Quizzes 7-11

Question 1

Phase 3 of an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction is characterized by

Answer 1

bradykinin and tissue factor contribute to systemic vascular collapse & DIC

Question 2

the reason for a mixed-field agglutination at Coombs IAT is

Answer 2

Recipient antibody(ies) are bound to donor RBC

Question 3

If [antibody] decreases below detectable levels in a previously transfused recipient who is then transfused again, which of the following may occur

Answer 3

Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction

Question 4

An allergic transfusion reaction is caused by

Answer 4

Histamine release from mast cells that have been sensitized by IgE

Question 5

Identify the lab result(s) present in TACO (transfusion-associated circulatory overload):

Answer 5

Increased BNP (brain natriuretic peptide)

Question 6

Non-febrile hemolytic transfusion reactions are most likely caused by donor

Answer 6

WBCs

Question 7

What is the ABO group and Rh type of an individual with the following serologic reactions?

Anti-A = 4+
Anti-B = 4+
A1 cells = 0
B cells = 0
anti-D = 0

Answer 7

AB negative

Question 8

The most likely cause of sepsis in a transfused patient is

Answer 8

bacterial contamination of the pRBC unit

Question 9

A positive DAT with post-transfusion hemolysis in serum or plasma from a febrile patient suggests the diagnosis of

Answer 9

acute/delayed immune hemolytic reaction

Question 10

Prevention of post-transfusion purpura can be achieved by

Answer 10

Using washed RBCs and antigen-negative platelets

Question 11

Relative to other patient demographics, impaired cell-mediated immunity patients are at the highest risk for

Answer 11

TAGVHD (Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease)

Question 12

Gamma irradiation of cellular products is used to help prevent:

Answer 12

TAGVHD

Question 13

Which of the following can be used to prevent septic transfusion reactions:

Answer 13

Inspection of the pRBC units for discoloration, hemolysis, clots of the blood in the bag

Question 14

Bacterial contamination of pRBCS can always be detected by QC/QA methods:

Answer 14

False

Question 15

The most common gram negative pathogen causing septic transfusion reactions is:

Answer 15

Escherichia coli

Question 16

The most common gram positive pathogen causing septic transfusion reactions is:

Answer 16

Coagulase-negative Staphylococci

Question 17

Destruction of fetal and neonatal RBCs are by antibodies produced by the

Answer 17

Mother

Question 18

Antibodies are directed against antigens on fetal and newborn RBCs inherited from the Fetus

Answer 18

Father

Question 19

Identify the cell type that would not be observed in the peripheral blood of a healthy adult but may appear in erythroblastosis fetalis

Answer 19

Nucleated RBCs

Question 20

Identify the parameter that indicates that you have fetal blood and not maternal blood from an umbilical vein specimen:

Answer 20

High MCV means you have fetal blood

Question 21

The method of the Rosette Test (fetal-screen) for fetal-maternal hemorrhage involves

Answer 21

Counting rosettes formed by indicator RBCs that have attached to anti-D on maternal cells

Question 22

Identify the test that quantifies the adequate amount of RhoGAM to be given

Answer 22

Kleihauer-Betke Test

Question 23

What is the ABO group and Rh type of an individual with the following serologic reactions?
Anti-A = 4+
anti-B = 0
A cells = 0
B cells = 4+
anti-D = 3+

Answer 23

A positive

Question 24

Identify the characteristics of Gel Card and solid phase methodologies as related to AIHA autoantibodies:

Answer 24

enhance the sensitivity of detection of autoantibody coated RBCs especially with IgG

Question 25

Increased LDH and increased unconjugated bilirubin is measured in:

Answer 25

uncompensated anemia caused by an autoantibody

Question 26

Haptoglobin is markedly decreased in:

Answer 26

uncompensated anemia caused by an autoantibody

Question 27

Cold autoantibodies can be seen to cause which of the following observed in the correct area of a Wright-Giemsa stained peripheral smear:

Answer 27

RBC agglutination

Question 28

The Doneth-Landsteiner test is used to test for

Answer 28

PCH (paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria)

Question 29

Panagglutination can be distinguished from alloantibodies by

Answer 29

Panagglutination will show agglutination 3+ - 4+ in all panel cells

Question 30

Spherocytes may be observed in:

Answer 30

Warm AIHA (Autoimmune hemolytic anemia)

Question 31

Which of the following will distinguish panagglutination from an alloantibody against a high frequency (prevalence) antigen using AHG

Answer 31

Panagglutination shows 3+ - 4+ with all panel cells including autocontrol

Question 32

Identify the correct characteristic(s) of stored packed RBCs:

Answer 32

Stored 1-6 C with CPDA-1, shelf-life is 35 days

Question 33

The hematocrit of packed RBCS stored with CPD or CPDA-1 is:

Answer 33

65-85%

Question 34

Reducing the risk of the occurrence of febrile non-hemolytic reactions is to transfuse:

Answer 34

Leukoreduced packed RBCs

Question 35

Reducing the risk of the repeated allergic reactions is to transfuse:

Answer 35

Washed packed RBCs

Question 36

Storage requirements for thawed FFP are:

Answer 36

1-6 C for 24 hours

Question 37

Identify the product that is used to replace decreased fibrinogen, FVIII, vWF, FXIII, and fibronectin:

Answer 37

Cryoprecipitate

Question 38

Cryoprecipitate is primarily transfused for

Answer 38

Fibrinogen replacement