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RAT 4 Flashcards

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1
Q

What is a core principle?

A

Basic concept that is scene throughout anatomy and physiology and relate to homeostasis

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2
Q

What are four core principles?

A

feedback loops, the relationship of structure and function, gradients, and cell-cell communication

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3
Q

What is homeostasis?

A

When the body maintains internal environment stable

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4
Q

What is a homeostatic imbalance?

A

a disturbance in homeostasis

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5
Q

What is an example of a homeostatic imbalance?

A

having too much sugar in the blood for a long term can cause there to be damage (nerves, blood vessels, kidneys, and eyes)

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6
Q

What is a regulated variable?

A

The variables in the internal environment that are controlled so that a homeostatic imbalance is prevented

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7
Q

What is a feedback loop?

A

a homeostatic control mechanism in which a change in a regulated variable causes effects that feed back and affect the same variable

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8
Q

What is a negative feedback loop?

A

Opposing the initial change and reducing the output

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9
Q

How does a negative feedback loop help maintain homeostasis?

A

It effects the initial change. When there is a variable that shifts from the normal range then a negative feedback loop will work in the opposite direction to get it back to normal.

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10
Q

What is a set point?

A

The normal range of values of a regulated variable

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11
Q

Are variables maintained at an exact set point?

A

Yes they are

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12
Q

What is the role of a receptor (sensor) in a feedback loop?

A

A receptor detects change in a variable and it sends the stimulus to the control center

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13
Q

What is the role of a control center in a feedback loop?

A

it receives a stimulus from the receptor and regulates the output of an effector

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14
Q

What is the role of an effector in a feedback loop?

A

An effector can be a cell or organ that causes a physiological response that return the variable to the normal range

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15
Q

What is a positive feedback loop?

A

A type of feedback loop in which the effectors activity increases, reinforcing the initial stimulus and amplifying the response of the effector

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16
Q

Do effects in a positive feedback loop continue indefinitely?

A

Effects in a positive feedback loop do not continue indefinitely because they eventually stop

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17
Q

Is negative feedback bad for the body?

A

not necessarily because it does promote homeostasis

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18
Q

Does homeostasis mean that the body’s internal environment is static?

A

No because changes sometimes do happen within the environment

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19
Q

Are feedback loops either “on” or “off”?

A

Since the body is a dynamic place something is always going on so that means that they are on to a certain degree

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20
Q

Can any physiological variable be controlled?

A

no, they can be controlled through feedback loops only if cells with receptors exist to detect changes in a set point

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21
Q

What is the principle of complementarity of structure and function?

A

A core principle of anatomy and physiology; states that the structure of a chemical, cell, tissue, or organ is always such that it best suits its functions

aka form follows function

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22
Q

What are examples of the principles of complementarity of structure and function?

A

-blood vessels are hollow tubes that can transport blood through the body
-hard and strong bones support and frame the body
-hollow and muscular urinary bladder stores and expels urine

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23
Q

What is a gradient ?

A

A condition in which more of something exists in one area than in another, and the two areas are connected

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24
Q

What are the three types of gradients?

A

Temperature gradient (it will be warmer at the core and as you step away it becomes cooler), concentration gradient (imagine a pill and it dissolves in water) , and pressure gradient

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25
Why is cell-cell communication important in the body?
It is required for them to be able to work together
26
What are two major methods by which cells communicate?
electrical signals or chemical messengers
27
Facial bones include
nasal bone, lacrimal bone, palatine bone, zygomatic bone, inferior nasal concha, vomer bone, maxilla
28
Cranial bones include
Frontal bone, Parietal bone, Sphenoid bone, Ethmoid bone, temporal bone, occipital bone
29
Frontal bone contains (Great Sarah Farmmen Sucked Margaritas )
glabella, supraorbital foramen, supraorbital margin
30
Parietal bone contains (Sea coral squishes low)
sagittal suture, coronal suture, squamous suture, lambdoid suture
31
Occipital bone contains (fm,oc,eop,snl,inl)
formen magnum, occipital condyles, external occipital protuberance, superior nuchal line, inferior nuchal line
32
What passes through the foramen magnum?
the spinal cord
33
What articulates at the occipital condyles?
first cervical vertebra
34
Temporal bone contains
squamous region, zygomatic process, mandibular fossa, tympanic region, external acoustic meatus, styloid process, mastoid region, mastoid process, petrous region, internal acoustic meatus
35
What articulates with the mandibular fossa?
the mandible
36
What does the external acoustic meatus lead to?
the middle ear
37
Which surface is considered the petrous region?
it is located in the internal or medial surface of the temporal bone
38
Sphenoid bone contains
body, sphenoidal sinuses, sella turcica, greater wings, lesser wings, pterygoid process
39
How is the sphenoid bone unique?
it articulates with every other cranial bone
40
Ethmoid bone contains
cribriform plate, cribriform foramina, crista galli, perpendicular plate, ethmoidal sinuses, superior nasal concha, middle nasal concha
41
What pass through the cribriform foramina?
nerves that detect smell
42
What is the role of the crista galli?
it serves as an attachment for the membranes surrounding the brain
43
What structure is formed (in part) by the perpendicular plate?
nasal septum
44
Lacrimal bones contain
lacrimal fossa
45
What substance drains through the lacrimal fossa?
tears
46
Zygomatic bones contain
zygomatic arch
47
What is a common name for the zygomatic bones?
cheek bones
48
Palatine bones are shaped like what letter of the alphabet?
L shaped
49
The top of the perpendicular plates form a small piece of what structure?
the large perpendicular plates form part of the lateral walls of the nasal cavity and a tiny piece of the orbit
50
The horizontal plates for (in part) what structure?
posterior part of the hard palate
51
Mandible contains
Mandibular body, mandibular rami, mandibular angles, coronoid process, condylar process, mandibular condyle
52
What is the function of the coronoid process?
It serves as an attachment for a major chewing muscle
53
What articulates with the mandibular condyles?
the mandibular fossa of the temporal bone
54
Maxillae contains
Palatine process, maxillary sinus
55
What is the singular form of maxillae?
maxilla
56
Which nasal conchae are part of another bone?
the middle nasal conchae
57
Which bone is the middle nasal conchae part of?
the ethmoid bone
58
What is the singular form of conchae?
concha
59
What is the vomer?
It is the deepest facial bone
60
What is the vertebral column?
the spine that has 33 bones called the vertebrae
61
What are the different types of vertebrae? cookies at 7, tea at 12, linner at 5
cervical vertebrae thoracic vertebrae lumbar vertebrae
62
How many of each is found is a typical adult?
7 cervical vertebrae 12 thoracic vertebrae 5 lumbar vertebrae
63
What is the abbreviation system used for vertebrae?
We refer to each individual vertebra with a letter abbreviation, which signifies its type, and a subscript number that indicates its position, from superior to inferior, in the vertebral column
64
What is an intervertebral foramen?
The space between most of the moveable unfused vertebrae
65
What emerges through these openings in the unfused vertebrae?
spinal nerve roots
66
What is the normal spinal curvatures?
concave cervical curvature lumbar curvature thoracic curvature sacral curvature
67
Which curvatures are considered primary curvatures?
thoracic curvature and sacral curvature are considered primary curvatures because they were present in the fetus' original c shaped vertebral column
68
Which curvatures are considered secondary curvatures?
cervical and lumbar curvatures are considered secondary curvatures because they develop after
69
What are three abnormal spinal curvatures?
Scoliosis Lordosis Kyphosis
70
What are characteristics of Scoliosis?
characterized by lateral curvatures in the vertebral column that give it a C or S shape when viewed from the posterior or anterior side
71
What are characteristics of Lordosis?
characterized by exaggerated cervical and lumbar curvatures
72
What are characteristics of Kyphosis?
the thoracic curvature is exaggerated, giving a “hunchback” appearance. It is caused by joint conditions such as arthritis, bone conditions such as osteoporosis and vertebral fractures, and developmental abnormalities of the skeleton.
73
What is the plural form of vertebra?
vertebrae
74
What are some features unique to cervical vertebrae?
the holes in their transverse processes, called transverse foramina.
75
What is the name given to C1?
Atlas
76
What is unique about C1?
It holds the head It has no vertebral body or spinous process, and instead has two anterior arches that meet at the anterior tubercle, and two posterior arches that meet at the posterior tubercle.
77
What is name given to C2?
Axis
78
What is unique about C2?
its most notable feature is a superior projection from the body known as the Dens or odontoid process
79
What are some features that are unique to thoracic vertebrae?
their heart-shaped bodies, circular vertebral foramina, and long spinous processes that point inferiorly
80
What are some features unique to lumbar vertebrae?
heir large kidney-shaped bodies, thick spinous processes that point posteriorly, and vertebral foramina shaped like a flattened triangle make them easy to recognize
81
Which part of the sacrum articulates with the pelvic bones?
The sacrum’s two lateral surfaces, the auricular surfaces, articulate with the two pelvic bones.
82
What other bones articulate with the sacrum?
Its superior surface, the flattened base, articulates with the fifth lumbar vertebra at its superior articular processes. The inferior surface, which articulates with the coccyx, is called the apex.
83
Which surface of the sacrum is very bumpy?
posterior (median sacral crest)
84
Which surface of the sacrum is relatively smooth?
Anterior
85
What are the transverse lines?
the result of fused sacral bodies and indicates the former limits of the individual vertebrae.
86
What is the continuation of the vertebral canal called in the sacrum?
sacral canal
87
What is found in Sacral canal ?
contains nerve roots from the spinal cord as well as surrounding connective tissue membranes
88
Where are the intervertebral discs located?
between two vertebrae ex: the first one is between C2 and C3, and the final one is between L5 and S1
89
What are intervertebral discs made of?
fibrocartilage
90
Describe fibrocartilage
it is tough, flexible and bounces back into shape when stretched
91
What are the two components of an intervertebral disc?
The nucleus pulposus (soft, inner, jelly like substance), and the Annulus fibrosus (surrounds the nucleus pulposus and holds it place and the vertebrae together)
92
Which bones compose the thoracic cage?
the sternum, the 12 pairs of ribs, and the thoracic vertebrae
93
What are the three portions of the sternum?
Manubrium -top part Body Xiphoid process
94
What is the notch on the superior surface of the sternum?
suprasternal notch
95
What are the two notches on the lateral surfaces of the sternum?
Clavicular notches
96
What is the sternal angle?
where the cartilages of the second ribs attach where the manubrium and the body meet
97
How many ribs are in the typical man or women?
12 pairs (24 individual)
98
What is the term for the space between ribs?
intercostal spaces
99
What is the costal cartilage composed of?
the hyaline cartilage which provides strong but flexible support
100
Which ribs are considered false ribs?
ribs 8-12
101
Why are they considered false ribs?
they do not attach to the sternum directly
102
Which ribs are considered floating ribs?
ribs 11 and 12
103
Why are they considered floating ribs?
they do not attach at all to the sternum
104
What two key properties must the molecules of the plasma membrane have ?
it has to be hydrophilic and hydrophobic
105
What is the basic processes of cells?
106
Give examples of cell specialization
107
How is cell specialization achieved?
108
Describe the components found in human cells
109
What are their functions
110
Where are intracellular and extracellular fluids located?
111
Give examples of structural variation found in human cells
112
How does this relate to a core principle
113
What molecules have these properties?
114
What happens when phospholipids are placed in water?
The heads face the water and the tails face away from the water
115
How does the Fluid Mosaic Model of the Plasma Membrane demonstrate a mosaic and fluidity?
The model that describes the plasma membrane as a dynamic structure consisting of a phospholipid bilayer with multiple components interspersed throughout and throughout the phospholipid bilayer of the plasma membrane are various proteins, other kinds of lipids and carbohydrates. Together they resemble a mosaic.
116
What is a membrane protein?
a protein molecule that is attached or associated with the membrane of a cell or an organelle
117
What are five functions of membrane protein?
acting as channels, acting as carriers, acting as receptors, acting as enzymes, providing structural support and linking adjacent cells
118
What are the other components of the plasma membrane?
119
What is their function?

Anatomy (6 decks)

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