Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BMS 185 Lecture > Quizzes 1-6 > Flashcards

Quizzes 1-6 Flashcards

1
Q

The presence of blood group A is confirmed by detecting with anti-A the presence of which terminal sugar molecule?

A

N-acetyl-D-galactosamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The mating of parents (ew) of which two ABO phenotypes can potentially produce offspring with ALL of the common four blood groups?

A

A + B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which ABH substances would you expect to find in the saliva of a group B secretor?

A

H + B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A blood donor has the genotype hh, AB. What is his apparent red cell phenotype during routine forward and reverse grouping?

A

O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following genes codes for secretor status

A

Se

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The labels came off your reagent bottles. What color is the anti-B reagent?

A

yellow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Most blood group systems are inherited as

A

codominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the ABO group of the individual with the following serologic reactions:
Anti-A = 0, Anti-B= 0,
A1 cells = 4+, B cells = 4+

A

O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When a Ce haplotype is in trans to a D antigen encoding haplotype, which may occur

A

weak D phenotype with 1+ agglutination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A new blood bank specimen is required 24-48 hours following a blood transfusion because

A

secondary immune response against donor antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following is the most common subgroup of blood group A?

A

A1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which is true regarding the anti-A1 antibody in an A2 individual?

A

Group O blood should be transfused if the anti-A1 reacts at 37°C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The plant lectin extracted from Dolichos biflorus will agglutinate

A

A1 cells but not A2 cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following blood groups possesses the most H antigen?

A

Group O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

All A subgroups always have which blood group circulating antibody

A

Anti-B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Identify the strength of the agglutination reaction that provides the best hint as to the type of ABO discrepancy

A

weakest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which subgroup of blood group A shows mixed field agglutination with anti-A reagents?

A

A3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the ABO group of the individual with the following serologic reactions: Anti-A = +4, Anti-B= +4, A 1 cells = 0, B cells = 0, anti-D = 4+

A

AB positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The observation of hemolyzed serum or plasma in a blood bank specimen is reason for

A

Rejecting the specimen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The coin-like stacking of RBCs that may cause an ABO discrepancy is called

A

Rouleaux formation, Group III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Rz phenotype is

A

DCE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

r” phenotype is

A

cE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Weak D antigens

A

usually require an IAT phase for detection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which is true of partial D?

A

partial D individuals may not be detected until develop the anti-D antibody

25
Q

A serologic characteristic of the Del type of weak D antigen is

A

weak or undetectable agglutination reactions at IS (immediate spin)

26
Q

Rh system antibodies

A

show dosage

27
Q

Individuals of the Rh null phenotype produce which types of red cells?

A

stomatocytes

28
Q

Which of the following constitutes the f antigen?

A

c & e on the same chromosome

29
Q

What is the ABO group and Rh type of the individual with the following serologic reactions?

Anti-A = 0 Anti-B = 0 A cells = 4+ B cells = 4+ anti-D = 1+

A

O weak D

30
Q

Identify the possible cause(s) for false positive reactions with Rh antibodies

A

Fibrin interference

31
Q

Which of the following antigens are destroyed by ficin (and papain)?

A

Duffy

32
Q

A common cause of delayed type hemolytic transfusion reactions are

A

anti-Jka and anti-Jkb

33
Q

McLeod phenotype

A

presence of reticulocytes and hyperbilirubunemia

34
Q

Which antigen is the second most antigenic after the D antigen

A

Kell

35
Q

What is the ABO group and Rh type of an individual with the following serologic reactions: Anti-A = +4, Anti-B= 0, A 1 cells = 0, B cells = 4+, anti-D = 0

A

A negative

36
Q

Kidd blood group system

A

antibodies usually bind complement

37
Q

What is the next step if a patient with anti-M reacts at 37°C is crossmatch compatible at 37°C and negative at the anti-human globulin (AHG) phase

A

provide donor RBCs without phenotyping for the M antigen

38
Q

Identify the high frequency (prevalence) antigen

A

Cellano

39
Q

Identify the blood group system that has the highest percentage of antigen negative RBC units

A

Kell

40
Q

Identify the characteristic associated with the Duffy antigen system

A

antibodies against Duffy antigens react at the AHG phase

41
Q

1 What is the predominant major cause of an ABO mistransfusion?

A

clerical error in identifying patient by the phlebotomist when drawing the T&S

42
Q

How should a patient be identified when drawing lab samples, processing lab samples, transfusing?

A

By double or preferably triple unique identifiers

43
Q

What is the maximum age a T&S specimen for Blood Bank can be when a patient has been transfused or pregnant in the last 3 months?

A

48 - 72 hours

44
Q

Which of the following tests are not required to be performed on all donor blood?

A

CMV

45
Q

What is the minimum time after transfusion must a T&S and a segment of donor blood be retained?

A

7 days

46
Q

What confirmatory testing must be performed on donor blood units by the blood bank transfusing the patient?

A

front type and Rh D if the unit is Rh negative

47
Q

When may an Immediate Spin Crossmatch be performed?

A

Correct When the antibody screen is negative and there is no history of alloantibodies

48
Q

The criteria for an incompatible cross-match or positive IAT is/are:

A

Agglutination and/or hemolysis

49
Q

AHG is used to identify:

A

RBCs sensitized with IgG alloantibodies after 37C incubation

50
Q

What does the IAT and cross-match have in common

A

Both test recipient serum or plasma that may have alloantibodies

51
Q

What is/are the criteria for a positive cross-match therefore rejecting the donor RBC unit

A

Hemolysis and/or agglutination

52
Q

Screening cells are all group O so as not to have interference by

A

anti-A or anti-B antibodies

53
Q

Using a three cell screen, you observe that the reactions are 3+, 0, 1+ at Coombs respectively. This suggests the presence of:

A

A dosage effect

54
Q

Identify the reagent that can act as agglutination potentiator, can cause non-specific agglutination, should not do a 37C reading and finish with AHG macroscopically

A

PEG

55
Q

A key characteristic of a positive reaction (agglutination) with the gel card system is:

A

IgG in the gel traps sensitized RBC so they remain at the top of the gel

56
Q

Antibody identification using a panel (of donor RBCs) requires as the first step:

A

Rule out all reagent RBCs that give negative reactions with homozygous antigen phenotype in all phases of testing

57
Q

You ran out of check cells. What is your next step:

A

Sensitize Rh positive RBCs with reagent anti-D

58
Q

Does the strength of agglutination with AHG signify clinical significance?

A

No

BMS 185 Lecture (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions