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SEM VI - RAD REVIEW > Saia Unit 1 > Flashcards

Saia Unit 1 Flashcards

1
Q

communication

A

to convey info accurately, can be verbal or nonverbal

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2
Q

verbal communication

A

tone, pitch and volume

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3
Q

nonverbal communication

A

eye contact, touch, appearance, listening skills, attitude

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4
Q

assertive

A

calm, firm expression of feelings/opinions

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5
Q

aggressive

A

undesirable behavior characterized by anger or hostility

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6
Q

personal space

A

the distance around someone that is considered to be private

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7
Q

social space

A

4-12 feet

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8
Q

personal space is usually

A

18”-4’

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9
Q

intimate space

A

up to 18”

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10
Q

challenges to communication

A

culture, age (peds, geriatrics), language barriers, gender

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11
Q

ethnocentrism

A

the belief that ones own cultural values are superior to others

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12
Q

aphasia or dysphasia

A

an abnormal neurological condition in which language function is defective or absent because of an injury to certain areas of the brain

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13
Q

altered states of consciousness

A

drowsy, unconscious, comatose

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14
Q

drowsy

A

will respond to stimulus

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15
Q

unconscious

A

won’t respond to stimulus

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16
Q

comatose

A

unconscious for 24 hours

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17
Q

the grieving process

A

denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance

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18
Q

radiographs belong to the institution, not the patient

A

the patient owns the results of the study

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19
Q

radiographs must be kept for a minimum of

A

5-7 years

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20
Q

sentinel event

A

error that happens in health care that causes serious injury or death to patient

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21
Q

proper body alignment, movement, and balance are necessary to

A

prevent injury to either the health care worker or patient

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22
Q

base of support

A

portion of body in contact with the ground

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23
Q

center of gravity

A

point around which body weight is balanced

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24
Q

line of gravity

A

from combined center of gravity through base of support

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25
Q

ambulatory patient

A

can walk and move with little to no assistance

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26
Q

immobile patient

A

cannot walk, move, or assist in transfer

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27
Q

paraplegia

A

paralysis from the waist down

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28
Q

hemiplegia

A

paralysis on one side of the body

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29
Q

quadriplegia

A

paralysis from the neck down

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30
Q

orthostatic hypotension

A

feeling of lightheadedness upon standing after being recumbent (due to sudden drop in blood pressure)

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31
Q

syncope

A

sensation of feeling faint

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32
Q

ataxia

A

uncoordinated movement

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33
Q

fall risk

A

person w/increased likelihood of falling

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34
Q

stretcher to table or bed transfer

A

all wheels locked, assistance from others,, preferred two people on each side with slider board or draw sheets

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35
Q

wheelchair to table/bed transfer

A

wheelchair locked placed parallel to table with “strong” leg closest to table, tech standing with legs between footrests to support and lift into upright position (squat, lift w/legs)

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36
Q

transfer from wheelchair to stool

A

should only be done with patients who are able to assist

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37
Q

basic log roll

A

patients hands across chest, two people on each side of patient and one maintaining proper head/neck alignment, sheets wrapped tightly around patient and rolled. reinforce with sheets/pillows

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38
Q

microorganisms

A

living organisms too small to be seen with the naked eye

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39
Q

pathogens

A

microorganisms that cause infection and disease (bacteria, virus, protozoa, fungi, prions)

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40
Q

bacteria

A

single celled organisms with a cell wall which can grow independently without a host, classified by shape (spherical, rod-shaped, spiral)

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41
Q

spherical bacteria

A

cocci - staphylcoccus (staph)

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42
Q

rod shaped bacteria

A

bacilli - tubercle bacili (tb)

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43
Q

spiral shaped bacteria

A

spirilla - syphillis

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44
Q

bacterial spores

A

endospores (exospores), “waxy coat” which protects the bacteria within

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45
Q

tuberculosis

A

bacterial disease airborne spread, formerly known as consumption

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46
Q

antibiotic resistant bacterial strains

A

MRSA, VRE, C Dif

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47
Q

Virion

A

fully developed viral particle

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48
Q

virus

A

sub-cellular organisms with no cell wall

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49
Q

syndrome

A

a collection of symptoms

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50
Q

blood borne pathogens are most commonly contracted by

A

IDU’s (intravenous drug users)

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51
Q

in 1991 OSHA mandated that healthcare workers be provided with

A

the Hep B immunization

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52
Q

fungi single celled

A

yeast - bud cells

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53
Q

fungi long strands

A

mold - many cells

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54
Q

protozoa

A

complex, single celled animals classified by motility

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55
Q

changing shape

A

psuedopods

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56
Q

cilia

A

little hairs

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57
Q

flagella

A

whip like tail

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58
Q

prions

A

smallest of ll known pathogen, do not have dan/rna

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59
Q

cycle of infection

A

infectious agent, reservoir of infection, portal or exit, mode of transmission, portal of entry, susceptible host

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60
Q

infectious agent

A

pathogen

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61
Q

reservoir of infection

A

where pathogens can thrive in numbers to pose a threat

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62
Q

portal of exit

A

how pathogens leave the infected hosts body

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63
Q

mode of transmission

A

how pathogen travels from one body to another

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64
Q

portal of entry

A

how pathogen enters another persons body

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65
Q

susceptible host

A

person who can be infected by pathogen

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66
Q

direct contact transmission

A

skin to skin, mouth to mouth, mucous membrane to membrane, sexual contact

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67
Q

fomite

A

an indirect mode of transmission, an inanimate object

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68
Q

vector

A

indirect, insect or tick, an indirect mode of transmission

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69
Q

vehicle

A

a medium for transport such as food, water, blood, indirect

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70
Q

droplet

A

indirect. cough, sneeze, travel short distances, contacts membranes of new person

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71
Q

airborne

A

indirect, dust and spores, can stay in the air a long time, very, very small

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72
Q

portals of entry/exit

A

mucous membranes/eyes, nose, mouth, skin, open sores, respiratory systems, airborne, go systems, ingestion, fecal. urinary system, urine, circulatory system, wounds, reproductive system, semen, vaginal

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73
Q

immune system

A

bodys defense against disease causing microorganisms (pathogens), foreign tissues, and body own cells that have turned cancerous

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74
Q

nonspecific immunity (innate immunity)

A

generalized protection such as tears, mucous secretion, phagocytosis, inflammatory response

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75
Q

the 4 hallmarks of inflammation

A

calor, dolor, rubor, edema

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76
Q

calor

A

heat due to increased blood flow

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77
Q

dolor

A

pain

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78
Q

rubor

A

redness

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79
Q

edema

A

exudate from blood stream

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80
Q

specific immunity (adaptive immunity)

A

requires a previous exposure to the pathogen; first exposure = sick, second = not sick

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81
Q

specific immunity types

A

natural, active, passive

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82
Q

natural immunity

A

just happens as a result of living

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83
Q

active immunity

A

individual immune system response to pathogen (measles - only get once)

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84
Q

passive immunity

A

mothers milk, antibodies from mom to infant

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85
Q

artificial immunity

A

man made (vaccinations)

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86
Q

antibodies

A

destroys and/or inactivates antigens

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87
Q

antigens

A

foreign substance in body

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88
Q

complement protiens

A

inactive enzymes normally present in blood, when activated kill foreign cells by dissolving

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89
Q

combining sites

A

concave areas on antibodies that fir the precise size and shape of a marker molecule

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90
Q

marker molecules

A

fragments of dna that make an antigen unique

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91
Q

antibodies

A

bind with antigens, :lock and key:

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92
Q

complement proteins

A

enzymes normally found in blood

93
Q

immune system cells

A

phagocytes, lymphocytes

94
Q

lymphocytes

A

develop from stem cells in bone marrow

95
Q

medical asepsis

A

reduces the probability of infection by reducing the numbers of microorganisms present (very clean but not sterile)

96
Q

surgical asepsis

A

sterilization

97
Q

isolation

A

transmission based precaution

98
Q

airborne precaution

A

high filtration masks required

99
Q

droplet precaution

A

standard surgical masks

100
Q

contact precaution

A

gown, gloves, hat, footies

101
Q

sterilization

A

the absence of all microorganisms, methods include: chemical, autoclaving, conventional gas, gas plasma, dry heat

102
Q

sterility indicators

A

indicators on both the inside and outside of object/pack t prove that an item has been sterilized

103
Q

biological indicators

A

indicator used to prove an item has been sterilized, closed containers that hold nonpathogenic spore forming bacilli (each resistant to a specific sterilization procedure)

104
Q

sterile fields

A

microorganism free work area

105
Q

input and output

A

I&O, monitoring a patients intake and output (what they eat/drink and how/when the expel)

106
Q

urinary catheter

A

inserted through the urethra into the bladder

107
Q

condom catheter

A

slips of the penis which then drains to a collection bag

108
Q

incontenence

A

loss of bladder and/or bowel control

109
Q

ostomy

A

opening to

110
Q

colostomy

A

opening from the colon to outside the body

111
Q

ileostomy

A

opening from the ileum to outside the body

112
Q

kyphosis

A

exaggerated curvature

113
Q

lordosis

A

exaggerated curvature

114
Q

vital signs

A

collection of primary mechanisms that adapt to internal or external fluctuations and adjust according to maintain homeostasis

115
Q

homeostasis

A

balance or maintaining of the internal environment of the body

116
Q

purpose of vital signs

A

to provide a fast set if objective data regarding the patients condition

117
Q

vital signs include

A

tempurature, pulse, blood pressure, respiratory rate

118
Q

level of consciousness

A

alert, drowsy, unconscious, comatose

119
Q

body temperature

A

normal is 98.6F but can fluctuate by about a degree

120
Q

body temperature above 99.5

A

fever or febrile

121
Q

body temperature below 97.7

A

hypothermia

122
Q

thermoregulation

A

the bodies adaptive abilities to extreme external variations

123
Q

body temperature regulation is primarily controlled by

A

the hypothalamus gland

124
Q

if the body temperature is too high

A

vasodilation, sweating

125
Q

if the body temperature is too low

A

vasoconstriction, shivering

126
Q

oral thermometers are

A

blue in color, are longer, thinner glass bulb

127
Q

rectal thermometers

A

red in color, shorter, bulkier glass and bulb

128
Q

respiratory system is responsible for

A

oxygenation of the blood, carrying oxygen throughout the body and expelling carbon dioxide from the body

129
Q

one respiration is composed of

A

one inspiration and expiration

130
Q

normal respiratory rate for adults is

A

12-20/min

131
Q

normal respiratory rate for child (under 10)

A

20-30/min

132
Q

normal respiratory rate for infant

A

30-60/min

133
Q

tachypnea

A

increased respirations above the normal range

134
Q

bradypnea

A

decreased respirations below the normal range

135
Q

dyspnea

A

difficulty breathing

136
Q

apnea

A

absence of breathing

137
Q

pulse rate

A

measurement of heart rate or pumping activity of the human heart

138
Q

pulse can be obtained in the following

A 
radial artery (thumb side of wrist)
brachial artery (front of elbow)
carotid artery (neck)
popliteal (back of knee)
apical (with stethoscope listening to chest wall)
139
Q

normal pulse rate for adults

A

60-100/min

140
Q

normal pulse rate for babies (up to age 1)

A

100-160/min

141
Q

normal pulse rate for children 1-10 years

A

70-120/min

142
Q

normal pulse rate for well conditioned athletes

A

40-60/min

143
Q

tachcardia is over

A

100/min for adults

144
Q

bradycardia is under

A

60/min for adults

145
Q

blood pressure is the measurement of

A

the force of blood on the arterial walls during contraction and relaxation

146
Q

systolic

A

the peak pressure found during the contraction phase of the heart

147
Q

diastolic

A

the pressure found during the relaxation phase of the heart

148
Q

normal blood pressure is considered to be

A

120/80 mm Hg

149
Q

hypertension

A

over 140/90

150
Q

hypotension

A

under 95/60

151
Q

contrast media is used to

A

visualize detail of anatomy

152
Q

differential absorption

A

different materials absorb X-ray energy to differing degrees

153
Q

negative contrast media

A

low atomic numbers
decrease attenuation of the X-ray beam
air/carbon dioxide

154
Q

positive contrast media

A

high atomic numbers
increase attenuation of the X-ray beam
barium (56)
iodine (53)

155
Q

flocculation

A

subject to separation

156
Q

parenteral

A

into or through the skin

157
Q

enteral

A

through the alimentary canal

158
Q

ionic

A

charged particles/molecules

159
Q

nonionic

A

neutral particles/molecules (expensive)

160
Q

osmosis

A

the movement of water to equalize solution levels (water follows salt)

161
Q

Tort -

A

a wrongful act or an infringement of a right (other than under contract) leading to civil legal liability.

162
Q

Assault -

A

the crime of trying or threatening to hurt someone physically.

163
Q

Battery -

A

a criminal offense involving unlawful physical contact, distinct from assault which is the act of creating apprehension of such contact.

164
Q

Defamation -

A

the action of damaging the good reputation of someone

165
Q

Libel -

A

a published false statement that is damaging to a person’s reputation;

166
Q

Slander -

A

the action or crime of making a false spoken statement damaging to a person’s reputation.

167
Q

False imprisonment -

A

a restraint of a person in a bounded area without justification or consent

168
Q

Fraud -

A

deliberate deception to secure unfair or unlawful gain

169
Q

Informed consent -

A

a process for getting permission before conducting a healthcare intervention on a person.

170
Q

Implied consent -

A

consent which is not expressly granted by a person, but rather inferred from a person’s actions and the facts and circumstances of a particular situation (or in some cases, by a person’s silence or inaction).

171
Q

Negligence -

A

failure to use reasonable care, resulting in damage or injury to another.

172
Q

Res Ipsa Loquitur -

A

“the thing speaks for itself.” Refers to situations when it’s assumed that a person’s injury was caused by the negligent action of another party because the accident was the sort that wouldn’t occur unless someone was negligent.

173
Q

Respondeat Superior -

A

“let the master answer”; a legal doctrine which states that, in many circumstances, an employer is responsible for the actions of employees performed within the course of their employment.

174
Q

ASRT Standard of Care -

A

Standards set by the ASRT for professional RTs to follow including guidelines for scope of practice as an RT as well as professional standards practiced by an RT.

175
Q

ARRT Code of Ethics

A

Ethics that are set by the ARRT for those registered to follow in their professional careers.

Both the Code of Ethics (a set of aspirational guidelines) and the Rules of Ethics (mandatory and enforceable standards) are spelled out in the ARRT Standards of Ethics.

176
Q

Plaintiff -

A

a person who brings a case against another in a court of law.

177
Q

Defendant -

A

a person or entity accused of a crime in criminal prosecution or a person or entity against whom some type of civil relief is being sought in a civil case.

178
Q

Expert witness -

A

a person who is permitted to testify at a trial because of special knowledge or proficiency in a particular field that is relevant to the case.

179
Q

Corporate Liability -

A

The legal responsibility of a corporation for criminal actions, or the failure to act in some cases, committed by the company’s employees.

180
Q

Respondeat superior -

A

“let the master answer”; a legal doctrine which states that, in many circumstances, an employer is responsible for the actions of employees performed within the course of their employment

181
Q

Res ipsa loquitur -

A

“the thing speaks for itself.” Refers to situations when it’s assumed that a person’s injury was caused by the negligent action of another party because the accident was the sort that wouldn’t occur unless someone was negligent.

182
Q

Malpractice -

A

professional negligence by act or omission by a health care provider in which the treatment provided falls below the accepted standard of practice in the medical community and causes injury or death to the patient, with most cases involving medical error.

183
Q

Negligence -

A

A failure to behave with the level of care that someone of ordinary prudence would have exercised under the same circumstances.

184
Q

Actions and Inactions (omissions) -

A

something that has not been included or done, something that has been omitted, the act of not including or doing something

185
Q

Malfeasance -

A

wrongdoing, especially by a public official.

186
Q

Misfeasance -

A

a transgression, especially the wrongful exercise of lawful authority.

187
Q

Nonfeasance -

A

the failure to act where action is required - willfully or in neglect.

188
Q

The 4 D’s of Negligence -

A

Duty - something that one is expected or required to do by moral or legal obligation.

Dereliction - the state of having been abandoned and become dilapidated.

Direct cause - The producer of an effect, result, or consequence.

Damages - an award, typically of money, to be paid to a person as compensation for loss or injury.

189
Q

Preponderance of evidence -

A

a standard of proof that must be met by a plaintiff if he or she is to win a civil action.

190
Q

Compensatory damages -

A

A sum of money awarded in a civil action by a court to indemnify a person for the particular loss, detriment, or injury suffered as a result of the unlawful conduct of another.

191
Q

Punitive damages -

A

damages intended to reform or deter the defendant and others from engaging in conduct similar to that which formed the basis of the lawsuit.

192
Q

Nominal damages -

A

Minimal money damages awarded to an individual in an action where the person has not suffered any substantial injury or loss for which he or she must be compensated.

193
Q

Fraud -

A

A false representation of a matter of fact—whether by words or by conduct, by false or misleading allegations, or by concealment of what should have been disclosed—that deceives and is intended to deceive another so that the individual will act upon it to her or his legal injury.

194
Q

Settlement -

A

In law, a settlement is a resolution between disputing parties about a legal case, reached either before or after court action begins

195
Q

Arbitration -

A

The submission of a dispute to an unbiased third person designated by the parties to the controversy, who agree in advance to comply with the award—a decision to be issued after a hearing at which both parties have an opportunity to be heard

196
Q

Mediation -

A

an informal and confidential way for people to resolve disputes with the help of a neutral mediator who is trained to help people discuss their differences.

197
Q

Tort reform -

A

the proposed changes made in the civil justice system that directly reduces tort litigation or damages

198
Q

Confidentiality -

A

A set of rules or a promise that limits access or places restrictions on certain types of information.

199
Q

Scope of practice -

A

describes the procedures, actions, and processes that a healthcare practitioner is permitted to undertake in keeping with the terms of their professional license.

200
Q

Licensure -

A

a restricted practice or a restriction on the use of an occupational title, requiring a license.

201
Q

Certification -

A

refers to the confirmation of certain characteristics of an object, person, or organization.

202
Q

Registration -

A

the action or process of registering or of being registered.

“the registration of births, marriages, and deaths”

203
Q

Veracity -

A

truth or accuracy. : the quality of being truthful or honest.

204
Q

Beneficence -

A

action that is done for the benefit of others, actions that can be taken to help prevent or remove harms or to simply improve the situation of others

205
Q

Nonmaleficence -

A

a principle of bioethics that asserts an obligation not to inflict harm intentionally. It is useful in dealing with difficult issues surrounding the terminally or seriously ill and injured.

206
Q

Privileged communication -

A

communication between parties to a confidential relation (as between physician and patient) such that the recipient cannot be legally compelled to disclose it as a witness

207
Q

Advance directive -

A

legal documents that allow you to spell out your decisions about end-of-life care ahead of time.

208
Q

Living will -

A

a legal document in which a person specifies what actions should be taken for their health if they are no longer able to make decisions for themselves because of illness or incapacity.

209
Q

Durable power of attorney -

A

A legal document that enables an individual to designate another person, called the attorney-in-fact, to act on his/her behalf, even in the event the individual becomes disabled or incapacitated

210
Q

OSHA -

A

Occupational Safety and Health Administration, a federal agency of the United States that regulates workplace safety and health

211
Q

Autonomy -

A

the state of existing or acting separately from others. : the power or right of a country, group, etc., to govern itself.

212
Q

Bias -

A

a tendency to believe that some people, ideas, etc., are better than others that usually results in treating some people unfairly.

213
Q

Discrimination -

A

treatment or consideration of, or making a distinction in favor of or against, a person or thing based on the group, class, or category to which that person or thing belongs rather than on individual merit.

214
Q

Ethnocentric -

A

evaluating other peoples and cultures according to the standards of one’s own culture.

215
Q

Subpoena -

A

A formal document that orders a named individual to appear before a duly authorized body at a fixed time to give testimony.

216
Q

Privileged communication -

A

a communication between parties to a confidential relation (as between physician and patient) such that the recipient cannot be legally compelled to disclose it as a witness

217
Q

Hippocratic Oath -

A

an oath historically taken by physicians. It is one of the most widely known of Greek medical texts. In its original form, it requires a new physician to swear, by a number of healing gods, to uphold specific ethical standards.

218
Q

Euthanasia -

A

the practice of intentionally ending a life in order to relieve pain and suffering.

219
Q

Posthumous -

A

occurring, awarded, or appearing after the death of the originator.
“he was awarded a posthumous Military Cross”

220
Q

Discrimination -

A

treatment or consideration of, or making a distinction in favor of or against, a person or thing based on the group, class, or category to which that person or thing belongs rather than on individual merit.

221
Q

Prejudice -

A

an unfavorable opinion or feeling formed beforehand or without knowledge, thought, or reason.

222
Q

Bias -

A

a tendency to believe that some people, ideas, etc., are better than others that usually results in treating some people unfairly.

223
Q

Racism -

A

the belief that all members of each race possess characteristics or abilities specific to that race, especially so as to distinguish it as inferior or superior to another race or races.

224
Q

Homophobia -

A

dislike of or prejudice against homosexual people.

225
Q

Ethnocentrism -

A

judging another culture solely by the values and standards of one’s own culture

226
Q

Duty -

A

something that one is expected or required to do by moral or legal obligation.

227
Q

Dereliction -

A

the state of having been abandoned and become dilapidated.

228
Q

Direct cause -

A

The producer of an effect, result, or consequence.

229
Q

Damages -

A

an award, typically of money, to be paid to a person as compensation for loss or injury

SEM VI - RAD REVIEW (8 decks)

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