Sciences Flashcards

(229 cards)

1
Q

Empiricism, the idea that all knowledge comes from a sensory experience, built the foundation for which scientific practice that is still used today?

A

The Scientific Method

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2
Q

What is the engineer design process (EDP)

A

a step-by-step process that engineers follow to solve a problem where engineers plan, build and test prototypes to solve the problem

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3
Q

What are the 8 steps of the engineer design process (EDP)

A

Identify the problem, research, brainstorm, decide on a solution, develop solution, build prototype, test prototype, redesign

or simple
Ask, imagine, plan, create, test, improve

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4
Q

What is physics

A

a science that tries to figure out the fundamental laws of the universe in a way that will allow us to make predictions

boils universe down to mathematical laws

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5
Q

How are engineering and physics related

A

you need to understand the laws of physics to design or build things in engineering

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6
Q

What is nanotechnology

A

refers to the creation of artificial structures at the smallest sizes possible

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7
Q

When and who pioneered the internet

A

Tim Berners-Lee in the late 1980’s and early 1990’s

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8
Q

Why would nanotechnology change digital storage technology

A

Writing digital code on smaller areas increases storage capacity.

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9
Q

How has the digital revolution contributed to the obsolescence of file cabinets?

A

Information can be stored digitally, replacing the need to keep physical documents in file cabinet

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10
Q

What is the largest societal concern regarding social media and internet today?

A

privacy

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11
Q

How has science and technology lead to a population boom

A

There are fewer deaths, thanks to farming tech supplying plenty of food and medical tech saving lives

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12
Q

What is science

A

The systematic study of the natural world through observation and experiment

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13
Q

What is the difference between science and technology?

A

Science is the study of the natural world to gain knowledge, and technology is the use of that knowledge for practical purposes.

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14
Q

What is a scientific model?

A

any object or process that is used to simplify the real world

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15
Q

What is the Hardy-Weinberg Theorem

A

A mathematical model that shows the relationship between the alleles present in a population and how likely the population is to change over time

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16
Q

Most living organisms are diploids meaning

A

they have two copies of each chromosome, one from each parent

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17
Q

what is the Hardy-Weinberg Theorem equations?

A

(p+q) = 1
where p = frequency of the dominant allele and q = recessive allele freq
p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1

where p^2 = frequency of the homozygous dominant genotype and q^2 = frequency of the homozygous dominant phenotype and 2pq represents the frequency of the heterozygous phenotype

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18
Q

What are the five assumptions made to limit the Hardy Weinberg Theorem?

A
  1. Mating is always random
  2. Natural selection does not exist.
  3. No alleles ever enter or leave the population.
  4. Mutations do not exist.
  5. There is no genetic drift.
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19
Q

Which answer correctly describes the term q^2 from the Hardy-Weinberg Theorem?

A

q^2 represents the number of homozygous recessive individuals present in a population

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20
Q

This is a process where scientific experts not connected to the study and experiment in question check it for scientific accuracy, proper methodology, and relevancy.

A

peer review

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21
Q

The single greatest thread to biodiversity is_________________.

A

the human alteration of habitats

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22
Q

That activity that has the largest negative human impact on the environment is __________.

A

Agriculture

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23
Q

Agriculture has changed almost __% of global land through the removal of tropical forests and the transformation of natural habitats into farmland

A

38

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24
Q

most governments require an ____________________________ that checks specific precautions before giving permission to proceed with a project that will impact the environment.

A

Environmental Impact Statement (EIS)

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25
What gases primarily make up the Earth's Atmosphere?
Nitrogen and Oxygen
26
What is the greenhouse gas effect
greenhouse effect creates a global insulator that allows in and traps just enough heat from the sun to keep the Earth's temperature stable as it rotates around the sun.
27
What is the theory of demographic transition
a phenomenon and theory in the social sciences referring to the historical shift from high birth rates and high death rates to low birth rates and low death rates as societies attain more technology, education (especially of women), and economic development.
28
What is demography?
the statistical study of human populations
29
What is biomedical progress?
the advances in technology and medicine
30
what is genetic engineering/modification
the manipulation of an organism's DNA
31
What will most likely happen to a population when its size exceeds the carrying capacity of the environment?
the population will decrease
32
The maximum number of individuals that an environment can hold is called the:
carrying capacity
33
As the human population continues to make advances in medicine and technology, what will most likely happen to the growth of the population?
it will increase because life expectancy is increased
34
A single assertion, a proposed explanation of something based on available knowledge, for something yet to be explained, one that is subject to further experimentation is called:
A hypothesis
35
If a statement it statistically significant then
it is unlikely to have occurred due to chance alone
36
37
A key difference between science and religion, astrology, and pseudoscience is that scientific statements are:
falsifiable
38
The systematic investigation of scientific theories and hypotheses is known as:
Scientific research
39
What is the order of the scientific method
Question, background, hypothesis, experiment, empirical data, conclusion
40
At what step in the scientific method does a scientist propose the problem that he or she wants to solve?
the question (not hypothesis)
41
How are question and hypothesis different
question is why we are doing the study and hypothesis is what we believe will happen in the study
42
Which rule keeps you from getting distracted by incorrect choices in a multiple-choice question? (scientific reasoning prep ACT)
scan the table first
43
What is primary research
gives the researcher ownership of the data but may be timely and costly
44
what is an advantage of secondary research
it is easily accessible but the researcher must make sure the data is valid
45
_____ involves the use of data that was collected by someone else for some other purpose.
Secondary data
46
A satellite is ____________-
any object that revolves around another
47
the path that an object takes as it revolves is called its _____________.
orbit
48
What is inertia
a property of matter by which it continues in its existing state of rest or uniform motion in a straight line, unless that state is changed by an external force. something in orbit tends to remain in orbit
49
Why is the backside of the moon never visible
due to synchronous rotation, meaning the moon takes the same time to rotate once on its axis as it does to make a revolution around earth
50
what is an eclipse
when the moon blocks sunlight from earth
51
what phases do eclipses occur in
the new or full moon phases
52
that is a syzygy
In new and full moon phases, the moon, earth, and sun line up in a straight line
53
The changing appearance of the moon as it orbits earth is called ______
phases
54
the is phase 1
the new moon phase
55
what is phase 5
full moon
56
how many phases of the moon are there
5
57
A __________ occurs before a full moon when the lit surface is increasing in size
waxing moon
58
A ___________ occurs after a full moon, when the lit surface of the moon is decreasing in size
waning moon
59
What is the phase when there is 1/4 of the surface lit
waxing/waning crescent
60
What is the phase when there is 1/2 of the surface lit and before a full moon (growing)
first quarter
61
What is the phase when there is 1/2 of the surface lit and after a full moon {decreasing)
third quarter
62
What is the phase when there is 3/4 of the surface lit
waxing/waning gibbous
63
What is a lunar eclipse?
when the earth blocks the sunlight from reaching the moon (0-3) times per year
64
When does a lunar eclipse happen
when the mood passes behind the earth partially or totally
65
The moon's phases depend on its
orbit, sun, earth and its rotation
66
Earth's only natural satellite is
the moon
67
What is revolution?
the motion of an object as it moves around another object in an orbit
68
what is rotation
the spinning motion of an object on its axis
69
Without the ___________________ from the Sun, the planets, including Earth, will simply move in a straight line.
gravitational pull
70
What is orbital eccentricity
deviation of its obrit's shape from a circle
71
Earth is closes to the sun at a point called _____________.
perihelion
72
when is earth's perihelion
January 4th
73
_________ is the point in Earth's orbit that it is most distant from the sun
Aphelion
74
when is earth's aphelion
July 4th
75
How fast does earth rotate on its axis every 24hrs?
1000 mi/her or 1609 km/hr
76
What is an orbital plane ?
an invisible flat disc where all planets in the solar system lie
77
How fast does earth travel as it revolves around the sun
108,000 kilometers per hour
78
Earth's Revolution is responsible for ________________.
seasonal change
79
How long does one revolution around the sun take earth?
365.25 days
80
What is a volcano
a vent or opening in the Earth's crust from which gases and other materials are released
81
hot fluid rock call ________ escapes from a volcano, as ______ during a volcanic eruption
magma, lava
82
How does a volcano erupt?
pressure builds under the Earth's crust from the heat of the magma and the movement of the large pieces of Earth's crust. As the pieces move against one another and the pressure builds, an eruption can occur, releasing lava, gas, and ash.
83
Where do volcanic mountains form?
over a magma camber
84
what is a magma chamber
where liquified rocks and gases collect and pressure builds
85
How do the magma and gas escape from under earth's crust
through a volcanic pipe
86
What is a fissure eruption?
when magma escapes from below the crust with no need for a vent or volcanic pipe through the gaps left in tectonic plates
87
After an eruption a ______ may form on top of the volcano
crater
88
What is the resulting depression of the earth left after an eruption that completely empties the magma chamber called
a caldera
89
What is a lava dome?
which results from thick, gelatin-like lava that does not flow easily. As it cools, it forms a mound of rock, like a cap, on top of the volcano.
90
What is a lava plateau
If the lava from a volcanic eruption is thin and flows easily, it will spread over a wider area and form a lava plateau. This wide, flat area of cooled lava is also called a volcanic plateau.
91
What is a cinder cone volcano?
A cinder cone volcano forms when a volcano erupts forcefully from a vent, and the ash falls back to surround the vent in a cone with a crater in the center.
92
What is a composite volcano
large volcanos with steep sides, tend to be active over a long period of times and have layers of hardened rock and ash mt fuji
93
What is a Maar Diatreme volcano
one that forcefully erupts from a build up of gas
94
What is a shield volcano
a volcano with thin, runny lava that travels far from the eruption site mauna kea and mauna loa
95
What is a lava dome volcano
when a volcano's lava is very thick and forms a pile on top of the volcano
96
where are most volcanos found
in the ring of fire, 75% are here
97
Which geologic activity could be responsible for a fissure eruption from a volcano?
The tectonic plates under the Earth's surface start to move
98
What is soil erosion
its fragmented particles are carried away to distant places by water and wind.
99
What is sheet erosion
takes place after the soil is fully saturated with water, the uniform removal of soil in thin layers, and it occurs when soil particles are carried evenly over the soil surface by rainwater that does not infiltrate into the ground.
100
What is Rill Erosion
the narrow channels that are formed due to the flow of water on barren land surfaces as the water flows downward
101
What is gully erosion
the narrow channels formed from the erosion of dry surface soil They are formed in the region where there is the presence of loose soil and excessive rainfall. The water movement is much faster here, making the channels deeper in comparison to the rill erosion
102
What is bank erosion
the washing away of materials on adjacent sides of the river channel
103
What is wind erosion
the removal of unconsolidated soil particles due to the action of the prevailing wind
104
What is tillage
a mechanical process that makes land suitable for growing crops such as digging and overturning
105
Which type of water erosion results in small, short-lived and well-defined streams?
Rill Erosion
106
Which type of water erosion occurs fairly evenly over an area and might not be noticed until much of the topsoil has been washed away?
Sheet erosion
107
What is weather
a short-term atmospheric condition that occur at any specific moment in time
108
What are some factors that contribute to weather
distance from sun, latitudinal location, air pressure, water
109
What do barometers measure
atmospheric pressure
110
What is climate
the long term weather patterns in a specific area
111
What is the difference in weather and climate
The primary difference between weather and climate is the time frame each of these terms cover. Weather refers to short-term atmospheric conditions, while climate refers to average atmospheric conditions over an extended period of time (ex: 30 years).
112
One reason that Thomas Jefferson is an important figure is because he:
He was one of the first climatologists
113
What are the three physical states of matter
solid, liquid, gas
114
What are physical changes in matter
changes between the states of matter, preserving the chemical identity as the matter changes form i.e. melting ice
115
What is a chemical change in matter
think of it as a new substance being produced, such as burning or rusting
116
What does it mean that matter is conserved in physical and chemical changes?
the amount of matter stays the same
117
What is the law of conservation of energy
states that energy cannot be created no destroyed
118
What is kinetic energy
the energy an object possesses because of its movement
119
what is potential energy
energy that is stored due to an object's position or state of being
120
What is nuclear Fission
when an atom is divided into two by bombarding it with free neutrons. when the nucleus is splitt a large amount of thermal energy is released
121
What is nuclear fusion
When two smaller atoms are combined into one larger atom. Made possible by applying large amounts of heat and pressure on two atoms
122
What i chemical energy
the energy store in the bonds of atoms and molecules
123
What is mechanical energy
energy an object possesses based on its position or movement
124
what is thermal energy
the energy in the movement of an object or system's particles
125
What is nuclear energy
energy stored in the nucleus of an atom that is released when atomic bonds in the nucleus are broken
126
what is electromagnetic energy
energy carried by electromagnetic waves through space, this can include light, microwaves and x-rays
127
What is electrical energy
the energy present in the movement of electrons through a circuit
128
What type of energy transformation best describes the following situation: you jump off a diving board into a swimming pool?
potential to kinetic
129
What is newton's second law
states that the acceleration of an object is dependent on the net force acting on the object and the ass of the object
130
define mass
the quantity of amtter in an object
131
define velocity
the speed of an object in a given direction
132
Define acceleration
the rate at which velocity changes
133
define net force
the sum of all forces acting on an object
134
What is newton's first law of motion
says an object in motion or rest will remain in motion or at rest unless acted upon by an unbalanced force
135
Define force
a quantity with magnitude and direction
136
What is the newtons first law also known as
the law of inertia
137
what is inertia
the resistance an object has to a change in motion
138
What is newton's third law of motion
for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction
139
what is newton's second law of motion
the acceleration of an object is dependent on the net force acting on the object and the mass of the object
140
What is the formula for newton's second law (for force)
force = mass x acceleration
141
What is the formula for acceleration
force / mass = acceleration
142
Newton's second law of motion can best be described as ...
acceleration is directly proportional to the net force acting on an object and inversely proportional to the mass of the object
143
define energy conservation
the prevention of wasteful energy use
144
what is the law of conservation of energy
energy cannot be created nor destroyed
145
What is energy
the ability to do work
146
Work is done when you _______.
apply a force over distance or transfer energy from one place to another
147
The physics definition of energy states that energy ______.
is the currency that allows you to do work
148
In most human situations, energy originates from
the sun
149
Energy isn't created or destroyed; it only___________________.
moves from place to place
150
What are the five characteristics of living things
made up of cells movement use energy and can get energy from a source grow and develop reproduction
151
All living organisms must be composed of at least one ___________ to be living
cell
152
Living organisms are able to use that energy source and carry out chemical processes to produce energy in the form of _________________.
Adenosine triphosphate or ATP
153
What is growth
an organisms ability to get bigger
154
what is development
an orangisms ability to gain new characteristics and abilities
155
What is homeostasis
the maintenance of a stable internal environment i.e. internal body temperature
156
What does response to stimuli mean for something to be living
the thing must react to the environment at some point
157
What is a life cycle
a series of changes that an organism will go through throughout its life, marked by significant stages starting with fertilization and ending with death
158
The cycle of life is ______ to all organisms, and overall stages can change based on the species.
unique
159
What is a complex life cycle
involves drastic changes within the life cycle of an organism. This usually involves drastic physical changes at different life stages and changes of an organism's behavior and habit
160
what is a simple life cycle
involves no drawstic changes in the different stages of an organism. i.e. a flowering plant
161
What are the three main stages of life
egg/seed, juvenile, adult
162
What are the stages in a mammalian life cycle
fertilized egg, infant, adolescent, adult
163
What are the ages of a human life cycle
1. The fertilized egg (0-9 months in utero). 2. Infancy (0-3 years old). 3. Childhood (3-10 years old). 4. Adolescence (10-19 years old). 5. Adult (20+ years old).
164
what is a life span
it is the time it takes for an organism to complete its life cycle
165
What is genetics the study of
the study of genes and DNA
166
What is a chromosome
a linear segment of DNA that contains many genes
167
What are the two main types of chromosomes
sex and body chromosomes
168
What are sex chromosomes
have many genes, but comtain the genes for primary and sext chracteristics
169
what are body chromosomes also known as
autosomes
170
what are body chromosomes
contain the genes necessary for all other aspects of physiology
171
what is a locus
the specific location on a chromosome, it is what scientists use to describe what genes are on a chromosome
172
humans have two copies of each chromosome, called _______
diploid
173
The two corresponding copies of a chromosome are called ____________
homologous
174
Chromosomes that are not part of a set are called ______________.
non-homologous
175
What is a gene
a section of DNA that codes for a particular protein
176
what are the four possible bases (Genes)
Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, Thymine
177
A DNA is a molecule that is made from individual monomers called ____________
nucleotides
178
what do nucleotides contain
sugar, phosphate, and base group
179
Humans have ____ chromosomes and around _________ genes.
46 chromosomes, 20,000 genes
180
What are alleles
a different version of a gene
181
What is the genotype
the genetic makeup of an organism
182
what is a phenotype
the observable traits of a particular organism
183
What is a genome
a complete set of genetic information in an organism
184
When an organism is diploid, that means it has _____.
two versions of each chromosome
185
What is a multifactorial trait
a trait controlled by multiple factors such as genes and the environment
186
What are complex traits
a type of trait that is affected by multiple factores
187
What are the two types of complex traits
multifactorial and polygenic traits what are polygenic traits traits only affected by multiple genes and not the environment may involve many genes at multiple loci
188
How are polygenic and multifactorial genes different
polygenic genes are only impacted by other genes; multifactorial genes can be affects by other genes or factors such as the environment
189
Multifactorial traits are important in humans and have a great influence on our _____________________.
health and appearence
190
What does it mean to be heterozygous (genes)
an individual inherits one recessive allele and one dominant allele
191
What does it mean to be homozygous dominant
An individual inherits two dominant alleles
192
What does it mean to be homozygous recessive
an individual inherits two recessive alleles
193
What is true-breeding
when something is true bred it means their genotypes are known and predictability inherited
194
The study of genetic variation within a population is called ________
population genetics
195
what is evolution
a change in the genetics of a population over time
196
The idea that characteristics an organism acquires during its lifetime can be passed on to its offspring is attributed to the scientist ____________________.
Jean-Baptiste Lamarck
197
What is the theory of heritability of acquired characteristics or Lamarckian inheritance
the idea that characteristics an organism acquires during its lifetime can be passed on to its offspring
198
What did Charles Darwin think about evolution
Only the strong survive
199
What was the difference between Lamarckism and Darwinism?
Lamarck believed that the need for a new trait would promote the evolution of that trait. Darwin proposed that evolution occurred through the selective pressure for a preexisting trait in a population.
200
What are the principles of Darwin's theory of evolution?
Populations evolve rather than individuals Evolution is possible because genetic variation exists within a population Individuals with different genotypes in the population reproduce at different rates
201
What does natural selection mean
members of a population that are more successful at finding food and mates, while also escaping predation or other forms of death, will have more descendants than less successful individuals. These highly successful individuals are known to have a higher fitness rate than their counterparts; hence development of the phrase "survival of the fittest."
202
Wat is evolutionary adaptation
the mechanism by which an animal or plant alters itself to accommodate its changing environment
203
What are the three types of evolutionary adaptation
Behavioral, Physiological, and Structural
204
What is Behavioral Adaptation
The organism changes how it interacts with its surrounding
205
What is physiological adaptation
the organism changes how its body functions internally
206
What is a structural adaptation
The organism changes at least one of its physical features
207
What is an adaptive trait
any genetic characteristic that helps a plant or animal increase its chance at reproducing and generating offspring that can survive as long as possible
208
What is an analogous structure
traits that are similar among different organisms who did not share a common ancestor but did share a common environmental problem
209
Analogous structures are formed through _______________.
Convergent Evolution
210
What are Homologous structures
traits that are similar among animals that do share the same evolutionary ancestor
211
Define ecosystems
the complex whole of organisms living in an area along with their interactions
212
what are food chains
provide a representation of feeding interactions in an ecosystem when organisms are eating or eaten
213
The food chain shows us how _________ through the ecosystem
energy flows
214
What are tropic levels
help us classify where an organism falls within an ecosystem, and understand how they aid in the flow of energy
215
What are autotrophs
organisms that create or produce their own food either through photosynthesis or chemosynthesis
216
The base of the food pyramid contains _____________.
Producers or Autotrophs
217
What are primary consumers?
organisms that feed on producers from the first tropic level, exclusively herbivores (i.e. grasshoppers)
218
What are secondary consumers?
organisms that feed on primary consumers. This is where predator and prey relationships begin to appear (i.e. robins)
219
What are tertiary consumers
organisms that feel on secondary consumers (i.e. rats or snakes)
220
What are quaternary consumers
Apex predators in an ecosystem
221
What are food webs
represent all of the food chains within an ecosystem and show how feeding relationships between organisms are interconnected
222
When energy is transferred between tropic levels, _____ of the energy from the lower topic level will get transferred to the next
10%
223
What can an herbivore be classified as
a primary consumer
224
How many trophic levels does an omnivore feed on within an ecosystem?
omnivores feed on all tropic levels
225
what is chemical equilibrium
when the rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse reaction given the concentrations of products and reactions remain unchanged
226
the concentration of reactants and products that establish equilibrium for a particular chemical reaction is defined by the _____________--
Equilibrium constant (K)
227
What is the equilibrium constant
a number that expresses the ratio of the concentration of products to reactants in a chemical reaction at any given temperatre
228
chemical equilibrium is a _________________, which means adjustments are frequently made in order to keep the concentrations of reactants and products constant with time.
dynamic proccess
229
What do the brackets indicate in an equilibrium equation?