Random Flashcards

1
Q

Sail sign is associated with ____ in children and _____ in adults

A

Sail sign is most commonly associated with a supracondylar fracture in children and a radial head fracture in adults.

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2
Q

Risk factors for development of apnea in children with bronchiolitis

A
  • prematurity
  • age <2 months
  • underlying pulmonary and cardiac disease
  • hypoxemia at triage (<91% on room air)
  • dehydration.
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3
Q

Sepsis medication for neonates < 30 days

A

Gentamicin & Ampicillin

Neonates <30 days old are at increased risk for Listeria monocytogenes, so require ampicillin, which has excellent CNS penetration and a strong sensitivity profile. An additional CNS-penetrating broad-spectrum antibiotic is further required for other potential bacterial meningitis causes such as S. agalactiae and E. coli. The 3rd-generation cephalosporin cefotaxime or an aminoglycoside such as gentamicin is recommended.

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4
Q

Maximum dose of lidocaine with epinephrine

A

7 mg/kg

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5
Q

Maximum dose of lidocaine without epinephrine

A

5 mg/kg

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6
Q

What’s the bug?

RLQ abdominal pain
Watery diarrhea

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

From untreated water and pork
Treat with ciprofloxacin or TMP-SMX

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7
Q

What’s the bug?

Diarrhea
Gillian barre

A

Campylobacter

Undercooked poultry / unpasteurized milk
Treatment - azithromycin or ciprofloxacin

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8
Q

Pressor for neurogenic shock

A

Norepinephrine

Has both alpha (vasoconstriction) and beta (helps treat the bradycardia from unopposed vagal tone) properties

Start at 0.1 mg/kg/min
Titrate for MAP 85-90

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9
Q

Most common viral cause of diarrhea

A

Norwalk virus

Associated with cruise ships

Fluids / supportive care

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10
Q

Treatment of primary syphilis

A

Benzathine penicillin 2.4 million units IM

Doxycycline 100mg BID x 14 days if penicillin allergic

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11
Q

Treatment for anaphylaxis refractory to epinephrine

A

Glucagon

Produces inotropic and chronitropic effects not mediated by beta receptors

Repeat this and epinephrine every 5-10 minutes and can then do IV infusions

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12
Q

Treatment for aplastic crisis

A

RBC transfusion if hemoglobin <6

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13
Q

Mushroom with sympathomimetic symptoms

A

Amanita muscaria

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14
Q

Mushroom with cholinergic symptoms

A

Clitocybe, inocybe

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15
Q

Mushroom with hallucinations

A

Psilocybe

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16
Q

Mushroom with disulfiram like reaction with alcohol ingestion

A

Coprinus

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17
Q

Mushroom with delayed GI symptoms then seizures

A

Gyromitra

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18
Q

Mushroom with delayed GI symptoms followed by kidney failure

A

Cortinarius orellanus

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19
Q

Mushroom with delayed GI symptoms followed by hepatotoxicity

A

Amanita phalloides

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20
Q

Treatment of erysipelas

A

Elevation

Ceftriaxone / cefazolin or flucloxacilln if severe infections with systemic compromise

Penicillin VK, amoxicillin, cephalexin if mild

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21
Q

Recommended medication for blood pressure control associated with intracerebral hemorrhage

A

Nicardipine

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22
Q

Leading cause of epiglottis in adults

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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23
Q

Recommended antibiotic regimen for patient with suspected epiglottis

A

Ceftriaxone plus vancomycin

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24
Q

Cholinergic toxidrome symptoms

A

SLUDGE
Salivation
Lacrimation
Urination
Diarrhea
Gastrointestinal cramps
Emesis

Also have diaphoresis, meiosis, bradycardia, muscular fasciculations, paralysis, agitation, seizures, coma

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25
Management of cholinergic toxidrome
Decontomination Atropine - titrate to drying of bronchial secretions Pralidoxime (2-PAM) is the definitive antidote
26
Calcium channel blocker toxicity symptoms
Bradycardia, hypotension, hyperglycemia (due to inhibition of calcium-mediated insulin release)
27
Treatment of calcium channel blocker toxicity
High dose insulin and glucose
28
Symptoms of digitalis toxicity
GI symptoms and cardiac toxicity Slow a fib with high degree AV block or bidirectional ventricular tachycardia
29
Anticholinergic toxicity symptoms
Dry skin and mouth Mydriasis Tachycardia Bronchoconstriction Constipation Urinary retention
30
Treatment of anticholinergic toxicity
Physostigmine
31
Triad for meniere disease
Episodic vertigo Sensorineural hearing loss Tinnitus Treatment - low salt diet, diuretics (HCTZ + triamterene)
32
Most common cause for bacterial tracheitis
Staphylococcus aureus Looks like croup but sicker Kids often get after croup, but influenza A is most common associated viral infection Steeple sign on X-ray (subglottic narrowing) Treatment - airway management in the OR, broad spectrum antibiotics, IV fluids, bronchoscopy
33
Treatment of acute closed-angle glaucoma
Topical timolol & acetazolamide Also topical apraclonidine, topical prednisolone, mannitol, iridotomy
34
Most reliable physical exam finding for bacterial conjunctivitis
35
Symptoms of campylobacter enteritis
Diarrhea (often bloody) Abdominal pain Fever Dysentery Develop within 2-3 days after ingestion of contaminated food (undercooked poultry, contaminated beef / pork, raw milk)
36
Treatment of campylobacter enteritis
Supportive (fluids) Antibiotics (fluoroquinolone, azithromycin) only in severe disease - (high fever, significant bloody stools, symptoms > 1 week) or in people at risk of severe disease (pregnant, immunocompromised, older)
37
Food poisoning cause after ingestion of fried rice
Bacillus cereus
38
Late onset complications of campylobacter
Reactive arthritis Guillain-Barre
39
What antidysrhythmic medication is contraindicated in acute phase of myocarditis
Beta blockers Can promote further inflammation and necrosis
40
What is the preferred choice for treating patients with opioid withdrawal symptoms
Buprenorphine Partial opioid agonist and weak antagonist Typically give 8mg sublingual for acute withdrawal Can be initiated as maintenance therapy Historically alpha 2 agonists (eg clonidine) were used Benzos can also be used
41
Preferred first line treatment for sympayhomimetic toxidrome
Benzodiazepines
42
treatment of mastoiditis in children
Vancomycin 15 mg/kg
43
Criteria for quick sequential organ failure assessment
GCS < 15 Systolic BP /= 22
44
Fracture of which carpal bone is associated with ulnar nerve injury
Hamate
45
Electrolyte abnormality seen with pyloric stenosis
Hypochloremic hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis
46
Name for non bacterial thrombotic endocarditis in patients with malignancy
Marantic endocarditis
47
Medication given to infants presenting in shock to maintain patency of ductus arteriosus
Alprostadil
48
Definition of abdominal compartment syndrome
Intra-abdominal pressures > 20 mm ahh with evidence of new organ dysfunction
49
Medications to decrease aqueous humor production in patients with acute angle closure glaucoma
Topical beta blockers Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (eg acetazolamide) Systemic osmotic agents (mannitol)
50
Which pathogens cause diarrhea >/= 7 days after ingestion
Protozoal pathogens like cryptosporidium parvum
51
How long should a scaphoid fracture be immobilized
6-12 weeks
52
Treatment for cyanide toxicity
Hydroxocobalamin, sodium nitrite, and sodium thiosulfate
53
Nausea medication that does not have effect on QTc interval
Tigan
54
Person with AICD comes in with this EKG, weak, hypotensive. What do you do?
Electrical cardioversion Person in unstable vtach
55
Gold standard for diagnosing Giant cell / temporal arteritis
Temporal artery biopsy
56
Indications for hyperbaric oxygen in carbon monoxide exposure
Level > 25% (or 15% if pregnant) Loss of consciousness PH < 7.1 End organ ischemia ECG changes, chest pain, altered mental status Syncope
57
Pneumonia + Bird exposure Disease and treatment
Psittacosis Supportive care Antibiotics - doxycycline, tetracycline, erythromycin, chloramphenicol Associated with rare cancer - ocular adnexal lymphoma
58
Anatomic site of central venous access with lowest risk of infection
Subclavian
59
What is Brodie sign
black spot that shows up on the skin - signals beginning of very rapid propagation of necrosis and clinical deterioration
60
Lachman test How do you do it and what does it test for
Most sensitive test (98%) for ACL tear Knee in 20-30% flexion. One hand on tibia with thumb on tibial tuberosity. One hand on thigh. Pull tibia anteriorly. Positive test have soft end point.
61
What is a segued fracture
Avulsion of lateral tibial condyle - associated with ACL injury
62
McMurray test What does it test for and how do you do it
Meniscal tears Patient supine, flex foot and extend the knee, internally and externally rotate tibia. Clicking = positive test
63
Thompson test What does it test for and how do you do it
Evaluate integrity of achilles tendon Patient prone, squeeze the calf. Plantar flexion of ankle joint is normal, if ankle doesn't flex then achilles injury
64
Flexor digitorum superficialis function
Flexion at proximal interphalangeal joint Innervation - median nerve
65
Flexor digitorum profundus function
Flexion at the DIP joint Helps with flexion at MCP
66
How do you test motor and sensory function for median nerve
Motor - OK sign Sensory - two point discrimination tip of index finger
67
How do you test motor and sensory function for ulnar nerve
Motor - abduct index finger (scissors motion) Sensory - two point discrimination over tip of 5th finger
68
How do you test motor and sensory function for radial nerve
Motor - wrist and finger extension Sensory - dorsal thumb / index finger web space
69
4 elements that must be proved by plaintiff in medical malpractice case
Professional duty to the patient Breach of this duty Injury caused by the breach Resultant damages
70
Most common lab abnormality seen in people with ehrlichiosis
Leukopenia
71
Ketosis without acidosis
Isopropyl alcohol ingestion