quizzes etc Flashcards
1
Q
what is the predominant glucocorticoid in avian species
A
corticosterone
2
Q
you have performed a low dose dexamethasone supression test in dogs with suspected hyperadrenocorticism. the results were:
0hrs: 195
4 hrs: 75
8hrs: 120.
what is the appropriate interpretation
A
could be pituitary dependent hyperadrenocorticism
3
Q
you have performed a low dose dexamethasone supression test in dogs with suspected hyperadrenocorticism. the results were:
0hrs: 120
4hrs: 35
8hrs: 27
A
normal, hyperadrenocorticism excluded
4
Q
mammalian and avian species who maintain their body temp within a narrow limit can be described as:
A
endotherm/homeotherm
5
Q
what hormone is an anorexigenic peptide hormone secreted fromadipose tissue
A
leptin
6
Q
what blood glucose levels would you expect to see in a compensated insulin resistance
A
normoglycemia
7
Q
what cell is responsible for modifying the concentration and location of melanin in reptiles and lizards
A
melanophor
8
Q
what bone is visible through the tympanic membrane
A
malleus
9
Q
what is the histological term to describe a pathological increase in epidermis
A
acanthosis
10
Q
which enzymatic activity does the tyrosine kinase receptors catalyze
A
phosphorylation
11
Q
what is your first choice diagnotic test for hyperthyroidism
A
Total T4
12
Q
in dogs which type of diabetes mellitus is most prevalent
A
type 1
13
Q
_________ is produced under the influence of growth hormone in the _____
A
IGF-1
liver
14
Q
for a hematology test which anticoagulent is usually used
A
EDTA
15
Q
what is the dominant hormone(s) responsible for increasing blood calcium
A
PTH and calcitriol
16
Q
why does hypocalemia as a clinical or subclinical condition occur in dairy cattle
A
the regulatory mechanism is slow to respond
17
Q
What are the sensitive and insensitive structures called that suspend the pedal bone within the hoof capsule?
A
lamellae
18
Q
Which bone is visible through the tympanic membrane?
A
malleus
19
Q
name structure at A
A
follicular (or dermal) papilla)
20
Q
What is a feature of atrophic dermatosis?
A
thinned epidermis
21
Q
A type I hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by which immunoglobulin?
A
IgE
22
Q
When setting up a
microscope for bright-field
work, Koehler illumination:
A
gives even unblemished background illumination
23
Q
Which skin cells are embryologically derived from the neural tube?
A
melanocytes
24
Q
What is the technical term to describe a pathological increase in depth of the
epidermis?
A
acanthosis
25
What is the technical term to describe thickening and hardening of the skin
characterised by exaggeration of the superficial skin markings?
lichenification
26
Which cytokine is specifically targeted by a therapeutic agent licensed for
allergic pruritus?
IL-31
27
In which stage of the hair cycle is this hair? (Image)
telogen
28
What would be the most appropriate sample to take if you wish to
demonstrate Malassezia organisms on the interdigital skin of a dog?
a stained acetate tape strip
29
Which is the lowest power microscope objective that would be routinely used
to detect Sarcoptes mange mite?
X4
30
Which microscope objective would you select to detect staphylococcal
bacteria?
X 100 (oil)
31
Which bacterium is most commonly associated with skin infections of dogs?
staphylococcus pseudointermedius
32
When preparing a trichogram, how will you process the hair after plucking
with haemostats?
mount in liquid paraffin but do not stain
33
In ringworm diagnostics what is the general name for this elongated oval
structure? (Image)
macrocondidia
34
In the equine foot, what alternative name is given to the dermis?
Corium
35
When taking a history for a skin case, what facts should be established
about the flea treatment regimen?
- product used
- frequency used
- Tx od in contacts
- Tx of environment
36
Name the four regions of the hair follicle A-D indicated in the image
A: follicular orifice (opening at the surface)
B: Isthmus (The isthmus – where the sebaceous gland attaches divides the hair
between infundibulum & inferior portion)
C: infundibulum
D: Inferior portion
37
From the list of hypersensitivity reactions and combinations, select the
most appropriate for the situations below:
- atopic dermatitis
- cutaneous vasculitis and glomerulonephritis
- pemphigus foliaceus
- intradermal allergen test
- TB testing in cattle
- Atopic dermatitis (Type IV and Type 1 hypersensitivities)
- Cutaneous vasculitis and glomerulonephritis (Type III)
- Pemphigus foliaceus (Type II)
- Intradermal allergen test (Type I hypersensitivity)
- TB testing in cattle (Type IV Hypersensitivity)
38
should you fine macrophages, neutrophils and lymphocytes in a normal epidermis
no
39
pars flaccida
40
name lesion
crust
41
In terms of their lifecycles what distinguishes lice from fleas and flies?
flies undergo full metamorphosis (holometabola)
42
What genus of sucking louse contains species which parasitise pigs, horses
and cattle?
haematopinus
43
How can you identify different species of fleas?
ctenidia and head shape
44
The genus Culicoides is otherwise known as..
the biting midge
45
When doing the open mouthed rostral caudal view of the tympanic bullae
for radiography it is important to remove the……………………………………….. just before
exposure to avoid an artefact.
endotrachial tube
46
In autumn, longitudinal growth of antlers stops and
…………………………………… is shed, leaving mineralised tissue on the surface
velvet
47
I have six legs, no wings and like sheep. What am I?
a sheep ked
48
name infections spread by fleas
- Myxomatosis
- tapeworm (Dipylidium)
- FIA
- Bartonella
- Yersinia
49
This drain works by ……… and …………… (IMAGE)
capillary action and gravity
50
A 10kg dog needs a drip to deliver drug X (at 1mg/ml concentration) in
the period before surgery. The dose rate is 5mg/kg/hr. What is the drip rate? (i.e. amount of fluid to be delivered within the period of one hour)
50ml/hr
51
What action would you take if you saw the following organisms on cytology
taken from the ear of a dog with otitis externa? Why? (Diff Quick x 1000) (IMAGE)
Send sample of exudate for bacterial culture and antibiotic susceptibility/sensitivity testing in case is Pseudomonas (potential multi-resistant bacterium that should not be treated empirically)
If students really can’t see these bacteria, tell them they are rods.
Give 1 mark for swabs/C+S testing, extra mark if mention possibility of
Pseudomonas
52
In the image, several lesion types are present. Provide 2 appropriate
lesion terms (IMAGE)
- pustules
- erythematous papules
- comedones
- patchy hyperpigmentation
53
What is the distinguishing feature between ticks and mites?
Mites are usually less than 0.5mm however ticks are between 2-20mm.
54
Provide 3 ways to manage risk of fly strike in Rabbits
- Check the whole rabbit, paying special attention to the back end
and tail area, at least daily in warm months. If the rabbit has a
dirty bottom, clean it immediately.
* Can get preventative washes.
* Clean litter trays daily and remove all soiled bedding from hutches
daily.
* Staple net curtains over the hutch/run to insect proof them.
* Watch out for conditions that prevent rabbits from cleaning
themselves eg dental, spinal problems and obesity.
* Incorrect diets – leading to too many caecotrophs
55
Why do water soluble hormones require a cell surface receptor?
Water soluble hormones cannot pass the lipid rich cell
membrane.
56
In endocrinology, what is signal transduction?
The transfer of biological message from a cell surface receptor to an intracellular target protein
57
The concentration of a signalling molecule was measured at multiple time points and the following results generated: 0 minutes 150 units, 5 minutes 107 units, 10 minutes 75 units, 15 minutes, 53 units and at 20 minutes 38 units. What is the half-life of the molecule?
10 minutes
58
An endocrine cycle that repeats each 24 hours is what kind of rhythm?
circadian
59
When another condition (such as hypercalcaemia, glucocorticoids) causing polyuria by inhibiting ADH action it is a
secondary nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
60
What molecules are the major contributors to renal medullary tonicity
- Na
- Cl
- K
- Urea
61
This is the process where stored glycogen is broken down into glucose by the liver
glycogenolysis
62
A metabolic pathway that produces ketone bodies to provide an alternative
form of energy from fatty acids & amino acids.
ketogenesis
63
The metabolic pathways that result in the generation of glucose from noncarbohydrate carbon substrates
gluconeogenesis
64
Which macronutrient in excess requires conversion by the liver into urea for
elimination?
protein
65
Which enzymatic activity does the tyrosine kinase receptors catalyse?
phosphorylation
66
............ is an example of a second messenger molecule
- cAMP
- cGMP
- Ca2+
- diacylglycerol (DAG)
67
Name two things the hypothalamus can sense directly
- Osmolarity (osmoreceptors)
- temperature (thermoreceptors)
- glucose (satiety and hunger)
- Blood volume/pressure (stretch
receptors)
68
The posterior pituitary is .................... in embryological origin
neuronal/neuroectoderm
69
When there is more glucose in glomerular filtrate and that causes polyuria, the mechanistic description we use is:
osmotic diuresis
70
The 2 main ways in which azotaemia can occur due to reduced glomerular
filtration rate are: .......... or ............
insufficient functional nephrons or insufficient renal perfusion
(blood supply)
71
The piuitary corticotroph produces which hormone?
ACTH
72
which hormone does the pineal produce
melatonin
73
What effect could increasing pineal hormonal output have?
stimulate repro cycles in short-day breeders
74
Plasma from which of the following selection of blood sample types would be most appropriate for the measurement of total calcium?
lithium heparin
75
What volume of fluid/day must cats consume to be considered polydipsic?
> 45 ml/kg/day
76
Which of these tests has the greatest diagnostic specificity for hyperadrenocorticism (fewest false positives)?
ACTH stim
77
What type of blood sample would you use this tube for? (IMAGE)
serum
78
From which part of the pituitary does this tissue comes from? (IMAGE)
pars distalis
79
from which part of which gland does this tissue come from
Corticomedullary junction, adrenal gland
80
Two dogs (A and B) have been given an ACTH stimulation test. Which dog
has a positive result for hyperadrenocorticism? (IMAGE)
A
81
The zona ........... is the outer zone of the adrenal cortex and secretes ............
The zona glomerulosa is the outer zone of the adrenal cortex and secretes
mineralocorticoids/aldosterone (accept either)
82
The clinical term for excessive hair growth in ponies with PPID is .................
hypertrichosis
83
Name four ways in which body shape changes in ponies with PPID
- POT BELLY
- FAT ABOVE EYES (supraorbital)
- CRESTY NECK
- DIPPED BACK
84
Name three clinical signs commonly associated with canine hyperadrenocorticism
Accept three from abdominal enlargement, polyuria/polydipsia (count as one), lethargy, polyphagia, muscle wastage, alopecia/dermatological changes.
85
List the three most commonly identified changes on a ROUTINE biochemical profile (not hormone measurements) of a dog whose adrenal cortices have been destroyed by immunological attack?
Hyperkalaemia (or accept increased potassium), hyponatraemia (or accept decreased sodium), hypochloraemia (or accept decreased chloride), increased urea, increased creatinine, increased calcium.
86
Dilute urine is commonly seen in canine hyperadrenocorticism. What is the physiological mechanism behind this?
Inhibition of the action of ADH in the kidney (secondary nephrogenic diabetes insipidus)
87
List three abdominal radiographic changes seen in canine hyperadrenocorticism?
- Good contrast
- Hepatomegaly
- Pot-bellied appearance
- Calcinosis cutis
- Distended bladder
- Adrenal enlargement/ calcification
- Osteoporosis
88
Vetoryl® is a treatment used for hyperadrenocorticism. The starting dose in 2mg/kg SID. It comes in capsules and is available as 10mg, 30mg, 60mg in pack sizes of 30 capsules. The capsules cannot not be split. You have a 26 kg dog
What are your dispensing options and costs for 1 months’ supply?
26kg x 2mg/kg = 52mg
1x30 mg + 2 x10mg SID = 1.9mg/kg (28.70+28.70+36.53 = £93.93)
1 x60 mg SID = 2.3 mg/kg (£46.31)
89
A salesman for an in-clinic laboratory device leaves a demonstration machine with you for you to evaluate. You want to check the imprecision of the machine when measuring cortisol. You run the same patient sample through the machine 4 times and obtain the following results:
Calculate the mean, the Standard deviation (SD) and the coefficient of variation
(%).
Round your mean to the nearest whole number before calculating SD to make
the calculations easier. The formula for SD is provided below:
Mean = 401/4 = 100.25 (round to 100)
Differences = 3, 4, 5, 5
Differences squared = 9, 16, 25, 25
Sum of squares = 75
Sum of squares divided by n-1 = 75/3 = 25
SD = sqrt of 25 = 5
CV = 5/100 = 0.05 = 5%
90
Where in the body does 1-alpha hydroxylation of 25-hydroxyvitamin D occur?
kidney
91
What is the name of the hormone produced by certain tumours that may result in humoral hypercalcaemia of malignancy
PTHrp
92
What is the preferred first choice diagnostic test for choice for feline hyperthyroidism?
Total T4
93
FGF-23 has a central role in secondary renal hyperparathyroidism. What does it do?
- promote real phosphate loss
- inhibit calcitriol production
94
Stimulation of the alpha and beta adrenoceptors in smooth muscles generally cause which combination of outcomes?
A1 constriction/contraction
B2 dilation/relaxation
95
What is the most likely presentation for acute hypocalcaemia in a dairy cow?
recumbency - with muscle weakness
96
Where is it best to administer a calciumborogluconate solution to a recumbent dairy cow affected by acute periparturient hypocalcaemia?
in to the jugular vein
97
Which of the following GI symptoms is a sign of hypocalcaemia in a dairy cow?
constipation
98
Why do cows with hypocalcaemia become tachycardic?
reduced force of contraction, reduced stroke volume
99
Dogs with hypothyroidism often present with alopecia because the hair is retained in which phase of the hair cycle?
Telogen
100
Lymphocytic thyroiditis is a common cause of thyroid disease in dogs, how would you classify this type of hypothyroidism?
primary hypothyroidism
101
An increase in which ROUTINE biochemical parameter is commonly seen in hypothyroid dogs?
cholesterol
102
Which enzyme is responsible for the production of active T3?
deiodinase
103
An increase in epinephrine will cause blood glucose concentrations to ………….
increase
104
Which piece of equipment is used to administer calcium borogluconate solution intravenously through a needle to cows with milk fever?
flutter valve
105
A phaeochromocytoma is a tumour of the adrenal ................ which secretes ............
A phaeochromocytoma is a tumour of the adrenal medulla which secretes catecholamines (accept norepinephrine [noradrenalin] or epinephrine [adrenalin]).
106
Name a therapeutic steroid which has both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid activity?
prednisolone
107
Name the three mechanisms by which PTH acts to increase plasma calcium in response to hypocalcaemia?
increased reabsorption from bone, increased absorption from intestine/GIT, increased renal reabsorption/conservation (OK to say some of these are mediated/augmented by vit D3 “activation”)
108
List three of the more commonly identified changes on a biochemical profile of a dog with hyperadrenocorticism?
- increased ALP
- Increased ALT
- cholesterol
- triglycerides
- glucose
- decreased BUN
109
The x-ray highlights a number of changes observed in a dog with an endocrinopathy, please
describe A, B and C and suggest which endocrinopathy is present.
A: excessive SC fat (obesity),
B: enlarged bladder/bladder stones (uroliths),
C: enlarged liver (hepatomegaly). Suggestive of HAC.
110
You need to administer soluble insulin in an infusion at a dose of 0.05IU/kg/hour to treat a case of diabetic ketoacidosis. Your patient weighs 9kg but you estimate he is 10% dehydrated. You have calculated a 2ml/kg/hr maintenance fluid. After correcting 90% of the deficit in 4 hours, you plan to correct his remaining fluid deficit and deliver maintenance over 20 hours resulting in a calculated fluid flow rate of 25mls per hour. You have only 1 good vein and you can’t find any 3-way taps or multi-ports. A) How many units of insulin would you add to a 500ml bag of fluid? B) How many ml of 100IU/ml soluble insulin would that be?
0.05IU/kg x 9kg = 0.45units per hour
0.45IU in 25ml = 0.018IU/ml [0.45(units)/25(ml)]
To achieve this concentration in 500ml = 0.018 x 500 = 9IU
B:9IU of 100IU/ml = 0.09ml
