Radiology Imaging + Pathology Flashcards Preview

Y3 Medicine > Radiology Imaging + Pathology > Flashcards

Flashcards in Radiology Imaging + Pathology Deck (58):
1

How can you determine whether a CXR is adequately inspired?

Anterior ends of at least 6 ribs should be visible 

 

2

Name the different mediastinal borders on this image:

  1. Aorta 
  2. Pulmonary artery 
  3. Left auricle 
  4. Left ventricle 
  5. Right atrium 
  6. Trachea 
  7. Hemidiaphragm (right)
  8. Stomach bubble 
  9. Horizontal fissure 

3

What are some potential causes of Lobar Collapse?

Occurs when obstruction of a lobar bronchus 

Causes of bronchial obstruction include tumours, aspirated foodstuffs, mucus impaction 

(lobe supplied by obstructed bronchus no longer ventilation and air is resorbed = loses volume)

4

Identify this pathology:

Left Lower Lobe Collapse

5

Identify this pathology:

 

Left Upper Lobe Collapse 

6

Identify this pathology:

Right Upper Lobe Collapse

7

Identify this pathology:

 

Right Middle Lobe Collapse 

8

Identify this pathology:

Right Lower Lobe Collapse 

9

What type of lobar collapse is visible here?

 

Right Middle & Lower Collapse 

10

What area of the lung is affected by consolidation here?

Right Middle Lobe Consolidation 

  • Increased density in right lower zone
  • Loss of clarity of right heart border but preservation of hemidiaphragm 

11

Identify this pathology:

Left Lower Lobe Consolidation 

  • Increased density in left upper + lower zones 
  • Loss of clarity of left upper medistinum 
  • Volume preserved 
  • Air Bronchograms 

12

What kind of pathology is visible on this CXR?

Right pleural effusion 

13

What pathology is visible on this CXR?

Pneumothorax 

14

What are the 4 main signs of pulmonary oedema on CXR in order of severity/occurence?

  1. Dilatation of upper lobe vessels/cardiomegaly 
  2. Interstitial opacities (Kerley B lines, peribronchovascular cuffing) 
  3. Airspace opacification (filling of alveoli with fluid, severe - batwing)
  4. Pleural effusion 

15

What typical feature of pulmonary oedema is highlighted on this CXR?

Alveolar oedema/ BAT WINGS 

16

Describe the placement of this endotracheal tube:

  • Tube inserted too far
  • Passed into right main bronchus 
  • Signs of early collapse (due to unventilated left lung)

Normal = tip 5cm above carina, width 2/3 tracheal diameter (should not expand trachea) 

17

Describe the placement of this endotracheal tube:

  • Correctly placed 
  • Tip 5cm above carina
  • Width should be roughly 2/3 diameter of trachea (cuff should not expand trachea) 
  • Both lungs are ventilated 

18

Describe the ideal placement of a nasogastric tube?

  • Subdiaphragmatic position in stomach
  • Overlying gastric bubble 
  • Should be at least 10cm beyong gastro-oesophageal junction 

19

Describe the placement of this nasogastric tube:

NG tube misplaced 

Located in right lower lobe bronchus 

High change of infection/complications 

20

The following image shows the pathways of various central venous catheters - where does each line originate from?

Yellow - peripheral central catheter (cephalic, basilic, brachial)

Purple - Right subclavian vein 

Light blue - Right jugular vein 

Dotted blue - Left jugular vein 

21

What point in the heart is highlighted by the red circle in this image?

Cavoatrial Junction 

The tip of a venous catheter should sit at the cavoatrial junction (SVC meets and melds with superior wall of right atrium)

22

What abnormality is visible on this CXR?

Pneumoperitoneum 

(perforation of hollow viscus resulting in gas within peritoneal cavity)

23

What artery is affected in this ischaemic stroke?

Left PCA (posterior cerebral artery)

24

Which artery is affected in this ischaemic stroke?

Right ACA (anterior cerebral artery)

 

25

Which artery is affected in this ischaemic stroke?

Right MCA (middle cerebral artery)

26

What is visible in this CT and at what stage would you expect to see this during the evolution of a stroke?

= Hyperdense segment of a vessel 

Direct visualisation of intravascular thrombus/embolus 

 

Often EARLIEST visible sign on CT 

27

What is visible on this CT and at what point in a stroke evolution would you expect to see this?

  • = Loss of grey-white differentiation, and hypoattenuation of deep nuclei 
  • Cortical hypodensity with associated parenchymal swelling (with resultant gyral effacement) 

 

  • Typically seen within first few hours of presentation 

28

What is visible on this CT and at what stage in a stroke evolution would you expect to see this?

  • This is a later sign in a stroke presentation 
  • With time, the hypoattenuation and swelling becomes more profound 
  • Results in significant mass effect 

29

True or False:

Gliosis is an early finding on CT in stroke?

FALSE 

Gliosis develops over time, eventually appearning as a region of low density with volume loss 

 

30

What type of cerebral haemorrhage is this?

Intra-axial haemorrhage/Intra-cerebral haemorrhage 

 

Bleeding into brain parenchyma 

31

What type of cerebral haemorrhage is this?

Extra-dural haemorrhage 

32

What type of cerebral haemorrhage is this?

Sub-dural Haemorrhage 

 

33

What type of cerebral haemorrhage is this?

Sub-dural haemorrhage 

34

What type of cerebral haemorrhage is this?

Subarachnoid Haemorrhage 

35

What are the names of these different types of herniation?

A - Subfalcine

B - Central 

C - Uncal 

D - Tonsillar

36

What pathology is imaged here?

Hydrocephalus

37

What is the correct descriptions for this fracture types?

A - Transverse 

B - Oblique 

C - Spiral 

D - Comminuted  

 

38

What is the correct descriptions for these fracture types?

A - Avulsion 

B - Impacted 

C - Torus 

D - Greenstick

39

What fracture is shown here?

Humerus surgical neck fracture 

40

What abnormality in this X-ray indicates there could be a possible pathology?

The anterior fat pad (and posterior slightly) is more visible than it would usually be 

This indicates perfusion within that joint (blood or fluid)

41

Which fractures (adults + children) will most commonly show abnormal fat pad?

Adults - radial head fracture 

Children - supracondylar fracture (anterior sail sign)

42

What is a Colles fractures and who is at most risk?

Fracture of distal forearm in which broken end of radius moves dorsally 

Common in elderly, fall onto outstretched hand 

43

What is a Smith's fracture?

Fracture of distal radius 

With associated volar angulation of distal fracture fragments 

(aka Reverse Colles fracture)

44

True or False:

Intracapsular fracture of the femur have better healing than extracapsular fractures

FALSE

Intracapsular - lose blood supply to femoral head = AVN 

Extracapsular - blood supply remains so improved healing

 

45

What type of femur fracture is shown here?

Intracapsular fracture of femur

46

What type of femur fracture is shown here?

Intertrochanteric fracture of femur 

47

What are some advantages and disadvantages of CT?

A - quick, accurate, allows better planning of surgery or intervention 

D - radiation exposure, renal impairment, 

48

What pathology is seen on this CT?

Acute Appendicitis

49

What pathology is this most likely to be?

Acute Cholecystitis

50

What type of test is this?

MRCP 

MR Cholangiopancreatography 

(Can be used to show stones in common bile duct or GB causing obstruction)

51

What pathology is shown here and who is most likely to get it?

Emphysematous Cholecystitis

= acute infection of GB wall caused by gas-forming organisms 

(Air in gallbladder wall visible)

Seen in Diabetics 

52

What are some common causes and symptoms of Small Bowel Obstruction? 

Causes - adhesions, cancer, herniae, gallstone ileus 

Symptoms - vomiting, pain, distension 

Signs - increased bowel sounds, tenderness, palpable loops

53

What are some common causes of large bowel obstruction?

Colorectal cancer (60%)

Volvulus (15%)

Diverticulitis (10%)

 

54

What are some potential causes of perforation?

Common:

  • Perforated ulcer (decreasing incidence as treatment improved)
  • Diverticular perforations (1-2% generalised, most localised)

Less common:

  • Secondary to cancer 
  • Secondary to ischaemia  

55

What is the normal blood flow to the GI tract and at what level does ischaemia develops?

Normal GI blood flow - 20% cardiac output 

If <20% ischaemia develops 

56

What are some symptoms + signs of bowel ischaemia?

Severe abdominal pain 

Vomiting 

Diarrhoea 

Distension inconsistent 

Borderline amylase 

Raised WCC

Acidotic 

57

What pathology is seen on this scan?

Right Ureteric Calculus

58

What pathology is seen on this scan?

Leaking AAA