Rosh Material #1 Flashcards

1
Q

wernicke encephalopathy triad

A

encephalopathy
oculomotor dysfxn
gait ataxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

oculomotor dysfxn associated w. wernicke encephalopathy

A

horizontal nystagmus - mc
lateral rectus palsy
conjugate gaze palsies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

tx for wernicke’s

A
  1. thiamine
  2. glucose

must give thamine before glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

consequence of wernicke’s that involes irreversible memory loss

A

korsakoff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

in order for dx of mania, episodes must last a minimum of

A

1 week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

in order for dx of hypomania, sx must last a minimum of

A

4 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

2 risks associated w. quetiapine

A

parkinsonism
qt prolongation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

3 risks associated w. valproate

A

weight gain
tremor
liver failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

3 risks associated w. lithium

A

diabetes insipidus
hypothyroidism
tremor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

risk associated w. lamotrigine

A

skin rash
SJS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

tx for acute mania

A

mood stabilizers:
lithium
valproate
+/- antipsychotics (haldol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

tx for acute dpn in bipolar

A

lithium
lamotrigine
quetiapine
+/- antidepressant add on

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

maintenance therapy for bipolar

A

1st line: whichever drug relieved acute symptoms
2. lithium, lamotrigine, valproate, quetiapine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

2 mc s.e of SGA’s

A

sedation
weight gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how to remember SGA’s (atypical)

A

pines: olanzapine, quetiapine, asenapine, clozapine

dones: lurasidone, resperidone, paliperidone, iloperidone

pips: aripiprazole, brexpiprazole

rip: cariprazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

2 indications for bupropion as 1st line tx for dpn

A

to avoid sexual dysfxn
concomitant tobacco use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

indication for trazadone as first line tx for dpn

A

dpn w. insomnia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

major s.e of clozapine

A

neutropenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

when does mdd w. peripartum onset occur

A

during pregnancy or w.in 4 weeks of delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

recommended age to screen for autism spectrum disorder

A

18-24 mo

dx is typically made prior to 3 yo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

5 a’s of tobacco cessation

A
  1. ask
  2. advise
  3. assess
  4. assist
  5. arrange
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

stages of change for tobacco smoking/cessation

A
  1. precontemplation
  2. contemplation
  3. preparation
  4. action
  5. maintenance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

which stage of change is associated w. smokers who are ready to quit

A

contemplation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

mc comorbid mental health illness associated w. delusional d.o

A

dpn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

specifiers for delusional d.o (6)

A

erotomanic
grandiose
jealous
persecutory
somatic
bizarre content

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

belief that a stranger removed one’s internal organs and replaced them with other organs without leaving a scar

A

delusional d.o w. bizarre content

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

order of tx for gad

A
  1. SSRI or SNRI
  2. different SSRI or SNRI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

2 add on options if pt w. gad had partial response to SSRI or SNRI

A

buspirone
pregabalin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

6 established adverse effects of SSRIs

A

sexual dysfxn
drowsy
insomnia
wt gain
HA
dizzy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

5 common s.e of SNRIs

A

nausea
dizziness
insomnia
sedation
constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

3 common s.e of buspirone

A

insomnia
agitation
nausea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

2 common s.e of pregabalin

A

sedation
dizziness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is pagophagia

A

craving for ice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what deficiency does pagophagia make you think of

A

iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

3 sx of severe ida

A

koilonychia
atrophic glossitis
angular cheilosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

7 risk factors for dpn

A

1st degree fam hx
low socioeconomic status
divorced/separated/widowed
lack of interpersonal relationships
recent difficult life events
early childhood trauma
postpartum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what US ancestry is associated w. dpn

A

american indian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what ancestry has lowest prevalence of dpn

A

asian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

6 common fetishes

A

underpants
bras
shoes
feet
toes
hair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

medications for dpn should be continued for how long after symptoms resolve

A

6-12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

first line tx for bipolar major dpn (2)

A

quetiapine
lurasidone

42
Q

tx for benzo withdrawal for pt who uses benzos chronically

A

IV long acting benzo (ex diazepam) taper

43
Q

PE finding of refeeding syndrome

A

peripheral edema
seizure

44
Q

lab findings of refeeding syndrome

A

hypophosphatemia
hypokalemia
hypomagnesemia

45
Q

primary cause of clinical findings of refeeding syndrome

A

hypophosphatemia

46
Q

indication for hospitalization for refeeding syndrome

A

edema
seizures
serum phos < 2 mg/dL

47
Q

refeeding syndrome is associated with low _ (2) and elevated _ (2)

A

low: glucose, insulin
high: glucagon, gluconeogenesis

48
Q

broadband assessment tool for ADHD

A

child behavior checklist/teacher report form

also assesses anxiety, dpn, aggression, withdrawal, somatic complaints

49
Q

narrow band assessment tools for ADHD (2)

A

conners 3rd edition
vanderbilt

50
Q

what assessment tools for ADHD are most sensitive/specific

A

narrowband:
conners
vanderbilt

51
Q

increased serotnergic activity from therapeutic medication drug interactions or self poisoning

A

serotonin syndrome

52
Q

sx of serotonin syndrome

A

-AMS
-autonomic instability: tachy, diarrhea, shivering, diaphoresis, mydriasis
-neuromuscular abnormalities: clonus, hyperreflexia, tremor, seizure

53
Q

tx for serotonin syndrome

A

benzos
hydration/cooling
cyproheptadine

54
Q

what drug is associated w. malignant hyperthermia

A

muscle relaxants

55
Q

2 risk factors for serotonin syndrome

A

2 or more serotoning agonists
dosage changes

56
Q

t/f: there is a strong link btw suicidal ideation and OCD

A

t!

57
Q

what assessment tool is used for OCD

A

yale-brown obsessive-compulsive scale

58
Q

common historical finding in pt w. borderline pd

A

childhood trauma

59
Q

7 environmental factors associated w. oppositional defiant disorder

A

insecure attachment
unresponsive parents
maternal aggression
abuse
community violence
parental psychopathology
peer rejection

60
Q

what differentiates mild vs mod vs severe oppositional defiant d.o

A

number of settings where symptoms take place (1 vs 2 vs 3)

61
Q

3 comorbidities mc associated w. PTSD

A

anxiety
dpn
SUD

62
Q

mc rf for schizophrenia

A

positive fam hx

63
Q

which 2 personality d.o’s are associated w. lack of empathy for others

A

narcissistic
antisocial

64
Q

1st line pharm for social anxiety d.o (aka social phobia)

A

SSRI or SNRI

65
Q

for dx of social anxiety d.o (social phobia) in children, anxiety must occur in _ settings rather than exclusively w. adults

A

peer

66
Q

5 symptoms of irritable/expansive mood in cyclothymia

A

increased goal-directed behavior
decreased need for sleep
inflated self-esteem
talkative
distractibility

67
Q

6 symptoms of depressed mood in cyclothymic d.o

A

lack of interest
increased/decreased sleep
increased/decreased appetite
poor self esteem
guilt
sadness

67
Q

6 symptoms of depressed mood in cyclothymic d.o

A

lack of interest
increased/decreased sleep
increased/decreased appetite
poor self esteem
guilt
sadness

68
Q

t/f: for dx of cyclothymic d.o, pt must have both hypomanic and depressive symptoms

A

t!

69
Q

for dx of cyclothymic d.o in children, symptoms must be present for _

A

a full year

2 years for adults

70
Q

what type of anemia is assocaited w. AUD

A

macrocytic (MCV > 96 fL)

71
Q

3 causes of macrocytic anemia

A

etoh
folate deficiency
B12 deficiency

72
Q

which ion channel is associated with benzo MOA

A

Cl

73
Q

which 3 SGAs cause the least amt of weight gain

A

ziprasidone
aripiprazole
lurasidone

74
Q

5 types of specific phobias

A

animal
natural environment
blood-injection-injury
situational
other: choking/vomiting/loud sounds/clowns

75
Q

3 examples of situational phobias

A

airplanes
elevators
enclosed spaces

76
Q

t/f: most youths have multiple specific phobias

A

t!

77
Q

5 sx of cannabinoid hyperemesis syndrome

A

n/v
abdominal pain
bloating
diaphoresis
wt loss

78
Q

what relieves sx of cannabinoid hyperemesis syndrome and can aid in the diagnosis

A

relief of symptoms w. hot showers

79
Q

4 complications of cannabinoid hyperemesis syndrome

A

mallory-weiss tear
AKI
hypovolemia
rhabdo

80
Q

tx for cannabinoid hyperemesis syndrome

A

rehydration
bowel rest
haldol
capsaicin

81
Q

what differentiates cyclic vomiting syndrome from cannabinoid hyperemesis syndrome

A

presence of a psychological stressor as trigger

82
Q

common s.e of first gen antipsychotics

A

extrapyramidal
TD

83
Q

management of RLS (4)

A

iron replacement
behavior mod
pramipexole/ripinirole
gabapentin

84
Q

exacerbations of RLS (3)

A

antihistamines
dopamine antagonists
antidepressants

85
Q

5 common symptoms of conversion d.o

A

weakness/paralysis
visual
speech
globus sensation
abnormal movement
nonepileptic sz

86
Q

4 known triggers for conversion d.o

A

traumatic injury
neurologic illness
interpersonal conflict
life stress

87
Q

major way in which conversion d.o is differentiated from factitious d.o and malingering

A

conversion d.o symptoms are unconsciously produced

88
Q

cannabis can be detected for up to _ days in non chronic users

A

30

89
Q

rf for ASD

A

male
advanced parental age
fam hx
genetics
brain abnormalities

90
Q

most sedating SSRI

A

paroxetine

91
Q

SSRI most associated w. GI sx

A

fluvoxamine

92
Q

what 2 medications are appropraite for etoh dependence

A

disulfram
naltrexone

93
Q

delirium tremens may start after _ hr of etoh withdrawal

A

48 hr

94
Q

sympathomimetic toxidrome is associated w. what 2 substances

A

cocaine
amphetamines

95
Q

drug to avoid for bp control in sympathomimetic toxidrome

A

bb

due to unopposed alpha receptor stimulation

96
Q

what drug is used for bp control in sympathomimetic toxidrome

A

lorazepam

97
Q

what do you think when you see: mydriasis, diaphoresis, hyperthermia, htn, tachy, increased bowel sounds

A

sympathomimetic toxidrome

98
Q

how does sympathomimetic toxidrome differ from anticholinergic toxidrome (2)

A

anticholinergic toxidrome has:
dry skin
decreased bowel sounds

99
Q

what psychiatric med is contraindicated in eating disorders

A

bupropion

lowers sz threshold