Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Finals > Renal > Flashcards

Renal Flashcards

(81 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

Pre-renal causes of AKI

A

Hypovolaemia
Low BP
Renal artery stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Intrinsic causes of AKI

A

Acute tubular necrosis
Nephrotoxic meds
Glomerulonephritis
Interstitial nephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Post-renal causes of AKI

A

BPH
Bladder cancer
Calculi
Any cause of obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the three phases of AKI

A

Oliguric/anuric phase
Polyuric/maintenance phase
Recovery phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Complications of AKI

A 
Hyperkalaemia
Pulmonary oedema/fluid overload
Metabolic acidosis
Uraemic encephalopathy/pericarditis
Low Ca, high PO4
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

ECG changes in hyperkalaemia

A

Small/absent P waves
Prolonged PR interval
Peaked T waves
Slurring into ST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which treatments of hyperkalaemia increase K excretion

A

IV NaCl

Diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which treatments of hyperkalaemia move K into cells

A

Beta-agonists
Bicarbonate
IV insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What happens to BUN:Creatinine ratio in pre-renal AKI Vs intrinsic AKI

A
  • In pre-renal AKI as normal all Cr is excreted, tubules are still working and reabsorbing urea so serum urea is higher. So BUN:Cr >20:1
  • In intrinsic AKI as normal all Cr is excreted, tubules aren’t working though so more urea being excreted than normal so less serum urea compared to pre-reanl. So BUN:Cr <20:1 (closer to 1)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What happens to urine Na and osmolality in pre-renal AKI

A

Decreased renal blood flow but tubules still working. RAAS activated causing Na and H2O retention. Concentrated urine - high osmolality >500 but looking at just urine Na concentration this is low <20 because Na is being reabsorbed by the still-functioning tubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What happens to urine Na and osmolality in intrinsic AKI

A

Tubules damaged so can’t function and cant reabsorb Na. So Na and H2O lost in urine - dilute urine with a high Na concentration. Low urine osmolality <350, high urinary Na concentration >40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Management of AKI

A

Treat underlying cause
Stop nephrotoxic drugs
Monitor pH, fluid balance and electrolytes
Involve renal team

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How long does disease need to be present to classify as chronic kidney disease

A

3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Causes of CKD

A 
HTN
DM
Renal artery stenosis
Glomerulonephritis
Reflux nephropathy
Pyelonephritis
PCKD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Clinical features of CKD

A 
Polyuria
Oedema
Anaemia
Low Ca, High PO4
Metabolic acidosis
Hyperkalaemia
Uraemia
Mineral and bone disorder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Three main types of renal replacement therapy

A

Dialysis
Haemofiltration
Transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How long does it take before a fistula can be used for dialysis

A

4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When would you use haemofiltration rather than dialysis

A

When a patient is really haemodynamically unstable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What’s the difference between haemodialysis and haemofiltration

A

Dialysis uses a diffusion gradient whereas filtration uses a hydrostatic pressure gradient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Possible complications of an AV fistula

A 
Thrombosis
Stenosis
Steal syndrome
Infection
Heart failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Haemodialysis is performed roughly how often and for how long each time?

A

Three times a week

4 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the two types of peritoneal dialysis

A 
Continuous ambulatory PD (4-6 exchanges/day)
Assisted PD (fill in morning, exchange overnight)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

6 features of nephrotic syndrome

A 
Proteinuria 
Increased risk of infection
Oedema
Hypoalbuminuria
Hyperlipidaemia
Hypercoagulable state
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

2 most common causes of nephrotic syndrome in adults

A 
FSGS (black population)
Membranous nephropathy (white population)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children
Minimal change disease
26
Secondary causes of nephrotic syndrome
``` SLE Hep B Hep C HIV DM Malignancy ```
27
4 primary causes of nephrotic syndrome
Minimal change disease FSGS Membranous nephropathy Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
28
Management of nephrotic syndrome
``` Low Na and protein diet Fluid restriction Loop diuretics ACEi/ARB VTE prophylaxis Statins Renal biopsy ```
29
8 features of nephritic syndrome
``` Haematuria Hypertension Oliguria Uraemia RBC casts Sterile pyuria Mild proteinuria Mild oedema ```
30
5 causes of nephritic syndrome
``` IgA nephropathy Post-strep glomerulonephritis Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (Anti-GBM, GPA, MPA, EGPA_ Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis HSP ```
31
Management of nephritic syndrome
Low Na diet Fluid restriction ACEi/ARB Consider immunosuppression
32
cANCA positive vasculitis
Granulomatosis with polyangitis (Wegeners)
33
pANCA positive vasculitis
Microscopic polyangitis | Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangitis (Churg-Straus)
34
Presentation of HSP
Purpuric rash on extensor surfaces of legs Polyarthritis Abdo pain (GI bleed) Nephritis
35
Which 3 diseases only present as rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
Goodpasteurs Granulomatosis with polyangitis (Wegeners) Microscopic polyangitis
36
What are the 3 classification types of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
Type 1 - linear immunofluorescence Type 2 - granular immunofluorescence Type 3 - negative immunofluorescence
37
Type 1 RPGN cause
Goodpasteurs
38
Type 2 RPGN causes
Post-strep GN SLE IgA nephropathy HSP
39
Type 3 RPGN causes
Granulomatosis with polyangitis (Wegeners) | Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangitis (Churg-Strauss)
40
What does E.coli look like under microscope
Gram negative rod
41
Symptoms of acute pyelonephritis
Fever, rigors Nausea, vomiting Loin pain, costovertebral angle tenderness Associated symptoms of cystitis
42
What is meant by 'complicated UTI'
UTI in the setting of any condition/comorbidity that may predispose a patient to an increased risk of infection or failed treatment
43
What is classed as 'recurrent' UTI
2+ in 6 months or 3+ in 12 months
44
Differential diagnosis of haematuria
``` Malignancy Calculi/stones UTI Glomerulonephritis/nephritic syndrome ADPKD Trauma (biopsy) Coagulopathy Renal TB ```
45
Which patients with haematuria need cystoscopy and upper tract imaging
If >45 years old with any haematuria | If <45 with macroscopic haematuria and no infection
46
How do you manage someone <45 with microscopic haematuria
GFR + BP + PCR | Plus cystoscopy if having frequency/urgency and/or non-contrast CT if loin pain
47
2 types of benign renal tumours
Angiomyolipoma | Oncocytoma
48
2 types of malignant renal cancer
Renal cell carcinoma | Transitional cell carcinoma (urothelial cancer)
49
The most common type of renal cell carcinoma
Clear cell carcinoma
50
What is the classic triad of renal cell carcinoma
Haematuria Flank pain Palpable flank mass
51
What is the classic triad of transitional cell carcinoma
Haematuria Pain LUTS
52
What are the 2 main types of bladder cancer
Transitional cell carcinoma (urothelial cancer) | Squamous cell carcinoma
53
How does bladder cancer typically present
Painless macroscopic haematuria Irritative voiding symptoms (dysuria, frequency, urgency) Suprapubic pain Suprapubic mass
54
Management options for bladder cancer that hasn't invaded the muscle wall (
Transurethral resection of bladder tumour (TURBT) | Intravesical BCG
55
Management options for bladder cancer that has invaded the muscle wall
Radical cystectomy | Radiotherapy
56
What is the most common type of renal stone
Calcium oxalate
57
Symptoms of renal stones
``` Severe renal colic that radiates down to groin/perineum Costovertebral angle tenderness Haematuria Nausea, vomiting Dysuria, frequency, urgency Passage of material ```
58
Gold standard investigation of renal stones
Non-contrast abdo/pelvis CT
59
Indications for intervention for renal stones
>1cm Complicated Failure to pass spontaneously after 4-6 weeks
60
BPH develops in which anatomical zone of the prostate
Middle transitional zone
61
Prostate cancer develops in which anatomical zone of the prostate
Outer peripheral zone
62
What tool can you use to assess prostate symptoms
International prostate symptom score
63
Describe the different types of LUTS
Voiding/obstructive - hesitancy, poor stream, intermittent flow, incomplete emptying, post-voiding dribbling, overflow incontinence Storage - frequency, nocturia, urgency, urgency incontinence
64
Common causes of voiding LUTS
BPH Bladder neck stenosis Urethral stricture Poor detrusor contractility
65
Common causes of storage LUTS
UTI Bladder calculi Urothelial carcinoma Overactive bladder
66
What investigation would you arrange if you suspected prostate cancer
Ultrasound guided prostate biopsy
67
What score is used to interpret prostate biopsy
Gleason score
68
Is BPH a risk factor for prostate cancer
No
69
What is the first line medication for BPH
Alpha blockers - Tamsulosin, Doxazosin
70
What class of medications are Tamsulosin and Doxazosin
Alpha blockers
71
What medication can be used to decrease growth of BPH
5-alpha-reductase inhibitors - Finasteride, Dutasteride
72
Finasteride belongs to which group of medications
5-alpha-reductase inhibitors
73
Which mediation helps with both BPH symptoms and ED
Tadalafil - Phosphodiesterase 5 inhibitors
74
How do patients with ADPKD typically present
Flank pain, HTN and progressive renal disease in adulthood
75
How do patients with ARPKD typically present
Chronic renal failure, hepatomegaly, liver failure, pulmonary hypoplasia in utero/early life
76
Which two genes cause ADPKS
PKD1 and PKD2
77
Extra-renal diseases associated with ADPKD
Hepatic/pancreatic/splenic/ovarian/testicular cysts Cerebral berry aneurysm --> SAH Mitral valve prolapse Diverticulosis
78
Clinical features of testicular torsion
``` Sudden onset of unilateral pain Nausea/vomiting Swollen, oedematous, tender testicle Abnormal position Negative Prehn sign Absent cremasteric refex ```
79
What is Prehn sign
Positive if lifting testicle relives pain (epididymitis) | Negative if it doesn't (torsion)
80
Clinical features of epididymitis
Gradual onset of painful swelling Fever, dysuria, frequency, discharge Positive Prehn sign Positive cremasteric reflex
81
Typical presentation/history of IgA nephropathy
Episodic gross hematuria during or directly after upper respiratory tract (URT), gastrointestinal (GI) infections, or strenuous exercise

Finals (32 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions