SSection 5 Review Flashcards
(251 cards)
1
Q
How could the personal trainer make the “single-leg throw and catch” balance exercise more difficult for the client?
A
Increasing the velocity of each throw
2
Q
You are working with an advanced client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best number of SAQ drills per workout?
A
6 to 10 drills
3
Q
What parameter of Muscular Development Training would be most associated with this style of training?
A
Growth and volume
4
Q
During the cable rotation exercise, which position of the hip will help to decrease stress to the low-back?
A
Hip extension
5
Q
Stage 3 balance exercise should include what types of motion?
A
Hopping motions with a single-leg stance landing
6
Q
What is the most important reason that a Certified Personal Trainer should make sure an older adult has been cleared by the medical provider to take part in a balance training program?
A
To ensure safety
7
Q
Which upper-body yoga stretch is considered controversial and may be a risk for injury?
A
Plow pose
8
Q
Which of these exercises targets the triceps musculature?
A
Close grip bench press
9
Q
How is a general warm-up best defined?
A
Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.
10
Q
What type of movements should be used before progressing to single-foot plyometric exercises
A
Dual-foot drills
11
Q
What are ground reaction forces?
A
Forces imparted on the body when it contacts the ground after jumping
12
Q
If a client is exercising for 150 minutes per week (30 minutes, 5 days per week), then a 10% increase in volume would result in how many minutes total per week?
A
165 minutes per week
13
Q
What is the correct position of the hands during the standing hammer curl exercise?
A
Palms facing inward toward each other
14
Q
Which of the following would not be an example of core musculature to stabilize the trunk and pelvis?
A
Pectoral group
15
Q
What is a characteristic of type I muscle fibers?
A
Type I fibers are “slow twitch.”
16
Q
Which of the following options would be the correct superset for back exercises during Phase 2 of the OPT model?
A
Seated cable row followed by stability ball dumbbell row
17
Q
Which of the following defines the general goal or outcome of training in zone 1?
A
Develop an appropriate aerobic base
18
Q
Why is the shoulder stand yoga pose considered to be a controversial upper-body stretch?
A
This stretch provides excessive stress to the neck, shoulders, and spine.
19
Q
Which benefit listed is not correct regarding resistance training?
A
A decrease in metabolic rate
20
Q
Which muscle acts to increase intra-abdominal pressure?
A
Transverse abdominis
21
Q
A client performs a heavy squat exercise followed by a set of squat jumps. What type of resistance training system is being used?
A
Complex training
22
Q
Which of the following best defines the base of support of the body?
A
The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface
23
Q
Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve maximal strength adaptations?
A
5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM
24
Q
What are two signs of a muscle being overstretched?
A
Prolonged joint or muscle pain lasting more than 24 hours and swelling in the muscle
25
Which statement best describes the local mechanical effect that occurs from myofascial rolling?
Compression to the local myofascia “relaxes” the tissues by increasing local blood flow and reducing myofascial restrictions and adhesions.
26
What is the recommendation of minutes per week for cardiorespiratory training, if participating in vigorous-intensity exercise (e.g., jogging or running)?
75 minutes per week
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27
Which of these approaches is best in terms of safety and performance when using the box jump-up exercise with clients?
Choosing a box height in line with their capabilities
28
Which term best describes motion at the joint surface?
Arthrokinematics
29
What is a key technique consideration during the squat jump with stabilization?
Keeping the knees in line with the toes
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30
What RPE range (on a scale of 1 to 10) aligns with training in zone 2?
An RPE of 5 to 6
31
What is sarcopenia?
Age-related loss of muscle tissue
32
Training to enhance the size of muscle, or an increase in muscle mass, is an example of which improvement of the body?
Muscle hypertrophy
33
Which sense provides information about changes in pressure on the skin, muscle length, and joint angles?
Somatosensory system
34
Through an integrated and systematic approach, which order of phases of training is correct?
Stabilization Endurance, Strength Endurance, Muscular Development, Maximal Strength, and Power
35
Which of the following is considered the gold standard measurement for cardiorespiratory fitness?
VO2max
36
What do the V and P represent within the FITTE-VP principle for designing cardiorespiratory training?
Volume and progression
37
How is VT1 identified when using the talk test during a cardio workout?
Continuous talking becomes challenging
38
During balance training, gluteal muscles should remain in which state to hold the body stable?
Isometrically contracted
39
When a muscle is held during a stretch for a prolonged period, the GTO is activated, which results in the muscle relaxing. What is this action called?
Autogenic inhibition
40
Reactive training is another common name for which type of exercise?
Plyometric training
41
What training stage is ideally suited for new exercisers seeking general health-and-fitness improvements, such as reducing their risk for diabetes?
Stage 1
42
During what phase of the stretch-shortening cycle is stored elastic energy converted to explosive force production?
Amortization
43
What is a progression for the box jump-down with stabilization?
Multiplanar jump with stabilization
44
Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining angular accelerations of the head while bending over to pick something up off the ground.
Vestibular
45
Starting at what percentage of bone density loss does the risk of hip fracture increase by 2.5 times?
10%
46
Which ADL would be most likely to involve the hip hinge?
Cleaning
47
What are the two physiological responses that can occur from myofascial rolling?
Mechanical and neurophysiological response
48
Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining foot position while standing on an unstable surface.
Somatosensation
49
Identify a movement limitation for an individual who walks or runs on a treadmill if he or she presents with an anterior pelvic tilt.
Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back.
50
Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain the center of mass over an ever-changing limit of stability?
Dynamic balance
51
What is an appropriate cue that can be given to a client to properly perform the drawing-in maneuver?
To perform the drawing-in maneuver, pull in the region just below the navel toward the spine.
52
Other than age, training history, and injury history, what screening tool is most beneficial in assessing whether a client is ready for plyometric training?
Movement assessments
53
Posture uses which anatomical landmark in comparison to other positions of the body?
Spine
54
How does the stretch-shortening cycle improve concentric force production?
It builds up elastic energy during the eccentric phase, preloading the muscle.
55
What is the recommended frequency for cardiorespiratory training, if participating in vigorous-intensity exercise (e.g., jogging or running)?
At least 3 times a week
56
Of the following individuals, who would be the most suitable for being programmed SAQ (speed, agility, and quickness) exercises/movements?
A client who has been training for 1 month with adequate strength
57
What best describes triple flexion when referring to frontside mechanics?
Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the lead leg
58
What type of movement happens during the concentric phase of plyometric exercise?
Jump
59
During balance training, gluteal muscles should remain in which state to hold the body stable?
Isometrically contracted
60
Which synergist would assist the upper-body pectoral muscles to enhance chest stabilization, strength, or power?
Triceps brachii
61
What weekly progression rate in exercise volume is the maximum recommended for cardiorespiratory training?
10% per week
62
For an individual training in stage 1, what training volume and frequency would qualify that person to progress to stage 2?
Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 3 times per week
63
Which sense provides information about movement of the head in space?
Vestibular system
64
What is the most appropriate SAQ program design for a beginner adult who is apparently healthy?
4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills
65
What duration does the National Academy of Sports Medicine (NASM) typically recommend for the cardiorespiratory portion of the warm-up?
Between 5 and 10 minutes
66
Which answer best represents the timeframe when delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) occurs after strenuous exercise?
24 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise
67
Balance exercises used for introducing balance training should initially involve little joint motion and improve what type of contractions?
Reflexive (automatic) joint-stabilization contractions
68
Which of the following describes structural scoliosis?
Altered bone shape through the spine
69
Which of the following workout stages can include steady-state exercise?
Stage 2
70
What equation represents power?
Force x velocity
71
What is the term for a postural disturbance being added to a task in order to make the task more difficult?
Perturbation
72
When designing a 4-zone model for cardiorespiratory training, what range of intensity defines zone 2?
From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2
73
Which of the following is considered a component of NEAT?
Walking
74
Which of the following would be the appropriate progression for a core training program to optimize function?
Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency
75
Which of the following global muscles' primary action is hip flexion?
Iliopsoas
76
Why is the arching quadriceps stretch considered a controversial lower-body stretch?
The stretch provides excessive stress on the kneecap and other tissues in the front knee.
77
What are two contraindications for self-myofascial techniques?
Cancer and bleeding disorders
78
What is the superior boundary of the core?
Diaphragm
79
The addition of balance training to a strengthening program can enhance what?
Strength
80
What are the two primary actions of the Golgi tendon organ?
Sense change in muscle-tendon tension and speed of tension change
81
What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for intermediate clients?
0 to 60 seconds
82
Which of the following parts of the body is not subject to increases in density through resistance training?
Nerves
83
Which is involved in frontside mechanics?
Lead leg
84
Which client position during exercise has been shown to lead to the highest core muscle activity during breathing exercises?
Standing
85
Which principle states that soft tissue will model along the lines of stress?
Davis's law
86
What is the Valsalva maneuver?
A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability
87
Which component of SAQ involves the ability to react to a stimulus (i.e., reaction time) and appropriately change the motion of the body in response to that stimulus (such as hitting a baseball)?
Quickness
88
Which of the following statements pertaining to high-intensity interval training (HIIT) is incorrect?
Measuring intensity by one's “effort” (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.
89
Which of the fundamental movement patterns is a lower-body compound exercise?
Squatting
90
Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain postural control within a stationary limit of stability but with a moving base of support?
Semi-dynamic balance
91
Which surface would be the most challenging for a new client starting a balance training program?
BOSU ball
92
When observing sprint mechanics, which joint action should you see occurring in the rear leg if proper form is used?
Ankle plantar flexion
93
Which of the following statements regarding true Tabata training is considered accurate?
The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max.
94
Which three senses are involved in the balance system?
Visual, vestibular, and somatosensory systems
95
What is shortest time period per day that balance training should be conducted 3 times per week for 4 weeks in order to improve both static and dynamic balance ability in children?
10 minutes
96
What is the ability to move the body in one direction as fast as possible?
Speed
97
What does the standing dumbbell lateral raise primarily target?
Middle deltoid
98
What is the best type of plyometric exercise for a beginner client?
Small jumps
99
Which of the following variations of a hop exercise would be the most difficult from a deceleration and balance standpoint?
Multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization
100
What must be sufficient in order to prevent overtraining and injury during a plyometric training regimen?
Recovery
101
What is the definition of kinesiophobia?
Fear of movement
102
What term best describes the amount of mineral content, such as calcium and phosphorous, in a segment of bone?
Bone density
103
What are the recommended training variables for self-myofascial rolling?
1 to 3 sets, hold each tender area for 30 seconds
104
How is nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) best defined?
Energy expenditure through daily activities outside of structured exercise, such as walking, completing household chores, and taking the stairs
105
You have a client seeking weight loss. What is the most appropriate amount of rest recommended between each repetition of an SAQ exercise?
15 to 60 seconds
106
Asking a client to stand on a BOSU ball would provide a major challenge to what system?
Somatosensory
107
If a client is having trouble maintaining form during a tuck jump exercise, what type of regression should be applied?
Adding a stabilization pause between reps
108
You have a client seeking weight loss. What number of repetitions is most appropriate for SAQ drills?
3 to 5 reps
109
What does the acronym FITTE-VP, used to design aerobic (cardio) programs, represent?
Frequency, intensity, type, time, enjoyment, volume, progression
110
When properly activated, which muscle of the core creates tension in the thoracolumbar fascia?
Transverse abdominis
111
What is one advantage of using the Karvonen method (heart rate reserve or HRR) to calculate training heart rates, versus percentage of maximal heart rate (HRmax)?
It accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate.
112
For someone training in the Muscular Development phase, which of the following changes would be optimal?
Body fat loss
113
Which of the following variations of a hop exercise would be the most difficult from a deceleration and balance standpoint?
Multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization
114
Which of the following should be emphasized the most in a core training program?
Quality of movement
115
You are training a youth client. What is the best choice for number of SAQ drills per workout for this athlete?
4 to 8 drills per workout
116
Which exercise is categorized as a total-body movement?
Ball squat, curl to press
117
What type of exercise would be suggested to address overactive, shortened hamstrings?
Flexibility exercises
118
Which lower-body stretch is considered controversial and may be a risk for injury?
Inverted hurdler's stretch for hamstrings
119
Which term describes the act of lightly pushing on a client’s shoulders when they are balancing on one foot so they can learn to maintain or recover balance?
Perturbation
120
What is defined as the distance covered in one stride?
Stride length
121
Which muscle is classified as a local muscle involved in stabilizing the spine?
Multifidus
122
What is a key characteristic of plyometric exercise?
A faster tempo, similar to daily life
123
Which of the following describes a benefit of high-intensity interval training (HIIT)?
It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work.
124
Which type of muscle contraction/action attenuates force through muscle fiber lengthening?
Eccentric action
125
Which balance task would require significant use of the vestibular system?
Squatting on one limb with eyes closed
126
What is defined as the number of foot contacts, throws, or catches occurring during a plyometric exercise session?
Volume
127
What does EMG stand for?
Electromyography
128
Which is not part of triple extension involved in backside sprint mechanics?
Hip abduction
129
What is the physical action in the body during the eccentric phase of the stretch-shortening cycle?
Stretching of the agonist muscle
130
Which of the following is considered a deep muscle of the core?
Rotatores
131
Local muscles typically consist of which type of muscle fibers?
Type I
132
You have a client seeking weight loss. What range of sets is most appropriate for SAQ drills?
3 or 4 sets
133
Which exercise is a total-body power-focused movement?
Two-arm push press
134
The addition of balance training to a strengthening program can enhance what?
Strength
135
When performing a floor bridge exercise, why should you not raise the hips too far off the floor?
It may place excessive stress on the lumbar spine through hyperextension.
136
What is the finished hand position when performing the ball cobra exercise?
Thumbs pointing up
137
What ideally should follow a day of high-intensity training in stage 3?
A stage 1 day (recovery day) should follow a hard stage 3 training day.
138
Posture of the spine is primarily controlled by which muscles of the core?
Local muscles
139
What is the general adaptation syndrome?
The general adaptation syndrome describes the way in which the body responds and adapts to stress.
140
From the list of items provided, which of the following are not considered benefits of cardiorespiratory training?
Decreased tolerance for stress and reduced mental alertness
141
Which option is an inaccurate description of the Valsalva maneuver?
It is a recommended technique for those with hypertension.
142
During the cable rotation exercise, which position of the hip will help to decrease stress to the low-back?
Hip extension
143
Which regions of the spine demonstrate lordotic curves?
Cervical and lumbar
144
Training the eccentric phase of plyometric movements with a new client will help them improve which of the following?
Landing mechanics
145
Why is a jump-down exercise considered more advanced than a jump-up exercise?
Jumping down challenges landing mechanics.
146
What is a sufficient amount of time for a cardiorespiratory cool-down?
5 to 10 minutes
147
To enable weight-loss clients to perform SAQ exercises at a high intensity in a variety of movements, what can fitness professionals create?
Small circuits
148
Susan’s quadriceps have been identified as overactive. What type of flexibility training should be used first to help improve this muscle imbalance?
SMR and static stretching of the quadriceps
149
What type of resistance training exercise best describes a kettlebell bottoms-up movement?
Stabilization-focused exercise
150
What is pertinent information for the fitness professional to consider before prescribing flexibility exercises?
Any medical precautions or contraindications
151
What is the general recommended rest for advanced clients between SAQ reps?
0 to 90 seconds
152
Which of the following does plyometric training help increase?
Motor unit recruitment
153
Which benefit will positively affect the body through integrated training?
Improved sleep
154
Which exercise is categorized as a total-body movement?
Ball squat, curl to press
155
Which of the following does not meet the criteria for exercise or activity to be considered aerobic?
The exercise is intense.
156
What is the recommended number of SAQ sessions per week for weight-loss clients?
1 or 2 sessions per week
157
Which sense provides information to the central nervous system about where the body is in space?
Visual system
158
What is the intended outcome of stage 2 training?
To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness
159
The development of muscular endurance of the legs requires light weights and high repetitions when performing leg-related exercises. What is this an example of?
Mechanical specificity
160
Most exercises and motions of the body regularly occur in which plane of motion?
Sagittal
161
Why are proper frontside mechanics in sprinting important?
Frontside mechanics align the lead leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward.
162
When a muscle is held during a stretch for a prolonged period, the GTO is activated, which results in the muscle relaxing. What is this action called?
Autogenic inhibition
163
Your client Ethan presents with an overactive/shortened quadriceps group, which is causing the hamstrings to be underactive/lengthened. What is this phenomenon called?
Altered reciprocal inhibition
164
With SAQ training, what is the recommended number of sets of each drill for young athletes to perform?
1 to 4 sets
165
Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the global muscles of the core?
Back extension
166
Which of the following describes a benefit of high-intensity interval training (HIIT)?
It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work.
167
Which of the following phases does reflect the traditional components of cardiorespiratory training?
Cool-down phase
Warm-up phase
Conditioning phase
168
What three joint actions comprise triple flexion?
Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion
169
Which of the following statements most accurately reflects ventilatory threshold one (VT1)?
An intensity where continuous talking becomes challenging
170
Which predominant anatomical position of muscle groups would be enhanced by using pulling motions?
Posterior
171
What is defined as the body’s ability to provide optimal dynamic joint support to maintain correct posture during all movements?
Stabilization
172
Why might range of motion (ROM) be limited for a client?
Previous injury
173
Which of the following examples of training exercises is a form of cardiorespiratory fitness?
Jogging/running
Sports competition
Rowing
174
Which statement accurately describes the physical benefits of SAQ training?
SAQ training decreases the risk of osteopenia
175
Which pressing exercise would be appropriate for someone who has high levels of upper-body strength but has no equipment because they are traveling?
Handstand push-up
176
Which postural deviation is most likely to negatively impact ventilation?
Rounded shoulders and a forward head posture
177
What is an example of the role of the Certified Personal Trainer in working on balance training with a client?
Prescribing progressive, appropriate balance training exercises with knowledge/awareness of the client's medical history
178
Improving this using balance training would most likely decrease the risk of injury.
Injury resistance
179
What phase of plyometric movement is also referred to as the electromechanical delay?
Amortization
180
Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the local muscles of the core?
Side plank
181
Which of the following defines the center of gravity of the body?
The approximate midpoint of the body
182
What is the best type of plyometric exercise for a beginner client?
Small jumps
183
Repeat squat jumps are a progression for which of the following exercises?
Multiplanar jump with stabilization
184
Other than age, training history, and injury history, what screening tool is most beneficial in assessing whether a client is ready for plyometric training?
Movement assessments
185
What differentiates change of direction from agility?
Reaction to a signal
186
What is the best next progression for a client who can properly perform the power step-up exercise?
Ice skaters
187
Which term best describes the ability to contract muscles of the core with force in an effort to flex the trunk during a slow controlled movement?
Core strength
188
Shorter reaction times during amortization may help reduce which of the following?
Tissue overload
189
What is an example of an individual in the alarm reaction stage of the general adaptation syndrome?
The person is experiencing delayed-onset muscle soreness.
190
In what training zone would you be exercising at a vigorous to very hard intensity, where talking is limited to infrequent, short phrases?
Zone 3
191
What term refers to the ability of a test to produce consistent and repeatable results?
Reliability
192
Which muscles are typically underactive in association with pes planus distortion syndrome?
Anterior and posterior tibialis, and gluteus maximus and medius
193
Which of the following is a recommendation when assessing skinfold measurements?
Take a minimum of two measurements at each site; each measurement must be within 1 to 2 mm to take an average at each site
194
Which test provides the most personalized assessment of an individual's true metabolic function?
Ventilatory threshold (VT1) test
195
Which muscles are typically underactive when the feet turn out?
Anterior and posterior tibialis
196
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment?
Gluteus maximus
197
Which of the following statements defines the chest skinfold location for men?
A diagonal fold taken half the distance between the anterior axillary line and the nipple
198
What is the definition of anthropometry?
The field of study of the measurement of living humans for purposes of understanding human physical variation in size, weight, and proportion
199
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pushing assessment?
Lower trapezius
200
Which of the following waist-to-hip ratios (WHRs) places Amy (a female) in the high-risk category for cardiovascular disease?
WHR of 0.88
201
Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat?
Adductor complex
202
Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to arms falling forward during the overhead squat assessment?
Latissimus dorsi
203
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment?
Gluteus maximus
204
Which muscles are typically underactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat?
Gluteus maximus and medius
205
What is the complete transition from eccentric to concentric muscle actions known as?
Stretch-shortening cycle
206
Speed is the product of what two variables?
Stride rate and stride length
207
The core is defined by the muscles in which region of the body?
Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex region
208
Why are plyometrics best performed on grass playing fields, basketball courts, or tartan tracks?
The surfaces are more stable, which helps reduce injury risk.
209
Which physiological systems comprise the human movement system (HMS)?
The muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems
210
What is the concentric motion of the shoulder blades during the standing cable row exercise?
Retraction
211
Which benefit listed is correct regarding resistance training?
A decrease in heart rate/pulse at rest
Increased hypertrophy (size increase) of muscle fibers
A reduction in blood pressure at rest
212
Which of the following is considered a benefit of performing a warm-up prior to cardiorespiratory training?
Increased respiratory rate and tissue temperature
213
What phase of the OPT model aims to maximize prime-mover strength through the lifting of heavy loads?
Maximal Strength Training
214
What is the weekly total of time recommended for cardiorespiratory training if participating in moderate-intensity exercise like brisk walking?
150 minutes per week
215
What concern should you have when prescribing flexibility exercises to a client with osteoporosis?
Osteoporosis is considered a contraindication to myofascial rolling.
216
Implementing exercise concepts like core, balance, and agility training with resistance training methods indicates what style of training?
Integrated training
217
Which term specifically describes motor function of muscles in the lower extremity?
Neuromuscular function
218
If a muscle is stretched too quickly, the muscle responds with an immediate contraction to stop the stretch. What is this specific action called?
Stretch reflex
219
What is the correct order of the phases of plyometric exercise?
Eccentric loading, amortization, concentric unloading
220
With SAQ training, what is the recommended number of sets of each drill for young athletes to perform?
1 to 4 sets
221
What is an example of an external factor that may influence the risk of falling in older adults?
The environment
222
What is the primary function of the global muscles of the core?
Force production during dynamic whole-body movements
223
Repeat squat jumps are a progression for which of the following exercises?
Multiplanar jump with stabilization
224
Which type of training can be used to improve activation of core muscles compared to traditional core training?
Instability training using a stability ball
225
What type of exercise would be suggested to address overactive, shortened hamstrings?
Flexibility exercises
226
What differentiates change of direction from agility?
Reaction to a signal
227
What is the recommended number of SAQ sessions per week for weight-loss clients?
1 or 2 sessions per week
228
What is the principle of specificity?
A principle stating that the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it
229
You have a client seeking weight loss. What range of sets is most appropriate for SAQ drills?
3 or 4 sets
230
Researchers have found that myofascial rolling can decrease the effects of what condition after strenuous exercise?
Delayed-onset muscle soreness
231
What is the general adaptation syndrome?
The general adaptation syndrome describes the way in which the body responds and adapts to stress.
232
What is defined as the number of foot contacts, throws, or catches occurring during a plyometric exercise session?
Volume
233
Performing a hop-training program on a firm surface would be an example of which type of balance?
Semi-dynamic balance
234
Why does a shorter amortization phase lead to more effective plyometric movement?
It causes stored elastic energy to be used more efficiently.
235
During what phase of the stretch-shortening cycle is stored elastic energy converted to explosive force production?
Amortization
236
What is the Valsalva maneuver?
A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability
237
What is a proper regression if a client cannot perform the lunge exercise correctly?
Step-ups
238
What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for beginner clients?
15 to 60 seconds
239
Identify a movement limitation for an individual who walks or runs on a treadmill if he or she presents with an anterior pelvic tilt.
Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back.
240
Which of the following is characterized as a global muscle of the core on the posterior aspect of the body?
Erector spinae
241
Which principle states that soft tissue will model along the lines of stress?
Davis's law
242
What plyometric exercise variable is defined as the distance covered and amount of effort applied by the muscles?
Intensity
243
Which term specifically describes motor function of muscles in the lower extremity?
Neuromuscular function
244
What muscles work with the obliques will assist a client in completing a standing cable rotation movement?
Erector spinae
245
Which surface would be the easiest for a new client starting a balance training program?
Firm surface
246
How many repetitions of each SAQ drill is appropriate for youth athletes?
3 to 5 reps
247
What is shortest time period per day that balance training should be conducted 3 times per week for 4 weeks in order to improve both static and dynamic balance ability in children?
10 minutes
248
You have a youth client. What training frequency is most recommended for a young athlete performing SAQ?
1 to 3 times per week
249
Which of the following would be the appropriate progression for a core training program to optimize function?
Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency
250
Which term best describes core training’s effect on decreasing the incidence of new injuries?
Injury resistance
251
Which of the following is a component of agility training?
Deceleration
