Rosh Material #3 Flashcards

(91 cards)

1
Q

age requirements for dx of antisocial pd

A

adults >18 w. symptoms occurring since age 15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

t/f: pharm is not generally recommended for antisocial pd

A

t!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

categories of EPS

A

dystonia
parkinsonism
akathisia
TD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

compulsive repetitive motions
agitation

A

akathisia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

lip smacking
worm-like tongue movements
fly-catching

A

TD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

pharm for acute dystonias (spasms of tongue, neck, face, back)

A

diphenhydramine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

tx for akathisia

A

propranolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

tx for parkinsonism EPS

A

amantadine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

parenteral exposure to what agent is associated w. development of ADHD

A

tobacco

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

which SSRI is most likely to cause weight gain

A

paroxetine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

which SSRI has the longest half life

A

fluoxetine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

s.e of TCAs

A

anticholinergic: can’t see, pee, spit, shit
antihistamine: drowsy, weight gain, confusion
cardiac: prolonged QT, orthostatic hypotn, tachy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

moa for TCAs

A

inhibition of reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

pscyh comorbidity mc associated w. illness anxiety d.o

A

gad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

which antidepressant is best for neuropathic pain

A

duloxetine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

staging of anorexia

A

extreme: BMI < 15
severe: BMI 15-15.99
moderate: BMI 16-16.99
mild: BMI > 17

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what personality d.o is mc associated w. bulimia nervosa

A

borderline pd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

which SGA is associated w. hyperprolactinemia, amenorrhea, and hypogonadism

A

risperidone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

which SGA has lowest probability of hyperprolactinemia, amenorrhea, and hypogonadism

A

aripiprazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

t/f: antipsychotics are most effective for treating negative sx of schizophrenia

A

f!

negative sx don’t respond well to pharm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

which pd is associated w. increased risk for suicide

A

borderline pd
antisocial pd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

mc adverse effect of lithium

A

nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

most effective tx for severe refractory psychiatric conditions

A

ECT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

indications for ECT

A

-refractory/resistant
-need rapid response - ex pregnant/suicidal intent/food refusal
-contraindications to pharm
-previous response to ECT
psychotic features
-catatonia
-persistent suicidal intent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
first line tx for cyclothymic d.o
lithium
26
what drug produces the metabolite benzoylecgonine
cocaine
27
criteria used to dx serotonin syndrome
hunter
28
what are the second gen antidepressants
SSRIs SNRIs
29
what are the atypical antidepressants
mirtazapine bupropion agomelatine
30
what are the serotonin modulator antidepressants
nefazodone trazodone
31
name 2 MAOIs
phenelzine isocarboxazid
32
name 2 SNRIs
duloxetine venlafaxine
33
what are the SSRIs
citalopram escitalopram sertraline paroxetine fluoxetine fluvoxamine
34
assessment tool for postpartum dpn
edinburgh postnatal depression scale
35
mainstay tx of smoking cessation in pregnant women
non pharm: behavioral interventions
36
what psychiatric condition is mc associated w. panic d.o
mdd
37
avoidance of occupational activities that may involve criticism
narcissistic pd
38
self mutilation and increased suicide risk
borderline pd
39
2 antipsychotics that are best for pt w. hx of substance abuse
risperidone aripiprazole
40
name 4 first gen antipsychotics
haldol chlorpromazine perhenazine thiothixene
41
what distinguishes adjustment d.o from anxiety d.o, mood d.o, and stress d.o
adjustment d.o's are completely situational
42
3 red flags for bipolar d.o w. mixed features
agitation anxiety irritability
43
best type of therapy for panic d.o
CBT: -teaching the pt about nature of d.o and encouraged to keep mood diary and record of attacks -breathing techniques/muscle relaxation -address maladaptive thoughts -exposure in a graduated manner
44
2 stages of sleep
NREM REM
45
divisions of NREM sleep
N1 N2 N3
46
lightest stage of sleep theta waves
N1
47
longest percentage of total sleep is stage
N2
48
benzos are associated with increased _ stage of sleep
NREM - N2
49
deep sleep/slow wave sleep delta waves
NREM - N3
50
sleep spindles and K complexes
NREM - N2
51
in what stage of sleep do parasomnias occur
NREM - N3
52
low voltage sawtooth waves atonia
REM sleep
53
vivid dreaming is associated w. what stage of sleep
REM
54
moa for stimulants
dopamine and NE reuptake inhibitors
55
moa for atomoxetine
selective NE reuptake inhibitor
56
what 2 drugs used for ADHD are alpha 2 adrenergic agonists
guanfacine clonidine
57
functional GI d.o in which ingested food regurgitates into the mouth after meals
rumination syndrome
58
management of rumination syndrome
diaphragmatic breathing baclofen
59
what med used for bipolar can cause neural tube defects/spina bifida
carbamazepine
60
2 serious s.e of carbamazepine
agranulocytosis SJS/TEN
61
moa for varenicline
blocks nicotinic Ach receptors -> decreased craving and withdrawal sx
62
s.e of varenicline
n/v ha insomnia appetite changes abnormal dreams altered mood dpn/suicidality psychosis
63
t/f: ketamine has proven efficacy in decreasing suicidal ideation in suicidal pt's
t!
64
initial tx for somatic sx d.o and illness anxiety d.o
regularly scheduled visits w. clinician
65
acute side effects of inhalants
lethargy confusion HA sz CNS dpn ventricular tachydysrhythmias myocarditis sudden cardiac death pneumonitis hypoxia
66
4 s.e of chronic inhalant use
leukoencephalopathy myeloneuropathy sensorimotor peripheral neuropathy hepatotoxicity
67
risk of carbamazepine toxicity is increased in pt's who are _ positive
HLA-B*1502
68
tx for cannabis withdrawal for patients who are experiencing negative effects in work/school/relationships
donabinol gabapentin +/- zolpidem if insomnia
69
which antidepressant requires discontinuation x 5 weeks before initiating an MAOI
fluoxetine
70
if you have to use pharm for mood stabilization in pregnancy, what med do you choose
lamotrigine
71
what mood stabilizer has the highest risk for congenital malformations
valproate
72
childhood lifetyle behavior that increases the risk of panic d.o as an adult
childhood smoking
73
moa for bupropion
DA and NE reuptake inhibitor
74
in order for dx of ASD, what 2 factors must be present
-atypical social communication/interaction AND -narrow/restricted/repetitive patterns of interests or activities
75
which segment of the brain is responsible for processing fear
amygdala
76
hyperactivity in the amygdala is associated with what 2 psychiatric conditions
specific phobia PTSD
77
_ has been associated w. a greater risk of relapse or recurrence of mdd after successful tx
childhood maltreatment
78
the risk of recurrence of mdd is greatest w.in _ after treatment
the first few months
79
what do you think when you see a patient who is distressed by violent images of himself driving a vehicle over his partner of 5 years - he has never been violent and is very loving
OCD obsessions: recurrent and persistent impulses, thoughts, or images
80
what medication has been shown to aid in weight gain and decrease symptoms of obsesiveness that are commonly associated w. anorexia
olanzapine
81
general SSRI dosing for gad
half the starting dose that is used for dpn
82
phobia that results from being involved in a specific situation
direct conditioning
83
phobia that develops as a result of observing or seeing someone react to a situation
vicarious acquisition
84
phobia that develops as a result of hearing stories about something happening
informational transmission
85
3 possible findings of schizophrenia on imaging
excess synaptic pruning ventricular enlargement gray matter loss
86
cyanosis that does not improve w. supplemental O2
methemoglobinemia
87
management of methemoglobinemia
supportive care supplemental O2 methylene blue
88
4 PE findings of methemoglobinemia
ABG O2 sat normal pulse ox ~85% chocolate blood cyanosis
89
causes of methemoglobinemia
amyl nitrite dapsone nitrates antimalarials -aines naphthalene (moth balls)
90
what rxn mediates the formation of methemoglobinemia from amyl nitrite exposure
oxidation
91
what differentiates sleep terrors from nocturnal panic attacks
with sleep terrors: non REM sleep arousal associated confusion/unresponsiveness amnesia for the attack