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Flashcards in Rad Review 50-100 Deck (50)
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1

At least how many HVLs are required to reduce the intensity of a beam of monoenergetic photons to less than 10% of its original value?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

C. 4

2

Which of the dose–response curves shown in the figure below is representative of radiation-induced skin erythema?

1. Dose–response curve A
2. Dose–response curve B
3. Dose–response curve C

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

3

The principal function of filtration in the x-ray tube is to reduce

A. patient skin dose
B. operator exposure
C. scattered radiation
D. image noise

A. patient skin dose

4

The reduction in the intensity of an x-ray beam as it passes through material is termed

A. absorption
B. scattering
C. attenuation
D. divergence

C. attenuation

5

Which of the following radiation situations is potentially the most harmful?

A. A large dose to a specific area all at once
B. A small dose to the whole body over a period of time
C. A large dose to the whole body all at one time
D. A small dose to a specific area over a period of time

C. A large dose to the whole body all at one time

6

All of the following device(s) can be used to reduce patient dose, except

1. grid
2. collimator
3. gonad shield

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

EXCEPT

A. 1 only

1. grid

7

Which of the following factors will affect both the quality and the quantity of the primary beam?

1. HVL
2. kV
3. mA

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

1. HVL
2. kV

8

The radiographer's radiation monitor report must include which of the following information?

1. Lifetime dose equivalent
2. Quarterly dose equivalent
3. Inception date

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

1. Lifetime dose equivalent
2. Quarterly dose equivalent
3. Inception date

9

The exposure rate to a body 4 ft from a source of radiation is 2.5 mGy/h. What distance from the source would be necessary to decrease the exposure to 1 mGy/hr?

A. 4.6 ft
B. 5.3 ft
C. 6.3 ft
D. 7.2 ft

C. 6.3 ft

10

All the following function to reduce patient dose except

A. beam restriction
B. high kVp, low mAs factors
C. a high-ratio grid
D. gonadal shielding

EXCEPT

C. a high-ratio grid

11

The true lateral position of the skull uses which of the following principles?

1. Interpupillary line perpendicular to the IR
2. MSP perpendicular to the IR
3. Infraorbitomeatal line (IOML) parallel to the transverse axis of the IR

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 1 and 3 only

1. Interpupillary line perpendicular to the IR

3. Infraorbitomeatal line (IOML) parallel to the transverse axis of the IR

12

What is the anatomic structure indicated by number 3 in the radiograph in Figure 6–20?

A. Mandibular angle
B. Coronoid process
C. Zygomatic arch
D. Maxillary sinus

B. Coronoid process

13

All the following statements regarding an exact PA projection of the skull are true except

A. the orbitomeatal line is perpendicular to the IR.
B. the petrous pyramids fill the orbits.
C. the midsagittal plane (MSP) is parallel to the IR.
D. the central ray is perpendicular to the IR and exits at the nasion.

EXCEPT

C. the midsagittal plane (MSP) is parallel to the IR.

14

Angulation of the central ray may be required

1. to avoid superimposition of overlying structures.
2. to avoid foreshortening or self-superimposition.
3. to project through certain articulations.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

1. to avoid superimposition of overlying structures.
2. to avoid foreshortening or self-superimposition.
3. to project through certain articulations.

15

The junction of the sagittal and coronal sutures is the

A. diploe
B. lambda
C. bregma
D. pterion

C. bregma

16

Which of the following skull positions will demonstrate the cranial base, sphenoidal sinuses, atlas, and odontoid process?

A. AP axial
B. Lateral
C. Parietoacanthial
D. Submentovertical (SMV)

D. Submentovertical (SMV)

17

The focal spot-to-table distance in mobile fluoroscopy must

A. be at least 38 cm
B. not exceed 38 cm
C. not be less than 30 cm
D. not exceed 30 cm

C. not be less than 30 cm

18

The femoral neck can be located

A. parallel to the femoral shaft.
B. perpendicular to the femoral shaft.
C. perpendicular to a line drawn from the ASIS to the pubic symphysis.
D. perpendicular to a line from the iliac crest to the pubic symphysis.

C. perpendicular to a line drawn from the ASIS to the pubic symphysis.

19

The reduction in the intensity of an x-ray beam as it passes through material is termed

A. absorption
B. scattering
C. attenuation
D. divergence

C. attenuation

20

Which of the following techniques is used to evaluate the dynamics of a part?

A. Fluoroscopy
B. Stereoscopy
C. Tomography
D. Phototiming

A. Fluoroscopy

21

Which of the following are considered most radiosensitive?

A. Lymphocytes
B. Ova
C. Neurons
D. Myocytes

A. Lymphocytes

22

A dose of 25 rad to the fetus during the fourth or fifth week of pregnancy is more likely to cause which of the following:

A. Spontaneous abortion
B. skeletal anomalies
C. neurologic anomalies
D. organogenesis

B. skeletal anomalies

23

Classify the following tissues in order of increasing radiosensitivity

1. Liver cells
2. Intestinal crypt cells
3. Muscle cells

A. 1, 3, 2
B. 2, 3, 1
C. 2, 1, 3
D. 3, 1, 2

D. 3, 1, 2

3. Muscle cells
1. Liver cells
2. Intestinal crypt cells

24

Which of the following interactions between x-ray photons and matter involves a high-energy photon and the ejection of an outer shell electron?

A. Photoelectric effect
B. Coherent scatter
C. Compton scatter
D. Pair production

C. Compton scatter

25

Irradiation of macromolecules in vitro can result in

1. main-chain scission
2. cross-linking
3. point lesions

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

1. main-chain scission
2. cross-linking
3. point lesions

26

How is the intensity of an x-ray photon affected after each time it scatters?

A. Its intensity increases 4 times.
B. Its intensity increases 1000 times.
C. Its intensity decreases 4 times.
D. Its intensity decreases 1000 times.

D. Its intensity decreases 1000 times.

27

Which of the following factors will affect both the quality and the quantity of the primary beam?

1. Half-value layer (HVL)
2. Kilovolts (kV)
3. Milliamperes (mA)

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

1. Half-value layer (HVL)
2. Kilovolts (kV)

28

Sources of natural background radiation contributing to whole-body radiation dose include

1. dental x-rays
2. terrestrial radionuclides
3. internal radionuclides

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

2. terrestrial radionuclides
3. internal radionuclides

29

Which of the following has (have) an effect on the amount and type of radiation-induced tissue damage?

1. Quality of radiation
2. Type of tissue being irradiated
3. Fractionation

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

1. Quality of radiation
2. Type of tissue being irradiated
3. Fractionation

30

Which of the following is (are) considered long-term somatic effect(s) of exposure to ionizing radiation?

1. Life-span shortening
2. Carcinogenesis
3. Cataractogenesis

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

1. Life-span shortening
2. Carcinogenesis
3. Cataractogenesis