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Flashcards in respiratory Deck (104)
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1

systolic PAP

>30mmhg

2

example of Pulmonary Hypertension due to pulmonary vascular disease

parasitic - heartworm
congenital shunts PDA

3

DMVD and DCM cause Pulmonary hypertension by what classification

due to left sided heart disease

4

examples of PH due chronic pulmonary disease and/or hypoxia

pulmonary fibrosis
chronic bronchitis
upper airway obstruction

5

T/F
in small animals pulmonary hypertension is a primary condition

FALSE -- occurs secondary to another condition

6

non invasive gold standard test to DX pulmonary hypertension in small animals

echocardiogram

7

Direct treatment of pulmonary arterial hypertension is achieved with ___

pulmonary vasodilator drugs

8

most common small animal pulmonary vasodilator drug

Sildenafil

9

thrombus formation needs these things from virchows triangle

• Hypercoaguability
• Endothelial injury
• Blood stasis

10

definitive diagnosis of PTE requires

CT or angiography

11

T/F
with PTE thoracic radiographs may appear completely normal

TRUE

12

antithrombotic drug of choice

Clopidogrel

13

Defined as an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the pleural space

pleural effusion

14

what volume of fluid normally exists in the pleural space

1-5ml very small vol

15

breathing pattern of patient with pleural effusion

restricted - shallow and rapid

16

T/F
intrathoracic pressure is normally postive

false - negative

17

most common type of efusion

modified transudate

18

type of effusion that has very low cells and protein

trasudate

19

what diseases are transudate effusion seen in

low ALB -- protein losing enteropathy

20

CHF, chyle and neoplasia will see this type of pleural effusion

modified transudate

21

what type of effusion is in pyothorax

exudate

22

A malignant neoplasm that originates from cells that line serosal surfaces

mesothelioma

23

what is tension pneumothorax

volume of air is so significant that it depresses cardiac output – fatal if not treated promptly

24

most common cause of pneumomediastinum in cats

General anesthesia with endotracheal intubation & positive pressure ventilation

25

primary function of the parenchyma

gas exhcange

26

Bacterial infection within the pulmonary parenchyma

bacterial pneumonia

27

pneumonia that develops in a patient that has not been
recently hospitalized

community acquired

28

s pneumonia that occurs ≥48 hours after hospital admission & was not incubating at the time of admission

hospital acquired

29

the result of inhalation of gastric/oropharyngeal contents that are contaminated by pathogenic bacteria

aspiration

30

classic pattern seen on thoracic radiographs of pneumonia

alveolar & predominantly ventral

31

PaO2 < 80 mmHg

hypoxemia

32

T/F
CAP patients are at risk for MDR infections

FALSE -- HAP are

33

mycotic pneumonia radiographic pattern

nodular or miliary, interstitial & perihilar

lymphadenopathy may be present

34

most common cause of protozoal pneumonia

Toxoplasma gondii

35

interstitial lung disease (ILD) that is characterized by fibrosis

idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

36

these breeds are predisposed to idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

West Highland white terrier, Stafforshire bull terrier

37

physical exam often reveals crackles in all lung fields

idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

38

radiographic pattern in dogs with idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

Diffuse bronchointerstitial pattern is most common in dogs.

39

T/F
NCPE is typically protein rich while cardiogenic PE is low protein

TRUE

40

a pulmonary inflammatory disorder characterized by non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema, neutrophilic inflammation, and hypoxemia

ACUTE RESPIRATORY DISTRESS SYNDROME (ARDS)

41

two potential risk factors for chronic bronchitis

obesity, periodontal disease

42

what defines bronchitis as being chronic

a cough longer then 1 month
non-productive, harsh,

43

Expiratory abdominal “push”

seen in chronic bronchitis

44

how to dx chornic bronchitis

it is a diagnosis of exclusion -- do thoracic radiographs and other tests to rule out causes of chronic coughs

45

cough suppressants used in canine chronic bronchitis

tramadol
hydrocodone
butorphanol

46

Permanent dilation and distortion of bronchi due to chronic
inflammation

Bronchiectasis

47

Bronchial collapse due to weakened walls; occurs commonly in dogs with tracheal collapse and/or CB or BM can occur by itself

bronchomalacia

48

chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

Obstruction of small airways due to thickening/weakness of the bronchial walls & mucus accumulation

49

predisposed breeds to Eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy (EBP)

husky
malamute

50

difference between feline chronic bronchitis and asthma

both: inflammation, mucus, wall thickening
asthma also has bronchospasm

51

the primary effector cells in allergic asthma

eosinophils

52

feline inflammatory bronchial disease cat breed

SIAMESE

53

T/F
cats with bronchitis cough every day

TRUE -- asthmatic cats are intermittent

54

what test is imperative to do with coughing cats

Heartworm & fecal testing is imperative

55

how does the trachea collapse

dorsoventral flattening

56

primary etiology of tracheal collapse

they are deficient in glycosoaminoglycans, chondoitin, and calcium

57

T/F
cervical tracheal collapses during expiration and thoracic collapses during inspiration

FALSE - reversed

58

most common clinical sing in tracheal collapse

honking cough

59

t/F
patients in respiratory distress may be hypothermic

FASLE - hyperthermic

60

what mumur may also be present in a tracheal collapse doggo

left apical systomic -- due to mitral valve

61

laryngeal functions

• Regulate airflow
• Protect trachea from aspiration during swallowing
• Control phonation

62

the ____ muscles of the larynx are responsible for laryngeal function

intrinsic

63

innervates the cricothyroid m.

cranial laryngeal nerve

64

laryngeal paralysis results when

When 1 (unilateral) or both (bilateral) of the arytenoid cartilages do not abduct

65

damage to this nerve causes Acquired laryngeal paralysis (LP) in dogs

recurrent laryngeal nerve

66

Geriatric-onset laryngeal paralysis-polyneuropathy (GOLPP) is most common in

labs

67

definitive diaganosis of larygeal paralyis

laryngeal exam

68

primary defects of brachycephalic airway obstruction

• Stenotic nares
• Elongated soft palate

69

polyps

Fibromuscular connective tissue arising from mucosal lining of nasopharynx, auditory tube

70

which species gets polyps more

cats -- often younger

71

causes of polyps in cats

congenital defect(s), chronic inflammation, viral infection

72

sneezing associated with nasopharyngeal, caudal nasal, or sinus disease

reverse -- inspiratory sneezing

73

causes of nasopharyngeal stenosis

regurgitation (esp. under anesthesia), chronic inflammation, post- surgical scarring, trauma, congenital anomaly, mass

74

nasopharyngeal stenosis treatment

Balloon dilation most effective

75

most common cause of rhinitis in cats

cryptococcus

76

Cat with clinical signs of sneezing & nasal discharge (mucoid or purulent, often unilateral) and polypoid masses in the nose

fungal rhinitis -- crypto

77

T/F
a positive crypto culture means there is infection

false

78

oral tx for crypto rhinitis

Oral fluconazole

79

CHRONIC RHINOSINUSITIS (CRS) in cats has unilateral or bilateral nasal discharge

bilateral

**FHV-1 seems to be involved
**dx of exclusion

80

antiviral med that Reduces FHV-1 replication in vitro

lysine

81

what is a concern when using doxycycline in cats

esophageal stricture -- need to be given with food

82

caution of use of NSAIDS (meloxicam) in cats

renal dz
geriatrics
gi disease

83

most common cause of FUNGAL RHINOSINUSITIS in dogs

aspergillosus

84

type of dogs predisposed to fungal rhinosinusitis

Usually young to middle-aged & dolichocephalic -- gsd

may see epistaxis with sneezing

85

what is seen on CT with nasal aspergillosis

Significant destruction of turbinates & cavitations

86

how do you collect samples for blood culture in infectious endocarditis cases

3-4 samples collected aseptically from different venous tissue sites at least 30 min - 1 hour apart

87

source of infection of staph intermedius infective endocarditis

pyoderma

88

source of infection of staph aureus infective endocarditis

nosocomial

89

source of infection of strep canis infective endocarditis

urogenital tract, skin, respiratory tract

90

source of infection of E. coli infective endocarditis

gastrointestinal tract, peritonitis, urinary tract

91

source of infection of pseudomonas infective endocarditis

chronic wounds, burns

92

source of infection of bartonella infective endocarditis

ticks and fleas

93

treatment of acute infective endocarditis caused by staph intermedius

Tiracillin/clavulanate -- timentin

94

treatment of chronic infective endocarditis caused by staph intermedius

clavamox

95

treatment of acute infective endocarditis caused by staph aureus

vancomycin, amikacin oxacillin

96

treatment of chronic infective endocarditis caused by staph aerues

if not methicillin resistant, high dose first generation cephalosporin

97

treatment of acute infective endocarditis caused by strep canis

ampicillin IV

98

treatment of chronic infective endocarditis caused by strep canis

amoxicillin or clavamox

99

treatment of acute infective endocarditis caused by e coli

amikacin or imipenem

100

treatment of chronic infective endocarditis caused by e coli

imipenem

101

treatment of acute infective endocarditis caused by pseudomonas

amikacin, timentin, ot imipenen IV

102

treatment of chronic infective endocarditis caused by pseudomonas

imipenem sc or possibly clavamox PO

103

treatment of acute infective endocarditis caused by bartonella

amikacin and beta lactam

104

treatment of chronic infective endocarditis caused by bartonella

bta lactam
doxy
azithromycin