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repro high yield Flashcards

(101 cards)

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1
Q

common site of obstruction in prostate disease

A

uracle in prostatic urethra (leftover emrbyologic uterus)

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2
Q

3 parts of urethra

A

penile (spongy) urethra
membranous urethra
prostatic urethra

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3
Q

enzyme that converts testosterone > dihydrotestosterone (DHT)

A

5a-reductase

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4
Q

LH action in male

A

stim leydig cells > testosterone

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5
Q

FSH action in male

A

stim sertoli cells > inhibin

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6
Q

fimbriae locaiton + function

A

at end of fallopian tube

wrap around ovary during ovulation to allow ova into ampulla

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7
Q

3 layers of uterus

A

endometrium
myometrium
perimetrium

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8
Q

cervical cancer is usually associated with what viruses

A

higher grade HPV

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9
Q

cervical cancer is usually associated with what viruses

A

higher grade HPV series

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10
Q

cervical squamous cell carcinoma sx

A

most asymp

bleeding post intercourse

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11
Q

stage vs grade

A 
stage = spread
grade = histologic changes
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12
Q

most common cervical cancer

A

cervical squamous cell carcinoma

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13
Q

endometritis bacertia

A

group A strep, staph

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14
Q

most common female tumor

A

leiomyoma/fibroid (estrogen dependent)

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15
Q

most common invasive cancer of female tract

A

uterine adenocarcinoma

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16
Q

what sx would make you worry about uterine cancer

A

bleeding in postmenopausal women

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17
Q

PCOS/stein-leventhal syndrome

A

hyperprolactinemia, androgen excess, young women

menstrual disorders, infertility, hirsuitism

androgen is not > estrogen; no aromatase activity

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18
Q

phase of menstrual cycle that makes up 1st 2 weeks

A

follicular; estrogen dominance

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19
Q

phase of menstrual cycle that makes up 2nd 2 weeks

A

luteal; progesterone dominance

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20
Q

are ovarian cancers usually painful?

A

no, asympt

CYSTS are painful

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21
Q

what causes the menstrual period

A

drop off of progesterone

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22
Q

LH spikes when in the menstrual cycle

A

right before ovulation

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23
Q

progesterone/luteal activity effect on temp

A

thermogenic; higher basal body temp after LH surge

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24
Q

what enzyme converts androgens to estrogen

A

aromatase

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25
menopause avg age
52/53
26
menopause def
no menses 12+ months | rise FSH/LH
27
firbocystic breast dz caused by
excess estrogen
28
most common benign tumor of breast in women under 30
fibroadenoma
29
number 1 female cancer
breast carcinoma
30
what is pagets dz of breast
late stage infiltrating carcinoma causes inflammatino of tissue and nipple sign of advanced dz
31
how many mature testes do you get from 1 spermatigonium
4
32
how many mature ova do you get from 1 oocyte
1
33
what type of process is gamteogenesis
meiosis
34
1st + 2nd miotic divisions in gametogenesis are what type of division
1 - haploid | 2 - non-haploid
35
products of spermatogenesis
two 23x | two 23y
36
products of oogenesis
one 23x
37
2nd meiotic division in oogenesis requires
fertilization
38
fusing of pronuclei during fertilization results in a
zygote
39
stages between fertilization and implantation
1. day 1; fertilization to zygote formation 2. days 2-3; z cell stage through morula 3. free blastocyst 4. days 5-6; blastocyst attaches
40
primary site of fertilization
ampulla
41
ectopic implantation sites
anywhere thats not the endometrium
42
ectoderm gives rise to
"neuro + appendages" ``` CNS PNS sensory epitheliua of eye, ear, nose epidermis + appendages mammary glands post pituitary adrenal medulla ```
43
mesoderm gives rise to
``` CT, cartilage, bone muscle heart blood, lymph vessels, cells kidneys, ovaries, testes, genital ducts serous membrane spleen adrenal cortex ```
44
endoderm gives rise to
"linings, glandualr tissues" gastric and respiratory epithelium parenchyma of tonsils, thyroid, parathyroid, liver, thymus, pancreas epithelial lining of bladder, urethra, tympanic cavity, tympanic antrum, auditory tube ant pituitary
45
foramen ovale >
fossa ovalis
46
umbilical vein >
ligamentum teres
47
umbilical arteries >
lat. umbilical ligaments
48
ductus venosus >
ligamentum venosum
49
ductus arteriosus >
ligamentum arteriosum
50
what glands are involved in lactation
``` ant pit (PRL; production) post pit (oxytocin; ejection) ```
51
rise in __ is the basis of most pregnancy tests
hCG
52
when do estrogen and progesterone rise
late teen weeks of preg
53
estrogen and progesterone rise during pregnancy due to
placenta
54
wk 1 + 2 tertatogen sensitivity
not normally susceptible, or complete death
55
what structures are only open to teratogen sensitivity early in pregnancy
heart limbs palate ears
56
nucleotide structure
sugar, phosphate, base
57
differences between DNA and RNA
sugar: DNA: deoxyribose RNA: ribose bases: DNA: adenine, thymine, guanine, cytosine RNA: adenine. URACIL, guanine, cytosine strands: DNA: two strands in double helix RNA: single strand
58
purine bases
adenine (A) | guanine (G)
59
pyrimidine bases
uracil (U) thymine (T) cytosine (C)
60
nucleoside vs nucleotide suffix
nucleotide -ate | nucleoside -ine
61
nucleoside vs nucleotide
nucleoside: purine/pyrimidine linked to a pentose sugar nucleotide: nucleoside + phosphate
62
purine biosynthesis is __% dependent on folic acid for methylation
100%
63
pyramidine biosynthesis is __% depenent on folic acid for methylation
50%
64
transcription is
DNA > RNA
65
polymerase I makes
mRNA
66
polymerase II makes
mRNA
67
polymerase III makes
tRNA
68
new DNA is formed in what direction
5' to 3'
69
why is there more ligase activity/okazaki fragments on the right strand of DNA
it is 5' > 3' so must form in "reverse" order
70
translation is
formation of a new protein
71
cell division is
cell replication
72
apoptosis is
genetically controlled death of cell
73
mitosis is
nuclear division of somatic cells > making daughter cells
74
meiosis produces
gametes
75
phases of mitosis/nuclear division
prophase metophase anaphase telophase
76
phases of interphase
G1 S G2
77
most cells spend majority of their lives in what phase
interphase
78
G1 cell phase activity
growth, duplication, protein synthesis
79
S cell phase activity
DNA replication
80
G2 cell phase activity
protein synthesis
81
relationship between life expectancy of cell and mitotic rate
longer life expectancy of cell > slower mitotic rate
82
undifferentiated cells are often __ (normal/cancerous)
cancerous
83
key differences mitosis vs meiosis
cell type mitosis: somatic meiosis: repro cytoplasmic divisions: mit: 1 mei: 2 #cells formed mit: 2 mei: 4 chromosomes each new cell mit: 46 (23 pair) mei: 23
84
transciption factor binds to ___
TATA box, part of promoter
85
RNA polymerase needs ___ to recognize promoter
transcription factor
86
inducers do what
bind to nuclear receptor protein; this complex then binds to DNA and activates/inactivates certain genes
87
ex of inducer
steroid hormones
88
enhancers are what
regulatory DNA sequence; loops in DNA bring enhances near promoter regions of gene, can be upstream or downstream
89
genome mutation vs chromosome mutation
genome: loss of gain of whole chromosome chromosome: rearrangement of material within a chromosome; usually translations
90
two types of gene mutation (AKA mendelian disorders)
point: single point mutation (1 nucleotide) frameshift: insertion or deletion of one or two base pairs
91
klinefelters syndrome
XXY (thin body, hypogonadic, gynecomastia) dx after puberty
92
turners syndrome
XO or mosaic (XO/46XY) "menopause before menarche" by 2 yo streak ovaries rare
93
downs syndrome (trisomy 21)
``` 47 chromosomes (extra chromosome 21) multiple internal disorders ```
94
types of mendelian (monogenic) abnormalities
autosomal recessive | autosomal dominant
95
autosomal recessive vs autosomal dominant
recessive: must have BOTH parents to have child exhibit trait. one parent can pass carrier trait dominant: only one parent needs gene; 50% change of expression
96
ex of autosomal recessive disorders
PKU, sickle cell, thalassemias, fabry, hunter
97
ex of autosomal dominant disorders
vonwillenbrands, familial hypercholesterolemia
98
X/sex linked recessive vs dominant
recessive: symptomatic in males, carrier in females dominant: rare; dominant so female can be carrier or expressive
99
X/sex linked recessive ex
G6PD deficiency | hemophilia
100
ex of polygenic (multifactorial) disorders
more than one genetic factor cleft lip, gout, CAD, type II DM, club foot
101
mitochondrial DNA disorders
mitochondrial DNA strictly inherited from mother ex: leber's potic neuropathy

nplex (11 decks)

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