following chronic irritation most commonly along the bite line
fibroma | pg 15
81
Red/purple hemangioma on gingiva
pyogenic granuloma | pg 15
82
Population(s) commonly affected by pyogenic granuloma
pregnant women and children | pg 15
83
Epithelial hyperplasia and keratosis or dysplasia presenting as a raised white patch that cannot be scraped off
leukoplakia | pg 17
84
Risk factors for leukoplakia
tobacco, alcohol, candidiasis, male, age 40-70yrs | pg 17
85
25% of leukoplakia transition into which type of cancer?
squamous cell carcinoma | pg 20
86
Red, velvety oral lesion with irregular borders
erythroplakia | pg 21
87
What percent of erythroplakia transition into squamous cell carcinoma?
>50% | pg 22
88
Develops from sites of dysplasia with common TP53 mutations
oral cancer | pg 24
89
Squamous cell carcinoma mets through ____ (blood or lymph)
lymph | pg 26
90
Common locations of squamous cell carcinoma
ventral inferior tongue, floor of mouth, lower lip, soft palate, gingiva pg 25
91
Which HPV is associated with oral squamous cell carcinoma?
HPV 16 | pg 26
92
Dry mouth due to decrease saliva production
xerostomia | pg 30
93
Autoimmune attack of salivary and lacrimal glands
Sjogren Syndrome | pg 30
94
Inflammation and enlargement of the salivary glands
sialadenitis | pg 31
95
Most common viral cause of sialadenitis
mumps | pg 31
96
Most common bacterial cause of saladenitis
staph. aureus | pg 31
97
Ductal obstruction causing saliva to collect within tissue creating an inflamed cyst
mucocele | pg 31
98
Tumors in smaller salivary glands are ___(more or less) common, but are ____(more or less) likely cancerous
less, more | pg 33
99
Salivary gland neoplasms most commonly affect what population?
elderly | pg 34
100
Percent of parotid gland neoplasms
65-80% | pg 34
101
Percent of malignant parotid gland neoplasms
15-30% | pg 34
102
Percent of submandibular gland neoplasms
10% | pg 34
103
Percent of malignant submandibular gland neoplasms
40% | pg 34
104
Percent of sublingual and minor salivary gland neoplasms
10-25% | pg 34
105
Percent of malignant sublingual and minor salivary gland neoplasms
50-90% | pg 34
106
Benign majority of all parotid tumors
Pleomorphic adenoma | pg 35
107
Malignant parotid tumor
carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma | pg 35
108
Lower pharyngeal outpouching superior to the UES developing from increase pharyngeal pressure
Zenker's Diverticulum | pg 37
109
The esophagus lies ___(anterior or posterior) to the trachea
posterior | pg 38
110
4 esophageal lesions
1) mechanical 2) functional 3) ectopia 4) esophageal varices pg 41
111
Functional esophageal obstruction
achalasia | pg 43
112
Achalasia triad
1) incomplete LES relaxation 2) increase LES tone 3) esophageal aperistalsis pg 43
113
Symptoms of achalasia
dysphagia, regurgitation, chest pain | pg 43
114
Test for achalasia
barium swallow test | pg 45
115
What is the "sign" looked for in the barium swallow test to confirm achalasia?
bird-beak sign | pg 45
116
Cause of primary achalasia
loss of inhibitory innervation to the LES | pg 46
117
Cause of secondary achalasia
co-morbidity impairs LES function (Chagas, irradiation, diabetes, polio) pg 46
118
Dilated and tortuous vessels in the distal esophagus as a result of portal venous congestion
esophageal varices | pg 48
119
Causes of esophageal varices
cirrhosis from alcoholic liver disease or hepatic schistosomiasis pg 48
120
Those with esophageal varices are at extreme risk of ____
hemorrhage | pg 49
121
Inflammation of the esophageal mucosa
esophagitis | pg 50
122
Most common cause of esophagitis
reflux esophagitis | pg 50
123
Esophagitis associated with dysphagia, heartburn, "sour brash"
GERD | pg 51
124
Self limiting form of esophagitis
chemical | pg 53
125
Type of esophagitis commonly following an ulcer
infectious | pg 53
126
Longitudinal esophageal tear from forceful coughing or vomiting
Mallory-Weiss Tear | pg 54