Quiz 7 practice qs Flashcards

(57 cards)

1
Q

Austin-Flint murmur is associated with what?
a) AS
b) MS
c) AR
d) MR

A

c) AR

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2
Q

When are Austin-Flint murmurs heard?
a) Mid diastolic
b) End diastolic
c) Mid systolic
d) End systolic

A

a) Mid diastolic

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3
Q

Which of the following murmurs increase with squatting? Select all that apply
a) AS
b) MS
c) AR
d) MR
e) MVP
f) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

b) MS
c) AR
d) MR

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4
Q

Which of the following are preload dependent? Select all that apply
a) AS
b) MS
c) AR
d) MR
e) MVP

A

a) AS
b) MS
e) MVP

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5
Q

Which of the following is described as a “water hammer pulse”?
a) Quincke pulse
b) De Musset sign
c) Mueller sign
d) Corrigan pulse
e) Austin flint murmur

A

d) Corrigan pulse

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6
Q

Which is described as rhythmic bobbing of the head in sync with the heartbeat?
a) Quincke pulse
b) De Musset sign
c) Mueller sign
d) Corrigan pulse
e) Austin flint murmur

A

b) De Musset sign

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7
Q

Which is heard best at Erb’s point?
a) AS
b) MS
c) AR
d) MR
e) MVP

A

c) AR

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8
Q

_____ and _____ are systolic murmurs; ____ and ____ are diastolic murmurs
a) AS and MR; AR and MS
b) AR and MS; AS and MR
c) AS and AR; MR and MS
d) MR and MS; AR and AS

A

a) AS and MR; AR and MS

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9
Q

T/F: Management of HTN can reduce afterload

A

True

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10
Q

Which of the following is strep pharyngitis most strongly associated with?
a) AS
b) MS
c) AR
d) MR

A

b) MS

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11
Q

Which of the following are associated with AFIB due to enlarged left atria? Select two
a) AS
b) MS
c) AR
d) MR

A

b) MS
d) MR

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12
Q

Which is more associated with rales due to pulmonary congestion?
a) AS
b) MS
c) AR
d) MR

A

b) MS

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13
Q

For which of the following is intervention recommended before symptom onset?
a) MVP
b) AS
c) MS
d) AR
e) MR

A

c) MS

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14
Q

MS has a _____ pitched murmur, and AR has a _______ pitched murmur.

A

Low; high

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15
Q

Which of the following was Scarlet fever mentioned to be associated with?
a) AS
b) MS
c) AR
d) MR

A

d) MR

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16
Q

Which of the following lasts longer, but requires lifelong anticoagulation?
a) Mechanical valves
b) Bioprosthetic valves

A

a) Mechanical valves

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17
Q

Which are better tolerated in pregnancy, regurgitant lesions or stenotic lesions?

A

Regurgitant

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18
Q

What is the mnemonic for the life threatening causes of ACS?

A

DEATH

Dissection of Aortic Aneurysm
Emboli - PE
ACS
Tension Pneumothorax
Hole in GI tract (Esophageal rupture + Perf PUD)

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19
Q

T/F: Unstable angina is an NSTE ACS, but does NOT have elevated troponins

A

True

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20
Q

A patient has a father who was diagnosed with unstable angina at the age of 60. Is this a risk factor for your patient?

A

No (male = <55)

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21
Q

Where do the coronary arteries go through?
a) Subendocardium
b) Endocardium
c) Myocardium
d) Epicardium

A

d) Epicardium

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22
Q

What is the most common symptom of ACS for both men and women?

A

Chest pain

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23
Q

T/F: Pain that gets worse with exertion and better with rest is characteristic of ACS

24
Q

What are the clinical decision tools to estimate cardiac risk and mortality in ER or inpatients? Select two
a) Marburg Heart score
b) HEART score
c) Thrombolysis in MI risk score

A

b) HEART score
c) Thrombolysis in MI risk score

25
A patient has a HEART score of 3. What is their risk of a major adverse cardiac event within the next 6 weeks? a) Low (1.7%) b) Intermediate (17%) c) High (50%)
a) Low (1.7%)
26
Which of the following is generally a consequence of coronary artery disease (CAD)? a) Pericarditis b) Myocarditis c) Ischemia d) Aortic dissection
c) Ischemia
27
List 3 things that are evidence of ischemia on an EKG
1) Hyperacute T waves (first few minutes) 2) ST segment & T wave changes 3) Q wave
28
A patient has elevated cardiac enzymes and ischemic symptoms. Is this enough to diagnose an MI?
Yes
29
Chronic and Acute renal disease may cause what according to the powerpoint? a) Abnormal EKG b) Elevated cardiac enzymes c) Ischemic symptoms d) Coronary thrombus on angiography
b) Elevated cardiac enzymes
30
**A patient presented to the ER with a STEMI MI 100 minutes ago. What do you do?** a) PCI angioplasty only, then DAPT b) Fibrinolytics, then PCI, then DAPT c) PCI angioplasty and DES placement, then DAPT d) Fibrinolytics, then PCI and DES, then DAPT
c) PCI angioplasty and DES placement, then DAPT (don’t need fibrinolytics if within 120 minutes)
31
How long should DAPT typically be continued after MI?
1 year
32
Patients with ACS + AFIB have an increased risk of ____________
bleeding
33
Which of the following medications for DESs should not be used if h/o CVA or increased bleed risk? a) Clopidogrel (Plavix) 75 mg qd b) Ticagrelor (Ticlid) 90 mg bid c) Prasugrel 10 mg qd d) ASA 81 mg daily
c) Prasugrel 10 mg qd
34
A patient has a DAPT score of 2. Do you give prolonged DAPT?
Yes (≥2 = give DAPT)
35
Which of the following should all ACS patients receive? Select all that apply a) High intensity statin therapy b) Cardioprotective B-blockers c) ACEi d) SGLT-2 inhibitors e) GLP-1 agonist f) SL NTG PRN
a) High intensity statin therapy b) Cardioprotective B-blockers d) SGLT-2 inhibitors f) SL NTG PRN (most patients get ACEis, but not all)
36
Celecoxib and meloxicam are examples of what group of meds?
Cox 1 inhibitors
37
Cox-2i and Cox-1i (traditional NSAID) received boxed warnings on their labels regarding ____________ risks
cardiovascular
38
When do T waves invert after the onset of an MI? a) At onset b) A few minutes to hours c) A few hours to days d) A few days to weeks
b) A few minutes to hours
39
T wave inversion from ischemia is typically ____________. a) Symmetric b) Asymmetric
a) Symmetric
40
T/F: J-point elevation has pathologic significance
False
41
STE bowed upward and merge imperceptible with the T wave is indicative of what? a) J-point elevation b) MI c) Neither of the above
b) MI
42
T/F: J-point elevation will not change on serial ECGs
True
43
Brugada syndrome is a genetic condition caused by dysfunctional cardiac ____ channels a) K+ b) Cl- c) Na+ d) H2O
c) Na+
44
With acute MI, which of the following usually persists for life? a) STE elevation b) Reciprocal changes c) T wave inversion d) New Q waves
d) New Q waves
45
What type of MI involves the RCA or descending branch and is seen in leads II, III, & aVF? a) Anterior b) Lateral c) Posterior d) Inferior
d) Inferior
46
de Winter’s T waves and Wellens’ waves may indicate the occlusion of the _________ branch of the LCA a) Anterior septal b) Posterior septal c) Lateral d) Inferior
a) Anterior septal
47
What type of MI is most often misdiagnosed? a) Anterior b) Lateral c) Posterior d) Inferior
c) Posterior
48
With which of the following types of MI may you see RAD? a) Anterior b) Lateral c) Posterior d) Inferior
c) Posterior
49
Which has a higher risk of for further infarction and mortality? *(don’t confuse with initial risk)* a) STEMIs b) NSTEMIs
b) NSTEMIs
50
Takotsubo cardiomyopathy occurs most often in _______________, under extreme psychological or emotional stress? a) Men 18-35 b) Women 18-25 c) Men >55 y/o d) Postmenopausal women
d) Postmenopausal women
51
"Apical ballooning syndrome” was mentioned to potentially occur with what?
Takotsubo cardiomyopathy
52
Takotsubo cardiomyopathy and angina may both involve T wave inversion, but Takotsubo cardiomyopathy involves ST __________ and angina involves ST __________ (excluding Prinzmetal angina)
elevation; depression
53
Inferior MI: What does it involve? What leads is it seen in?
RCA or descending branch. Leads: II, III, aVF
54
Anterior MI: What does it involve? What leads is it seen in?
Anterior IV branch (LAD) of LCA. Leads: V1-6
55
Lateral MI: What does it involve? What leads is it seen in?
Left circumflex br. of LCA. Leads: I, aVL, V5-6
56
Posterior MI: What does it involve? What leads is it seen in?
1) RCA; usually accompany inferior MI or less frequently lateral MI. 2) Reciprocal changes in the anterior leads V1-3 (ST depression, Tall R wave)
57
List the following groups of leads: 1) Anterior 2) Left lateral 3) Inferior 4) Right ventricular
1) V2, V3, V4 2) I, aVL, V5, V6 3) II, III, aVF 4) aVR, V1