Semester 2 image procedures final Flashcards
1
Q
Which procedure is commonly performed to demonstrate scoliosis
A
PA entire spine
2
Q
What structures should be demonstrated during inter-operative hip pinning procedure
A
Acetabulum to proximal femur
3
Q
During mobile radiography shielding should be used on;
1 Children
2 Women of reproductive age
3 Radiographer
A
123
4
Q
What protective apparel must be worn when imaging a contact precaution patient
A
Gloves and gown
5
Q
What is the most common location for an aspirated foreign body
A
Right side of bronchial tree
6
Q
The lateral projection of the cervical thoracic vertebrae (swimmers method) is required When
A
C7 is not demonstrated on the lateral C-spine image
7
Q
Who would be included as non-sterile team member
1 anesthesia provider
2 physician assistant
3 radiographer
A
1 3
8
Q
During mobile radiography the radiographer should be how far from the object being radiographed
A
6 feet
9
Q
Which method should be used when taking images to localize a penetrating for an object
A
Mark entrance wound with lead arrow
10
Q
What operative procedure best demonstrates the spine
A
Laminectomy
11
Q
How many people are required to safely immobilize a pediatric patient using a pig-o-stat
A
2
12
Q
One of the ways to obtain a pediatric patient cooperation is to
A
Talk to the child at their eye level
13
Q
The most effective means of decreasing motion during mobile radiography is
A
High KVP
14
Q
If parents are allowed in the room they should wear
A
An apron and lead gloves if their hands are in the beam
15
Q
Which of the following is recommended method of limb radiography of preschool age patients
A
Sitting on a parents lap
16
Q
Moving the image intensive fire closer to the patient will
A
Decrease patient dose
17
Q
Why should a left lateral decubitus position be performed to demonstrate free air in the abdomen
A
Free air will collect under the right diaphragm
18
Q
Which of the following should be part of the routine protocol when imaging a pediatric patient for a suspected aspirated foreign body
1 PA chest
2 soft tissue neck
3 lateral chest
A
1 2 3
19
Q
Which item should be removed prior to pediatric abdominal imaging
A
The diaper
20
Q
Generally which of the following rules should be followed when imaging limbs on a trauma patient
A
Obtain two images 90° apart
21
Q
All of the following provide radiation protection for the radiographer during surgical procedures except
A
Placing the tube side of the C arm above the patient
22
Q
Which body parts can be imaged on pediatric patients using the pig-o-stat immobilizer
A
Chest and abdomen
23
Q
A child will be less likely to be upset or agitated if
A
The room is prepared before he or she enters
24
Q
In communicating with the adolescent patient it is important to assess their
A
Maturity level
25
Which position would best demonstrate free air fluid levels on a neonate
Dorsal decubitus
26
When performing the AP production of the abdomen the left lateral decubitus position which of the following apply
1 center the image receptor to inches above the iliac crest
2 include the diaphragm
3 The left side of the abdomen should be in close contact with the radio Lucent sponge
4 Center the image receptor at the iliac crest
123
27
Which of the following statements is not true during a trauma procedure
Take at least three images of the area of interest
28
What technical factor change should be performed when our image is under exposed and requires more penetration
Increase your KVP by 15%
29
What projection should be performed first on a trauma patient with a suspected C-spine injury
Lateral C-spine
30
The single most effective means of radiation protection for the radiographer during mobile radiography is
Distance
31
Nationwide the most common operator error for C-arm units that unnecessarily increase patient dose is
Placing the x-ray tube too close to the skin
32
Where should the C-arm be positioned during an intraoperative hip pinning procedure
Parallel to the unaffected leg
33
Which of the following are common sites for mobile radiography is performed
1 surgery
2 intensive care units
3 patient hospital rooms
123
34
When a radiographer suspect child abuse what is the required response
Notify the radiologist or attending physician
35
What is the role of the radiographer during trauma procedures?
1 proper patient ID
2 proper lead markers
3 move quickly
123
36
Which of the following are symptoms of shock that can be readily observed by a radiographer
Excessive sweating
Cool clammy skin
Increased drowsiness
37
What criteria is used when evaluating a mobile chest image for correct positioning
1 Sternoclavicular joint symmetrical
2 scapula out of lung field
3 clavicles above lung field
1
38
Which position would be best to obtain a mobile AP chest radiograph
Sitting up
39
When conducting a C arm radiography the radiographer can employ which of the following methods to decrease patient does and decrease dose to the operating room team
Place II as close as possible to the patient
Collimate to the area of interest
Use low-dose mode
40
When performing an AP pelvis on a trauma patient which procedure should not be performed
Invert the lower limbs 15° medially
41
The following can be used to protect children from unnecessary radiation exposure
1 hi KVP
2 precise collimation
3 gonads shielding
123
42
For those units where possible increasing the kilovoltage (penetrating power) of the beam will _____ patient skin dose
Decrease
43
Which position would best demonstrate fluid in the right lung on a patient in ICU
Right lateral decubitus
44
In what way or ways can the trauma radiographer provide radiation protection for self the patient and other members of the trauma team
All of the above
45
Preferably pediatric chest radiography should be performed only when
Children are awake
46
What technical factor change should be performed when your images under exposed
Double your mAs
47
Magnifying the viewed area on the patient by decreasing the image intensifier field side as will _____ The patient skin dose
Increase
48
When performing limb radiography what may be required to elevate the limb
Radiolucent sponge
49
Where should the C-arm be centered for an operative Cholangiogram
Over the right upper quadrant
50
The patient is supine with a CR perpendicular to the IR at a point 2 inches medial to the ASIS at a level just above the greater trochanter’s this projection is an AP
Hip
51
What is the proper obliquity of the patient of the axillary are of interest
45°
52
For an AP oblique projection of the pelvis the image receptor should be placed to the upper borders
1.5” above crest
53
Which portions of the hip bone join to form the operator foramen
Pubis an ischium only
54
In an AP oblique projection (modified Cleves) hip, the greater trochanter is seen superimposed over the lower third of the for moral neck. Where is the lesser trochanter seen?
In profile medially
55
Rib examinations are performed upright as possible because
It is more comfortable for patients with bony thorax injuries
56
The AP axial projection (modified Cleves) is most useful for demonstrating
Congenital hip disease
57
Which of the following should be considered when performing an axial lateral ( Danelius - Miller method) of the hip, cross table projection?
1 use grid
2 invert the foot of the affected side
3 use a minimum of 90 KVP for adequate penetration
1 3
58
How should the central ray be directed for the AP oblique projection (modified Cleves method) to demonstrate bilateral hips
Perpendicularly
59
An AP radiograph of the pelvis reveals that the operator foramen of the right side is considerably smaller than on the left what is the possible cause of this problem
The patient was rotated toward the right side
60
To best visualize lower ribs the exposure should be made
On expiration
61
The AP projection for upper rib should demonstrate the first _____ pair of ribs
1- 10
62
Which of the following is true for examinations of the femur
AP and lateral images must include both the knee and hip joints
63
If a patient is diagnosed with a hip fracture that require surgery what exam with the radiographer be required to perform
Supine chest x-ray
64
For the AP projection of the upper ribs the top of the image receptor should be placed ____ The upper border of the shoulders
1.5” above
65
When conducting rib radiography is protocol allows it is often helpful to include PA chest radiograph to demonstrate
Pneumothorax
66
The most inferior aspect of the pelvic girdle is
Ischium bones
67
Which part of the sternum is located at the level of T10
Xiphoid process
68
You are conducting hip radiography and your AP pelvis demonstrates a sub optimal image of the hip how will you proceed
Perform a cone down a P hip
69
Which two projections best demonstrate injured posterior ribs numbers 10 11 and 12 on the right side
AP and AP oblique with the patient RPO
70
Which projection of the lower limbs or pelvis should the hips be flexed and the femurs be abducted from the midline of the patient
AP oblique projection (modified Cleaves method) for femoral neck
71
Which of the following pelvic bones help form the acetabulum
Ilium, pubis, ischium
72
The lateral projection of the femur will demonstrate be
All of the above
73
Which of the following are part of the bony thorax
1. 12 thoracic vertebrae
2. scapulas
3. 24 ribs
1 &3
74
The right PA oblique projection LAO position of the ribs will demonstrate which of the following
Farthest/away from the I R
75
PA rib radiograph should demonstrate a minimum of how many pairs of ribs above the diaphragm
7
76
The false ribs are numbered
8-12
77
Some pairs of ribs are called true ribs because they
Attached directly to the sternum via costal cartilage
78
The head of the rib articulates with the
Body of the vertebrae
79
Which of the following would be required to achieve a true AP projection of the hip joint
1. 15° internal rotation of the affected leg
2. Affected leg fully extended
3. CR entering to inches posterior to the greater trochanter
1 2
80
For an AP projection of the femur on a non-trauma patient the leg should be
Rotated 15° medially
81
Which of the following is the most superior aspect of the sternum
Manubrium
82
For the axial lateral hip ( Daniella’s Miller method) which of the following is placed parallel to the IR
Femoral neck
83
The sternal angle lies at the level of
T4
84
Which of the following patient positions will best demonstrate the sternal clavicular joint’s
Prone
85
Which projection of the hip or pelvis should not be performed if the patient is suspected to have an intertrochanteric fracture
Lateral projection (modified Cleaves method) of the hip
86
The junction between the tubercle of a rib in the transverse process of a thoracic vertebra is known as a ___ joint
Costotransverse
87
To most effectively demonstrate injured anterior ribs number five and six on the right side which to projection should be included as part of the series
PA & PA oblique with the patient LAO
88
Which portion of the sternum contains the jugular notch
Manubrium
89
PA projection of the upper ribs will demonstrate which of the following
Anterior ribs above the diaphragm
90
The proper centering point for an AP projection of the pelvis is
Midway between the ASIS in pubic symphysis
91
When the leg is fully extended the correct anatomical location of the patella is
Superimposed over the medial aspect of the distal femur
92
When evaluating a hip fracture if the patient is unable to object to the affected side what projection may be substituted for an AP oblique
Cross table lateral projection
93
The RAO position is used to project the sternum to the left of the thoracic vertebrae in order to take advantage of
❤️ shadow
94
Which of the following body positions will you long is the right ribs
1 lateral
2 LAO
3 RPO
2 3
95
Which of the following trauma cervical spine production/positions must be performed
Lateral horizontal beam
96
Which of the following will prevent the AEC detector from prematurely terminating the exposure during a lateral lumbar spine
Please sing a sheet of lead rubber on the table behind the patient
97
Which of the following vertebral areas have a lordotic curve
1 cervical
2 thoracic
3 lumbar
1 3
98
For the AP axial projection of the cervical spine to best demonstrate intravertebral disc spaces do you CR should be directed
15 to 20° cephalad
99
The evaluation criteria for an AP axial projection of the coccyx includes which of the following
1 free of super imposition of the pelvic bones
2 located distal to the sacrum
3 joint spaces open without overlap
4 in the mid sagittal plane
1234
100
The cervical spine has a _____ curvature
Lordotic
101
According to Meryls the KVP for a lateral lumbar spine is
96
102
For the PA axial oblique projection RAO position of the C-spine the CR should be directed toward the entry point at an angle of
15 to 20° caudad
103
For an AP axial projection of the coccyx CR is directed
10° caudad entering 2 inches superior to the pubic symphysis
104
The opening spinal cord passes is the
Vertebral foramen
105
The soft semigelatinous central portion of the intravertebral disc space is called the
Nucleus Pulposis
106
Which of the following procedures would be performed for a lateral projection swimmers method to demonstrate the cervical thoracic region
1 raise hand and arm closest to the receptor
2 rotate remote shoulder (farthest from receptor) posteriorly
3 if remote shoulder is unable to be depressed angle CR 5° Cephalad
1 2
107
To demonstrate the left intervertebral foramen of the cervical spine which position is the position please
RPO
108
The AP axial projection of the cervical spine to demonstrate which vertebrae
C3-T2
109
What is the primary reason a patient should flex for hips and knees for an AP projection of the lumbar vertebral column
To reduce the lordotic curvature
110
Where is the CR directed for a lateral cervical spine
C4
111
The position/projection that will best demonstrate the thoracic intravertebral foramen is the
Lateral
112
And increased concave curvature of the thoracic spine is known as
Kyphosis
113
Two best demonstrate the left sacroiliac joint which position should be performed
1 LAO
2 RPO
3 RAO
1 & 2
114
Which radiographic baseline should be perpendicular to the receptor when positioning for the AP projection open mouth method of C1- C2
Line extending from the upper incisors to the mastoid tip
115
The LAO position of the cervical spine will visualize essentially the same structures as the
RPO
116
According to Merrell the optimal KVP for an AP projection of the lumbar spine
90
117
Which of the following evaluation criteria apply to the AP axial projection of the cervical spine
1 Intravertebral disc spaces should be open
2 C1 and C2 should be seen without mandibular super imposition
3 spinous process should be demonstrated through midline of cervical vertebrae
1 & 3
118
The cervical intravertebral foramen project anterior at a ____ angle
45°
119
According to Meryls the recommended KVP for AP and oblique cervical spine projections is
85
120
Which plane of the patient should be centered to the midline of the table for a lateral projection of the lumbar spine
Mid coronal
121
How many degrees and in which direction should the CR be directed for the lateral projection of the coccyx
Perpendicular
122
Which projection best demonstrates the intravertebral foramen of the lumbar spine
Lateral
123
And AP projection of the lumbar spine should include which of the
1 T12-S1
2 SI Joints
3 transverse processes
All
124
What compensation should be made in the lateral projection of the T spine on a female recumbent patient on the lower thoracic region is not parallel with the table
Angle CR 5 to 10° cephalad
125
Positioning instructions for a lateral projection of the cervical spine include
1 patient may be erect or supine
2 shoulders should be depressed as much as possible
3 40 inch SID is preferred distance
1 & 2
126
Which of the following vertebral areas have a kyphotic curve
1 thoracic
2 lumbar
3 sacrum coccyx
1 3
127
The SID for a lateral cervical spine must be a minimum of how many inches
60-72
128
For AP projections of the lumbar spine flat contact gonad shield should be used for _____ patients
All
129
Which of the following should be well demonstrated on an oblique lumbar spine image with the patient in the RPO position
1 right zygapophyseal joints
2 right intravertebral foramen
3 right superior and inferior articular processes
1 3
130
The vertebral structure which can be seen in profile on the lateral lumbosacral spine projection is the
Spinous process
131
Which of the following are considered primary vertebral curvatures
1 cervical
2 thoracic
3 pelvic
2 3
132
Which of the following structures are demonstrated on an AP projection of the lumbar spine
Spinous and transverse process, vertebral bodies, intravertebral joint spaces
133
According to Merrell so KVP for a lateral cervical spine is
85
134
To best demonstrate the sacrum as in unforshortened structure which projection should be performed
AP CR directed 15° cephalad
135
Where is the CR directed for an AP lumbosacral spine
Iliac crest
136
For a lateral projection swimmers method which of the following procedures are true
1 patient is placed in lateral recumbent or erect position
2 40 inch SID
3 angle CR 3 to 5° caudally
1 2 3
137
Which cervical vertebrae projection demonstrates the spinous process as elevated and widely separated
Lateral projection hyperflexion method
138
Which cervical spine projection demonstrates the dens image with the foramen magnum
AP projection Fuchs method
139
What structure is best demonstrated when patient is supine CR is directed to the level of 2 to 2 1/2 inches below the ASIS at an angle of 30 to 35° cephalad
L5 S1 joint space and bilateral SI joints
140
Which of the following positions best demonstrates the left colic flexure
RPO
141
Which opening is at the distal end of the small intestine
Ileocecal valve
142
For a BE which structures of the large intestine are primary interest in the AP or PA axial projection
Sigmoid and rectum
143
For a double contrast UGI which projections plus positions demonstrate barium sulfate in the fundus of the stomach
1 AP
2 RAO
3 LPO
1 3
144
For the double contrast UGI examination which position produces the best image of a gas build duodenal bulb and pyloric canal
LPO with patient recumbent
145
Which of the following organs are located primarily in the upper left quadrant of the abdomen
1 stomach
2 spleen
3 liver
1 2
146
The stomach is primarily located in which quadrant
Upper left
147
Double contrast enema is particularly useful and demonstrating
Polyps
148
The stomach wall is composed of how many layers
4
149
What is the recommended oblique projection and position to best demonstrate the esophagus
PA, RAO
150
According to Merrill’s for KVp selection for single contrast barium enema images is
120
151
For the BE, PA axial projection, which of the following statements are true
1 The CR is directed 30 to 40° Cephalad
2 The CR passes through the patient at the level of the ASIS
3 The rectosigmoid area is demonstrated with less super in position then in AP projection
Two and three only
152
The opening at the lower end of the stomach is the
Pyloric orifice
153
What is the position of the stomach in a hypersthenic pt
Superior and transverse
154
Expanded portion of the terminal esophagus is called
Cardiac antrum
155
patient preparation for UGI series is
NPO after midnight
156
The Valsalva maneuver, water test and Trendelenburg are all methods used to demonstrate
Esophageal reflux
157
Which of the following are considered part of the UGI tract
1 esophagus
2. Stomach
3 R collic flexure
One and two
158
Which recumbent position is best for emptying barium sulfate from the fundus of the stomach
RAO
159
During insertion of the enema tip of the patient is placed in what position
Sims
160
Which procedure should be performed for the PA oblique projection RAO position of the stomach
1 rotate hyper stomach patients more than hyposthenic patients
2 CR should enter the Asthenic patient at level of L3 L4
3 CR should enter the pt perpendicularly midway between the spine and left lateral border of the abdomen
12 and 3
161
Which body habitus type positions the stomach most vertically and lowest in the abdomen
Asthenic
162
Functions of the stomach include
1 Storage of food
2. Absorption of food products
3 Chemical breakdown of food
1 3
163
Which one of the following conditions is commonly found in infants and involves the telescoping of one part of the bowel into another part of the bowel
Intussception
164
The middle portion of the small intestine is the
Jejunum
165
The left colic flexure is demonstrated in which of the following
1 PA oblique projection LAO position
2 left lateral decubitus
3 AP oblique projection RPO position
One and three
166
For the right lateral decubitus position as part of the barium enema what should be done to ensure that the ascending colon is demonstrated in the image
Elevate the patient on a radio Lucent sponge
167
You are conducting a barium enema procedure using AEC and your image is drastically under expose what adjustment will you make to your technique
+2 density
168
Which of the following are components of the alimentary canal
1 mouth and pharynx
2 stomach and intestine
3 liver and pancreas
1 2
169
Which of the following are considered contra indications for a small bowel function test with barium
1 malabsorption syndrome
2 pre-surgical patient
3 large bowel obstruction
2 3
170
A UGI patient of which body habitus would most likely present with an overlap pyloric region and duo Denal bulb
Hypersthenic
171
Which structures of the large intestine are best demonstrated when a recumbent patient is placed in a RPO position
The left colic flexure and descending colon
172
Malabsorption syndrome is our clinical indications for which of the following procedure
Small bowel function test
173
Patient suffering from gastric contents returning back through the gastric orifice resulting in irritation of the esophagus and stomach lining will most likely suffer from which disease
Reflux
174
For APA oblique projection RAO (recumbent) position of the stomach to best demonstrate the duo denim and pyloric canal the patient should be rotated between
40 to 70°
175
Which instructions must be given after a G.I. exam
1 drink plenty of fluids
2 cleansing enema
3 increase dietary fiber
1
176
What structure is part of both the respiratory and digestive tracts
Pharynx
177
For the AP projection of the large intestine the central ray enters
At the iliac crest
178
Which of the following positions best demonstrate the right colic flexure ascending colon and sigmoid
1 RPO
2 LAO
3 RAO
Three only
179
Which of the following are parts of the large intestine
1 sigmoid
2 rectum
3 anal canal
123
180
The main functions of the small bowel are _____ of food
1 digestion
2 absorption
3 Storage
12
181
A water soluble contrast medium would likely be use for an enema in place of barium If
Perforation of the large intestine was suspected
182
Which of the following projections of the large intestine recommend that the CR enter the patient at the level of the iliac crest
1 AP projection lateral decubitus position
2 AP axial projection butterfly position
3 AP oblique projection RPO position
1 3
183
When using AEC for barium enema radiography the radiographer should choose all of the following cells for a supine image
All three
184
The primary function of the large intestine is
Elimination of Waste
Absorption of water
Absorption of amino acids
