Serology Flashcards

(49 cards)

1
Q

What type of observation is quantitative?

A

numerical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What type of observation is qualitative?

A

Non-numerical (acute, large)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is meant by sensitivity?

A

how a test will pick up a tiny amount of Ab or other agent in a biological fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is meant by specificity?

A

ability of a test to give a + run only in an animal that has dz for which the test is measuring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What do immunological test measure

A

Ab or Ag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What samples are used for immunological tests?

A

plasma or serum or whole blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What type of tests are available for humoral immunity in vet med?

A

ELISA, CELISA, Immunodiffusion, Coomb’s test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In Ab tests, what happens?

A

Ag in test, will bind Ab in sample and vise versa in Ag tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does ELISA stand for

A

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In vet med, Competitive ELISA (CELISA) are used to test for

A

EIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What will occur in a latex agglutination test if Ab present in sample?

A

clumping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the latex agglutination testing?

A

small, spherical latex particles coated w/ Ag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is one disease that you would use latex agglutination test for?

A

Canine Brucellosis testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is another name for the rapid immunomigration (RIM) test?

A

Lateral flow immunoassay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does no band on an Immunodiffusion (AGID) indicate?

A

no Ab in patient, or not enough Ab to cause ppt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Radioimmunoassay (RIA) is similar to CELISA except _ in place of enzyme

A

radioisotope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

RIA is used for _ level determination.

A

Hormone (progesterone, estrogen, testosterone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How does a Fluorescent Antibody test (Fab) work ?

A

dye combines w/ specific Ab present, read with special microscope. Any fluorescence is +

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Coombs testing detects presence of inappropriate Ab against bodies _ _

A

own tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Direct Coombs tests for Ab against own _-IMHA (AIHA)=agglutination

21
Q

What occurs with coombs test if RBCs coated w/ Ab’s?

A

then agglutination

22
Q

Indirect coombs tests for _ _

A

circulating Ab

23
Q

What sample should be submitted to lab for coombs testing?

A

Freshly air-dried unstained blood smears, and EDTA blood

24
Q

Antibody titers are used to distinguish between an _ _ vs _ _ to certain antigens and to evaluate the need for revaccination.

A

active infection vs prior exposure

25
Antibody titers requires making _ _ of the sample
serial dilutions
26
High titer =
active infection
27
Low titer =
previous exposure
28
A single titer does not differentiate between
vaccine status and exposure
29
What samples should be sent to lab for antibody titers
paired samples (acute and convalescent) drawn approx. 2 weeks apart to monitor for any changes
30
Generally, a _ _ increase in titers between paired samples is a good indication of recent infection.
4 fold
31
Molecular diagnostics analyze _ and _
DNA and RNA
32
_ tests used to: -Identify cancers -Detect genetic defects -Pedigrees -Bacterial contaminants in foods
DNA
33
Advantages of molecular diagnostics
-increased sensitivity and specificity -small samples with faster results
34
Disadvantages of molecular diagnostics
-contamination gives false positives -high levels of expertise to run tests, high cost
35
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) detects what
DNA segments
36
PCR is called the _ assay
amplification
37
3 steps of amplification assay
1. denaturation 2.annealing 3.extension Repeated 25-30 times to gain enough DNA
38
Reverse Transcriptase PCR is similar to PCR but tests
single stranded RNA
39
Benefits of real-time polymerase chain reaction
-decrease risk of contamination -more easily automated -faster and easier to run -fluorescence probe attaches to DNA segments
40
Intradermal tests are used to diagnose _
allergies
41
Intradermal tests are mediated by _ antibody molecules
IgE
42
What is the negative control for intradermal testing
saline
43
What is the positive control for intradermal testing
histamine
44
Tuberculin skin test is commonly performed on _ and _
cattle and primates
45
Animals with _ bacteria develop a delayed hypersensitivity reaction to the organism tuberculin
Mycobacterium spp.
46
Where is injection site for tuberculin skin test
cervical region or at base of tail
47
Why is there a delay in tuberculin skin test
because T lymphocytes must migrate to the foreign antigen injected
48
The first test to detect possible carriers of bovine tuberculosis is the
casual fold tuberculin (CFT) test in which a small amount of purified protein derivative (PPD) tuberculin is injected into the fold of the skin at the base of the tail
49