Section 5 Review 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is not considered a component of fitness?

A

Power

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2
Q

A client is performing a dumbbell overhead press exercise. How should the fitness professional spot their client?

A

The fitness professional should spot their client at the wrists.

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3
Q

Which of the following is considered the gold standard measurement for cardiorespiratory fitness?

A

VO2max

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4
Q

What are the recommended training variables for static stretching?

A

1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 30 seconds

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5
Q

This term describes an unstable-but-controlled environment used to improve someone’s static, semi-dynamic, and dynamic balance.

A

Proprioceptively enriched

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6
Q

Which of the following best defines the base of support of the body?

A

The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface

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7
Q

What are the recommended training variables for active stretching?

A

1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 10 repetitions

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8
Q

Stage 3 balance exercise should include what types of motion?

A

Stage 3 balance exercise should include what types of motion?

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9
Q

Which of the following should be considered when determining if a client is ready to undertake plyometric training?

A

Injury history

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10
Q

If forward head posture is permitted during the drawing-in maneuver, what muscle may be preferentially activated, leading to poor muscle balance throughout the spine?

A

Sternocleidomastoid

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11
Q

Which of the fundamental movement patterns is a lower-body compound exercise?

A

Squatting

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12
Q

What does the standing dumbbell lateral raise primarily target?

A

Middle deltoid

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13
Q

Which of the following defines the general goal or outcome of training in zone 1?

A

Develop an appropriate aerobic base

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14
Q

What is a progression for the box jump-down with stabilization?

A

Multiplanar jump with stabilization

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15
Q

Which of the following is not a skill-related concept that would enhance core training?

A

Quickness

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16
Q

Which of the following is characterized as a local muscle of the core?

A

Transverse abdominis

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17
Q

Asking a client to balance on an unstable surface while barefoot would challenge which system?

A

Somatosensory system

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18
Q

How is a general warm-up best defined?

A

Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.

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19
Q

Which sense provides information to the central nervous system about where the body is in space?

A

Visual system

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20
Q

During which exercise will the upper body likely fatigue before the lower body?

A

Squat, curl to two-arm press

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21
Q

Why are plyometrics best performed on grass playing fields, basketball courts, or tartan tracks?

A

The surfaces are more stable, which helps reduce injury risk.

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22
Q

What is defined as the ability to produce and maintain force production for prolonged periods of time?

A

Muscular endurance

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23
Q

Which sense provides information about movement of the head in space?

A

Vestibular system

24
Q

Why does a shorter amortization phase lead to more effective plyometric movement?

A

It causes stored elastic energy to be used more efficiently.

25
You are working with an advanced client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best number of SAQ drills per workout?
6 to 10 drills
26
What are the two primary actions of the Golgi tendon organ?
Sense change in muscle-tendon tension and speed of tension change
27
Which synergist would assist the upper-body pectoral muscles to enhance chest stabilization, strength, or power?
Triceps brachii
28
Which option is a common strength-focused resistance training exercise?
Barbell bench press
29
Which type of scoliosis is influenced by improper muscle balance?
Functional (nonstructural) scoliosis
30
What is the recommended recovery time between bouts of plyometric training for novice clients?
48 to 72 hours
31
For the kinetic chain checkpoints during core exercises, what is the appropriate position of the shoulders?
Depressed and slightly retracted
32
Which of the following is not a skill-related concept that would enhance core training?
Quickness
33
What are the recommended training variables for active stretching?
1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 10 repetitions
34
What term is used for a condition that would make it unsafe for the client to participate in any type of flexibility exercise?
Pattern overload
35
What is a sufficient amount of time for a cardiorespiratory cool-down?
5 to 10 minutes
36
Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve maximal strength adaptations?
5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM
37
Which statement best describes the neurophysiological effect that occurs from myofascial rolling?
The direct roller compression may create tissue relaxation and pain reduction in tissues by stimulating nerve receptors.
38
What would be the back-squat volume for a client who has completed 10 sets of 3 repetitions at 225 pounds?
6,750 pounds
39
Which of the following compensations is most likely considered a predictive factor for developing a knee injury?
Knee valgus
40
What is one advantage of using the Karvonen method (heart rate reserve or HRR) to calculate training heart rates, versus percentage of maximal heart rate (HRmax)?
It accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate.
41
What type of movement happens during the concentric phase of plyometric exercise?
Jump
42
What is the most important reason that a Certified Personal Trainer should make sure an older adult has been cleared by the medical provider to take part in a balance training program?
To ensure safety
43
Speed is the product of what two variables?
Stride rate and stride length
44
Which client position during exercise has been shown to lead to the highest core muscle activity during breathing exercises?
Standing
45
What parameter of Muscular Development Training would be most associated with this style of training?
Growth and volume
46
Which of the following statements most accurately reflects ventilatory threshold one (VT1)?
An intensity where continuous talking becomes challenging
47
What resistance training system involves a progressive or regressive step approach that either increases or decreases weight with each set?
Pyramid system
48
What are ground reaction forces?
Forces imparted on the body when it contacts the ground after jumping
49
What phase of the OPT model aims to increase maximal strength and rate of force production?
Power Training
50
What three joint actions comprise triple flexion?
Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion
51
The risk of which lower-extremity injury was decreased in female basketball athletes who participated in a 5-week balance training program that improved landing movement mechanics?
Anterior cruciate ligament injury
52
How could the personal trainer make the “single-leg throw and catch” balance exercise more difficult for the client?
Increasing the velocity of each throw
53
What is an example of the role of the Certified Personal Trainer in working on balance training with a client?
Prescribing progressive, appropriate balance training exercises with knowledge/awareness of the client's medical history
54
What is defined as the number of strides taken in a given amount of time or distance?
Stride rate
55
Which statement accurately describes the physical benefits of SAQ training?
SAQ training decreases the risk of osteopenia.
56
In what training zone are you exercising at a challenging to hard intensity, where continual talking would become challenging?
Zone 2