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Med surg > Reproductive and Final > Flashcards

Reproductive and Final Flashcards

1
Q

Chlamydia Treatment and most common symptom

A

One large dose of Azithromycin pain

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2
Q

What is it called when a doctor can give a drug to a sex partner?

A

Expedited partner therapy

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3
Q

Which STI do they treat in infants?

A

Gonorrhea

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4
Q

What is the most common s/s of gonorrhea?

A

Purulent drainage

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5
Q

Tx for Gonorrhea

A

You need at least two antibiotics azithromycin and IM ceftriaxone

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6
Q

Trichomoniasis most common s/s and treatment

A

Itchy PO metronidazole

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7
Q

What drug for STI do you need to not drink on?

A

Metronidazole

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8
Q

What is the sore in syphilis called?

A

Chancer

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9
Q

4 stages of syphilis and what happens in them

A

primary- chancer
Secondary-Rash flu like symptoms
Latent-no symptoms
Tertiary- organ damage

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10
Q

two things to remember about syphilis

A

contact precautions and transmit to fetus and have lots of problems.

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11
Q

2 risks for herpes outbreak

A

Sunburn and menstruation

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12
Q

One thing that can help with herps

A

sits bath

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13
Q

Stages of Herps and what happens

A

Prodromal-Tingle
Vesicular-Blister
ulcerative-Blister pops
final -Crusting

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14
Q

What STI is non reportable?

A

HPV

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15
Q

Mastaliga and One thing

A

Breast pain can be cyclic or not

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16
Q

Mastitis usually from

A

Breast infection staph

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17
Q

Fibroadenoma 3

A

Well delineated lumps can move found in 20 and 30 usually go away after menopause.

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18
Q

Fibrocystic changes 4

A

30-50 umbrella term one or more lumps, can get worse around period

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19
Q

When does annual breast exam start? one consideration

A

45 but earlier if risks

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20
Q

when does biennial breast screening start?

A

55

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21
Q

2 pathophys of benign prostatic hyperplasia

A

DHT and higher estrogen stimulates cell growth

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22
Q

4 things BPH can cause

A

UTI, kidney stones, retention, hydronephrosis

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23
Q

3 meds for BPH and what do they do?

A

5a reductase inhibitors- reduce size
alpha adrenergic receptor blockers
Erectogenics-ED

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24
Q

One nursing consideration for a BPH med and what is the med?

A

Orthostatic hypotension and alpha adrenergic receptor blockers.

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25
Q

TUIP vs TURR

A

sm incisions

Remove tissue

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26
Q

Causes of res acidosis 4

A

decreased respirations (asthma, drug over dose)
COPD
Pneumonia
Atelectisis

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27
Q

Causes of res Alk 4

A

Anxiety/fear, PE, mechanical vent

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28
Q

Symptoms of both resp alk and acid 3

A

Rapid breathing, Decreased BP N/V

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29
Q

Opposites What is Acid 3

A

Hypoventilation, shallow res, hyper kalemia,

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30
Q

3 signs of Ac and Ak that are not opposites

A

Acid- decreased BP and vasodilation, mm weakness, dysrhythmias
Alk- numbness and tingling, lethergy and confusion, tachy

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31
Q

Causes of plural effusion 4

A

Anything that causes permeability, build up of fluid, trauma, TB

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32
Q

Manifestations of a plural effusion that you don’t know 3

A

acidotic, empyema, inhale pain

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33
Q

COPD causes hyperplasia of goblet cells cause

A

increase mucus, decreased diameter of airway, difficulty secretions, decrease in cillia, alveolar walls and inflammation causes airway remodeling

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34
Q

What happens to diaphragm and blood with COPD

A

diaphragm flattens, polycythemia

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35
Q

3 things about asthma that you didnt know

A

aspirin and gerd can induce expirations may be longer

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36
Q

peak flow meter values

A

green-80-100
yellow 50-80
red 50 and below.

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37
Q

drug choice for step one

A

SABA

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38
Q

drug choice step two

A

Low dose ICS Inhaled cortico steroids with SABA

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39
Q

Drug choice step three

A

low dose ICS/LABA

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40
Q

Drug choice step four

A

med/high ICS/LABA

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41
Q

Anticholenergic name

A

Atrovent

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42
Q

Atrovent considerations 2

A

not for late asthma less than twice a week

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43
Q

LABA name

A

salmeterol, Foradil, servent

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44
Q

LABA considerations

A

for mod-severe

never use alone for asthma

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45
Q

What to use for moderate COPD

A

LABA- can be used alone and corticosteroids but not for long term

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46
Q

What is SABA Give example and when not to use?

A

Short Acting Beta 2 adrenergic agonist proair cardiac

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47
Q

What is SAMA give example and when not to use?

A

Short acting muscarinic antagonist Ipratropium narrow-angle glaucoma

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48
Q

3 things to know about corticosteroids

A

Oeteoporosis, take in am with food, not a rescue inhaler,

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49
Q

How is TB Spread

A

Through airborne droplets

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50
Q

What is a Ghon lesion?

A

calified TB granuloma

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51
Q

oliguria and value

A

Low urine output less than .5ml/kg/h

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52
Q

Anuria and value

A

No urine output less than 50ml/day

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53
Q

Normal urine value

A

0.5-1.0ml/kg/hr

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54
Q

Chloride level

A

97-107 mEq/L

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55
Q

Potassium level

A

3.5-4.5mEq/L

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56
Q

Calcium level

A

8.6-10.2 mg/dl

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57
Q

phosphate level

A

2.4-4.4g/dl

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58
Q

Plasma osmolality range

A

275-295.

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59
Q

3 isotonic solutions

A

0.9% lactated ringers and 5% dextrose(Special) D5W

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60
Q

2 hypotonic solutions

A

5%dextrose D5W(Special) 0.45 NAcl half normal saline

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61
Q

hypertonic solution 1 plus???

A

3 percent saline, dextrose 5 added to anything or dextrose 10 and up with water

62
Q

Normal saline 4 things you would use it for that you don’t know
2

A

mild hyponatremia, metabolic acidosis, hyper ca+ can cause hyperchloremia.

63
Q

when to use lactated ringers 3 things that go together and one other .

A

Burns, trauma, third spacing. Large gi or fistula drainage

64
Q

Don’t administer lactated ringers to 3

A

Lactic acidosis, ph greater than 7.5, liver fail

65
Q

5 percent dextrose 2 things to remember and one thing to use it for

A

dont use alone and not great for nutrition severe hypernatremia

66
Q

when to use 1/2 strength when not to

A

hypernatremia, avoid liver disease burns trauma

67
Q

Aldosterone and ADH do what what keeps what?

A

Aldosterone- keeps Na and H2O and lets go of K

ADH-keeps H2O

68
Q

What electrolyte goes with Na?

A

Cl

69
Q

Relationship between K and pH

A

K is acidic

70
Q

Three things that can tx hyperk+

A

Insulin, dialysis, loops

71
Q

Hypoca+ S/s

A 
CATS
Convulsions
Arrhythmias
Tetany
Stridor/Spasms
72
Q

Hyperca+ S/S 4

A

Stones, groans, moans, Sedative

73
Q

phases of AKI

A

Oliguric, Diuresis, recovery

74
Q

Olugaric urine number and specific gravity and what does that mean?

A

Less than 400ml/day 1.010 kidneys can’t concentrate urine.

75
Q

Why is there an increase in urine output in the diuresis phase?

A

Because of the oncotic pressure from the o stage

76
Q

What function is lacking in the Diuresis stage?

A

urine concentration

77
Q

Normal BUN

A

Less than 20

78
Q

What to know about Creatinine and AKI

A

May not show up until 50% is gone

79
Q

Normal creatinine clearance level

A

less than 70

80
Q

4 stages of shock names

A

initial, compensatory, progressive, refectory

81
Q

how to calculate MAP

A

SABP+2DABP/3

82
Q

what value of MAP indicated adequate tissue perfusion

A

60mmHg

83
Q

Manifestations of anaphylaxis 2 you really need

A

incontinence, purritus (itch) uricaria(hives) angioedema, metallic taste, n/v/pain

84
Q

steps for anaphylaxis four words and 7 steps

A

Stop-call-assess-prepare

stop, call. 02. saline flush. maybe start 2nd iv assess epi

85
Q

What do biguanides do and give a name 3

A

Metformin primary is to decrease glucose production in the liver, enhance insulin sensitivity, improves glucose transfer

86
Q

metformin can be used to blank age and blank

A

prevent DM in people younger than 60 with risk factors

87
Q

two other things metformin can help with

A

weight loss and lower cholesterol

88
Q

Metformin is contraindicated in people with 3 because?

A

Kidney disease, liver disease, heart failure, lactic acidosis

89
Q

names of sulfonylureas 3

A

Glipizide, glimepiride, glyburide

90
Q

what do sulfonylureas do 3

A

increase insulin production from pancreas, stimulate sustained insulin release, lower A1C

91
Q

What to watch for with sulfonylureas 2

A

hypoglycemia, weight gain

92
Q

meglitinide name and what does it do why is it better and when to take?

A

prandin stimulates rapis insulin release more rapidly absorbed than sulf (causes less hypo) and before meals

93
Q

Normal Cerebral Perfusion Pressure

A

60 or 70mmHg-100mmHg

94
Q

Decorticate positioning and what does it mean?

A

flexed and in (don’t forget about legs) and it means that there are problems with cervical spinal tract or cerebral hemisphere

95
Q

Decerebrate positioning and what does it mean?

A

Extensor problems within midbrain or PONS

96
Q

things the Glasgow coma scale assesses and when is it a problem

A

Eye opening, verbal response, Motor response. less than 8.

97
Q

Cushings triad

A

Increase in systolic BP, decrease in pulse, decreased respirations.

98
Q

Bacterial meningitis differences 5

A

Turbid, purulent, higher protein levels, glucose is decreased, neutrophils

99
Q

Three things that can cause gerd?

A

Hiatal hernia smoking obesity

100
Q

Manifestations of GERD 5

A

hyper salvation, respiratory, otolaryngologic-horseness, globus sensation, chocking

101
Q

Treatment for GERD

A

PPI (Zoles) H2 receptor blockers (ines), cholinergic, prokinetic (Metoclopramide)

102
Q

PUD 3 things

A

Erosion of GI mucosa from HCL and Pepsin. any point in GI tract, chronic

103
Q

PUD etiologi 5

A

Acidic environment, H pylori, meds, lifestyle, stress

104
Q

manifestations of perforation 5

A

Rigid board like ab, shallow fast respirations, shock. maybe febrile

105
Q

Difference between Ulcerative and crohns? 1

A

UC-colon and rectom

Crohns and segment of GI

106
Q

Crohns 3 things

A

Old cronies skip, inflam of all layers, long ulcerations that pen mucosa

107
Q

one thing about UC

A

BLEEDING

108
Q

What can develop with crohns?

A

Fistulas

109
Q

Common symptoms of crohns 5

A

diarrhea usually not bloody, cramping. nutritional def, weight loss when sm in is involved, system symptoms.

110
Q

UC manifestations 8

A

bloody diarrhea up to 20 times a day, ab pain. anemia, fever, rapid weight loss, tachy. dehydration. tenesmus

111
Q

What is ammonia?
normal level?
Increased level shows, leads to blank and blank.

A

Toxic product of protein breakdown and is turned into urea and excreted through the kidneys.
15-45mcg/dl
shows liver dysfunction, leads to neuro problems and hepatic encephalopathy.

112
Q 
Hep A
how do you get it?
How do you prevent it?
one more thing?
Therapy?
A 
I Ate it
food, milk,water from f-o
Vaccine
no chronic 
None but can use immunoglob
113
Q 
Hep B 
how do you get it?
How do you prevent it?
one more thing?
Therapy?
A

Blood or Body fluids
vaccine hand washing avoid fluids
Usually recover

114
Q 
Hep C 
how do you get it?
How do you prevent it?
one more thing?
Therapy?
A

sex and blood and drugs
screening decrease risky behaviors
currently no vaccine
antivirals that block protein for replication

115
Q

two things to remember about HIV and the liver

A

HIV meds are hepatotoxic and Hep C and HIV are a terrible combo,

116
Q

cataracts loss of

A

general vision

117
Q

Patho cataracts

A

change in lens fiber structure age and trauma

118
Q

s/s 4 cataracts

A

deploplia, absent red reflex, decrease visual accuity, photo sensitivity

119
Q

phacoemulsification

A

for cataracts break it up and suck it out

120
Q

extracapsular

A

for cataracts incision take out without break up

121
Q

symptoms of detachment 3

A

floaters, light flashes (photopsia) cobwebs

122
Q

macular degeneration

A

irreversible central vision loss

123
Q

Primary open angle glaucoma caused by s/s 2

A

Caused by clogged drainage channels gradual, tunnel vision

124
Q

Accute angle closure glaucoma caused by s/s 3 and is a

A

pupil dilation or lens bulging pain, colored halos, blurred vision emergency

125
Q

treatment of Glaucoma 3

A

miotic/cholinergic to constrict pupil hyperosmotic to draw fluid out surgery

126
Q

6 ps of compartment syndrome

A

pain, pressure, paresthesia, pallor, paralysis, pulselessness

127
Q

fat embo syn one s/s and time

A

Petechial rash usually 24-48 hours

128
Q

Rhabdomyolysis

A

Damaged mm cells releases myoglobin in blood stream

129
Q

Risks for osteoporosis 8 you don’t know

A

estrogen, excessive alcohol, corticosteroids, low testosterone, heparin, thyroid replacement, anti seizure meds, long acting sedatives.

130
Q

3 s/s of OA

A

Crepitation, asymmetrical, localized

131
Q

9 s/s hypothyroidism

A

prolonged DTR, hoarseness, thick cold skin, distended ab sensitivity to ops, barbs, anesthesia ,enlarged tongue, mm aches, joint pain

132
Q

hyperthyroidism s/s 5

A

Like you just got done with a run, acropachy, exopthalmos, spino/meglo, vertigo.

133
Q

RBC value

A

4.7-6.1 mil per microlt

134
Q

Hgb value

A

12-18

135
Q

Hct value

A

36-50%

136
Q

WBC value

A

4,500-11,000

137
Q

Platelets value

A

150,000-450,000 platelets per microlt

138
Q

megaloblastic anemia

A

impaired DNA synthesis have large RBC so they can be destroyed easily

139
Q

Pernicious anemia 3 + one s/s

A

absence of intrinsic factor, insidious onset, more neurological symptoms plus symptoms for anemia beefy red tongue.

140
Q

What does the intrinsic factor do?

A

helps absorb vit b

141
Q

Aplastic anemia risk for? 3

A

auto-immune that targets blood cell production Infection bleeding, shock

142
Q

Acquired hemolytic anemia is and can cause 3

A

Normal RBC but external forces are causing damage jaundice, spleen and liver enlargement because of hyperactivity.

143
Q

CAD risk factors 7

A

HTN, Smoking, hyperlipidemia, hyperhomocysteinemia, diabetes, infection, toxins

144
Q

What causes angina?

A

02 demand on heart

145
Q

What do beta blockers do?

A

improve contractility

146
Q

What do calcium channel blockers do?

A

Arterial Dilator decrease afterload

147
Q

What do nitrates do?

A

Help with preload venodialator

148
Q

two signs of crisis HTN

A

Headache and nose bleed

149
Q

HFrEF is blank during blank caused by blank the tissue is blank

A

reduced ejection, systolic, impaired contractility (MI) increased afterload (HTN) hypertrophied cant squeeze

150
Q

HFpEF is blank during blank caused by blank

A

Preserved, diastole, can’t relax, thickens, no room for blood to come in.

151
Q

SV?

A

Stroke volume is amount of blood pumped during systole

152
Q

Skin with PAD 4

A

Thin, shinny, tight, hairless

Med surg (25 decks)

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