respiratory Flashcards
(104 cards)
1
Q
systolic PAP
A
> 30mmhg
2
Q
example of Pulmonary Hypertension due to pulmonary vascular disease
A
parasitic - heartworm
congenital shunts PDA
3
Q
DMVD and DCM cause Pulmonary hypertension by what classification
A
due to left sided heart disease
4
Q
examples of PH due chronic pulmonary disease and/or hypoxia
A
pulmonary fibrosis
chronic bronchitis
upper airway obstruction
5
Q
T/F
in small animals pulmonary hypertension is a primary condition
A
FALSE – occurs secondary to another condition
6
Q
non invasive gold standard test to DX pulmonary hypertension in small animals
A
echocardiogram
7
Q
Direct treatment of pulmonary arterial hypertension is achieved with ___
A
pulmonary vasodilator drugs
8
Q
most common small animal pulmonary vasodilator drug
A
Sildenafil
9
Q
thrombus formation needs these things from virchows triangle
A
- Hypercoaguability
- Endothelial injury
- Blood stasis
10
Q
definitive diagnosis of PTE requires
A
CT or angiography
11
Q
T/F
with PTE thoracic radiographs may appear completely normal
A
TRUE
12
Q
antithrombotic drug of choice
A
Clopidogrel
13
Q
Defined as an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the pleural space
A
pleural effusion
14
Q
what volume of fluid normally exists in the pleural space
A
1-5ml very small vol
15
Q
breathing pattern of patient with pleural effusion
A
restricted - shallow and rapid
16
Q
T/F
intrathoracic pressure is normally postive
A
false - negative
17
Q
most common type of efusion
A
modified transudate
18
Q
type of effusion that has very low cells and protein
A
trasudate
19
Q
what diseases are transudate effusion seen in
A
low ALB – protein losing enteropathy
20
Q
CHF, chyle and neoplasia will see this type of pleural effusion
A
modified transudate
21
Q
what type of effusion is in pyothorax
A
exudate
22
Q
A malignant neoplasm that originates from cells that line serosal surfaces
A
mesothelioma
23
Q
what is tension pneumothorax
A
volume of air is so significant that it depresses cardiac output – fatal if not treated promptly
24
Q
most common cause of pneumomediastinum in cats
A
General anesthesia with endotracheal intubation & positive pressure ventilation
25
primary function of the parenchyma
gas exhcange
26
Bacterial infection within the pulmonary parenchyma
bacterial pneumonia
27
pneumonia that develops in a patient that has not been
| recently hospitalized
community acquired
28
s pneumonia that occurs ≥48 hours after hospital admission & was not incubating at the time of admission
hospital acquired
29
the result of inhalation of gastric/oropharyngeal contents that are contaminated by pathogenic bacteria
aspiration
30
classic pattern seen on thoracic radiographs of pneumonia
alveolar & predominantly ventral
31
PaO2 < 80 mmHg
hypoxemia
32
T/F
| CAP patients are at risk for MDR infections
FALSE -- HAP are
33
mycotic pneumonia radiographic pattern
nodular or miliary, interstitial & perihilar
lymphadenopathy may be present
34
most common cause of protozoal pneumonia
Toxoplasma gondii
35
interstitial lung disease (ILD) that is characterized by fibrosis
idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
36
these breeds are predisposed to idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
West Highland white terrier, Stafforshire bull terrier
37
physical exam often reveals crackles in all lung fields
idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
38
radiographic pattern in dogs with idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
Diffuse bronchointerstitial pattern is most common in dogs.
39
T/F
| NCPE is typically protein rich while cardiogenic PE is low protein
TRUE
40
a pulmonary inflammatory disorder characterized by non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema, neutrophilic inflammation, and hypoxemia
ACUTE RESPIRATORY DISTRESS SYNDROME (ARDS)
41
two potential risk factors for chronic bronchitis
obesity, periodontal disease
42
what defines bronchitis as being chronic
a cough longer then 1 month
| non-productive, harsh,
43
Expiratory abdominal “push”
seen in chronic bronchitis
44
how to dx chornic bronchitis
it is a diagnosis of exclusion -- do thoracic radiographs and other tests to rule out causes of chronic coughs
45
cough suppressants used in canine chronic bronchitis
tramadol
hydrocodone
butorphanol
46
Permanent dilation and distortion of bronchi due to chronic
| inflammation
Bronchiectasis
47
Bronchial collapse due to weakened walls; occurs commonly in dogs with tracheal collapse and/or CB or BM can occur by itself
bronchomalacia
48
chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Obstruction of small airways due to thickening/weakness of the bronchial walls & mucus accumulation
49
predisposed breeds to Eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy (EBP)
husky
| malamute
50
difference between feline chronic bronchitis and asthma
both: inflammation, mucus, wall thickening
| asthma also has bronchospasm
51
the primary effector cells in allergic asthma
eosinophils
52
feline inflammatory bronchial disease cat breed
SIAMESE
53
T/F
| cats with bronchitis cough every day
TRUE -- asthmatic cats are intermittent
54
what test is imperative to do with coughing cats
Heartworm & fecal testing is imperative
55
how does the trachea collapse
dorsoventral flattening
56
primary etiology of tracheal collapse
they are deficient in glycosoaminoglycans, chondoitin, and calcium
57
T/F
| cervical tracheal collapses during expiration and thoracic collapses during inspiration
FALSE - reversed
58
most common clinical sing in tracheal collapse
honking cough
59
t/F
| patients in respiratory distress may be hypothermic
FASLE - hyperthermic
60
what mumur may also be present in a tracheal collapse doggo
left apical systomic -- due to mitral valve
61
laryngeal functions
* Regulate airflow
* Protect trachea from aspiration during swallowing
* Control phonation
62
the ____ muscles of the larynx are responsible for laryngeal function
intrinsic
63
innervates the cricothyroid m.
cranial laryngeal nerve
64
laryngeal paralysis results when
When 1 (unilateral) or both (bilateral) of the arytenoid cartilages do not abduct
65
damage to this nerve causes Acquired laryngeal paralysis (LP) in dogs
recurrent laryngeal nerve
66
Geriatric-onset laryngeal paralysis-polyneuropathy (GOLPP) is most common in
labs
67
definitive diaganosis of larygeal paralyis
laryngeal exam
68
primary defects of brachycephalic airway obstruction
* Stenotic nares
| * Elongated soft palate
69
polyps
Fibromuscular connective tissue arising from mucosal lining of nasopharynx, auditory tube
70
which species gets polyps more
cats -- often younger
71
causes of polyps in cats
congenital defect(s), chronic inflammation, viral infection
72
sneezing associated with nasopharyngeal, caudal nasal, or sinus disease
reverse -- inspiratory sneezing
73
causes of nasopharyngeal stenosis
regurgitation (esp. under anesthesia), chronic inflammation, post- surgical scarring, trauma, congenital anomaly, mass
74
nasopharyngeal stenosis treatment
Balloon dilation most effective
75
most common cause of rhinitis in cats
cryptococcus
76
Cat with clinical signs of sneezing & nasal discharge (mucoid or purulent, often unilateral) and polypoid masses in the nose
fungal rhinitis -- crypto
77
T/F
| a positive crypto culture means there is infection
false
78
oral tx for crypto rhinitis
Oral fluconazole
79
CHRONIC RHINOSINUSITIS (CRS) in cats has unilateral or bilateral nasal discharge
bilateral
* *FHV-1 seems to be involved
* *dx of exclusion
80
antiviral med that Reduces FHV-1 replication in vitro
lysine
81
what is a concern when using doxycycline in cats
esophageal stricture -- need to be given with food
82
caution of use of NSAIDS (meloxicam) in cats
renal dz
geriatrics
gi disease
83
most common cause of FUNGAL RHINOSINUSITIS in dogs
aspergillosus
84
type of dogs predisposed to fungal rhinosinusitis
Usually young to middle-aged & dolichocephalic -- gsd
may see epistaxis with sneezing
85
what is seen on CT with nasal aspergillosis
Significant destruction of turbinates & cavitations
86
how do you collect samples for blood culture in infectious endocarditis cases
3-4 samples collected aseptically from different venous tissue sites at least 30 min - 1 hour apart
87
source of infection of staph intermedius infective endocarditis
pyoderma
88
source of infection of staph aureus infective endocarditis
nosocomial
89
source of infection of strep canis infective endocarditis
urogenital tract, skin, respiratory tract
90
source of infection of E. coli infective endocarditis
gastrointestinal tract, peritonitis, urinary tract
91
source of infection of pseudomonas infective endocarditis
chronic wounds, burns
92
source of infection of bartonella infective endocarditis
ticks and fleas
93
treatment of acute infective endocarditis caused by staph intermedius
Tiracillin/clavulanate -- timentin
94
treatment of chronic infective endocarditis caused by staph intermedius
clavamox
95
treatment of acute infective endocarditis caused by staph aureus
vancomycin, amikacin oxacillin
96
treatment of chronic infective endocarditis caused by staph aerues
if not methicillin resistant, high dose first generation cephalosporin
97
treatment of acute infective endocarditis caused by strep canis
ampicillin IV
98
treatment of chronic infective endocarditis caused by strep canis
amoxicillin or clavamox
99
treatment of acute infective endocarditis caused by e coli
amikacin or imipenem
100
treatment of chronic infective endocarditis caused by e coli
imipenem
101
treatment of acute infective endocarditis caused by pseudomonas
amikacin, timentin, ot imipenen IV
102
treatment of chronic infective endocarditis caused by pseudomonas
imipenem sc or possibly clavamox PO
103
treatment of acute infective endocarditis caused by bartonella
amikacin and beta lactam
104
treatment of chronic infective endocarditis caused by bartonella
bta lactam
doxy
azithromycin
