Session 10 - Drugs Rate and Rhythm Flashcards

(62 cards)

1
Q

What is the cardiac resting membrane potential?

A

-90mV

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2
Q

What sets the resting membrane potential for cardiac cells?

A

The relative permeability of the cardiac myocyte to K+

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3
Q

What is the equilibrium potential of K+?

A

-80mV

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4
Q

Outline a contraction of a ventricular myocyte?

A

o In diastole, the resting membrane potential of cardiac cells is close to the equilibrium potential of K+ (4).
o Initial depolarisation due to spread of electrical activity from pacemaker cells. Once threshold has been reached, fast voltage gated sodium channels are opened, causing depolarisation towards Na+’s equilibrium potential (0).
o Following the rapid depolarisation, a brief repolarisation caused by the outward flow of K+ returns the membrane potential to ~0. (1)
o Na+ channels deactivate, but the depolarisation causes the opening of voltage gated Ca2+ channels, which take longer to activate, keeping the membrane depolarised (2).
o Influx of Ca2+ causes the release of further Ca2+ from cellular stores, causing contraction (See M&R Session 5).
o After ~250ms, Ca2+ channels close.
o Efflux of K+ returns membrane potential to resting (3).

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5
Q

Give the classification of anti-arythmic drugs

A

Class 1 - Na+ blockes
Class 2 - B blocekrs
Class 3 - K+ channel blockers
Class 4 - Ca2+ channel blockers

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6
Q

Give three types of Na+ channel blockers

A

1a) Quinidine
1b) Lidocaine
1c) Felcainide

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7
Q

Give a type of beta blocker

A

Atenolol
Bisoprolol
Metoprolol

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8
Q

Give a widely used K+ channel blocker

A

Amiodarone

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9
Q

Give a Ca2+ channel blocker

A

Verapamil

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10
Q

What are the effects of Flecainide and Lidocaine?

A

Decrease conduction velocity
Increase depolarisation threshold
Decrease automacity

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11
Q

What is the route of administration of flecainide?

A

Oral and intravenous

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12
Q

What are the indications for flecinaide?

A

Supraventricular tachyarrythmias (atrial arrhythmia)

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13
Q

Give two contraindications for Flecainide?

A

Heart failure, History of MI

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14
Q

What is the mechanism of action for Flecainide?

A

Blocks fast, inward Na+ ion channel (Phase 0)

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15
Q

Give three adverse reactions of flecainide

A

 Dizziness, visual disturbances, arrhythmias

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16
Q

What are the drug-drug interactions for Flecainide?

A

 Metabolised by CYP2D6 and eliminated renally. Inducers/inhibitors

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17
Q

How is lidocaine adminstered?

A

Intravenously

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18
Q

What are the indications for lidocaine?

A

Ventricular arrhythmias following MIO

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19
Q

What are the contraindications for Lidocaine (2)

A

AV block

Heart failure

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20
Q

Give three adverse drug reactions for lidocaine

A

Hypotension, bradycardia
Nystagmus
Seizures

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21
Q

What do beta blockers act on?

A

B1 receptors in the heart

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22
Q

What is the action of B blockers

A

Block sympathetic action
Decrease slop of pacemaker potential in SAN
Decrease chronotrophy
Inhibits adenyl cyclase, decrease inotrophy

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23
Q

What do B blockers do to ventricular action potential?

A

Shifts it to the right

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24
Q

What are the indications for B blockers? (4)

A

 Angina
 Post myocardial infarction
 Hypertension
 Arrhythmias

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25
What are the two main contraindications for beta blockers?
Asthma | General decreased heart function
26
What is the mechanism of action for beta blockers?
 Antagonise β-adrenoreceptors. β1-receptors are found in the heart, when they are activated they cause increased Chronotropy and Inotropy.  Inhibits renin release
27
Give some adverse drug reactions for beta blockers
 Bronchospasm, fatigue and insomnia, dizziness, cold extremities, hypotension, bradycardia and decreased glucose tolerance in diabetic patients – Don’t feel adrenaline from hypoglycaemia due to B blockers, dangerous
28
Give two drug-drug interactions of Beta blockers
 Prevents Salbutamol working (β2-adrenoagonist) |  Verapamil – Both have –‘ve inotropic action
29
What do K+ channel blockers do?
Prolong the absolute refractory period by increase AP duration Also suppress re-entry circuits by closing excitable gap
30
Why are they not generally used?
Torsades de pointes
31
Give an example of a potassium channel blocker
Amiodarone
32
What is the route of administration of potassium channel blockers?
Oral or intravenous
33
What are the indications for potassium channel blockers
Ventricular and supraventricular arrythmia
34
What are some drug-drug interactions of amiodarone?
Inhibits CYP3A4, CYP2C9 and P-glycoprotein |  Dose reductions of Warfarin, Digoxin, Flecainide needed
35
What do Ca2+ blockers do?
Increased refractory period | Decreased Chronotrophy and Inotropy
36
Give two examples of Calcium channel blockers
Verapamil | Diltiazem
37
Give a route of admin for calcium
Oral
38
Give three indications for Ca2+ blockers
Supraventriuclar arrhythmias | Prophylaxis and treatment of angina nad hypertension
39
Give three contraindications for Calcium channel blockers
Heart failure Bradycardia AV node block
40
Give four adverse reactions to calcium channel blockers?
Hypotension Bradycardia Heart failure Heart block
41
What is used to treat torsades de pointes?
Digoxin | Adenosine
42
What does adenosine do?
Blocks AV node
43
What are the two main effects of adenosine?
Decrease automacity | Increased AVN refractory period
44
What are two main indications for digoxin?
Supraventricular arrhythmias, Heart Failure
45
Give two contraindications for digoxin
Heart block | Hypokalaemia
46
Outline the mech of action of digoxin
``` o Inhibits Na/K-ATPase o Direct Cardiac Effects   Inotrope – Used in heart failure, no mortality benefit o CNS Effects   Sympathetic outflow   Parasympathetic outflow  Sensitises baroreceptor reflex o Combined Effects   Automaticity of SAN and AVN   AVN refractory period   Conduction velocity of AVN ```
47
What are three adverse drug reactions to digoxin?
o Narrow therapeutic index o Toxicity enhanced with hypokalaemia o Cardiac toxicity – bradycardia, AVN block, atrial tachycardia
48
Give some drugs which increase digoxin levels
Popafenone, Quinidine, Amiodarone, Verapamil, Spironolactone, Cylosporine
49
Give some drugs which decrease digoxin levels
Erythromycin, Tetracycline (gut bacteria metabolise digoxin)
50
Why do you split loading dose of digoxin in two?
To minimise toxicity risk
51
How much of digoxin is protein bound
20-30%
52
What is digoxin clearance proportional to?
GFR
53
Give three examples of ACE inhibitors
 Ramipril  Lisinopril  Captopril
54
Give three indications for ACE inhibitors
 Hypertension  Heart failure  Renal dysfunction
55
Give three contraindications for ACE inhibitors
Pregnancy Renovascular Aortic stenosis
56
Outline mech of action of ACE inhibitors
 ACE inhibitors cause inhibition of Angiotensin Converting Enzyme, consequently reducing Angiotensin II and Aldosterone levels. This causes vasodilation and consequent reduction in peripheral resistance and reduced sodium retention.  Reduce breakdown of the vasodilator Bradykinin
57
Give five adverse reactions of ACE inhibitors
 Characteristic dry cough  Angio-oedema (rare, but more common in black population)  Renal Failure  Hyperkalaemia  Hypotension, dizziness and headache, diarrhoea and muscle cramps
58
Give two angiotensin blockers
Losartan | Valsartan
59
What is an indication for angiotensin blocker?
Hypertension
60
Give four contraindications
 Pregnancy, breastfeeding |  Caution in renal artery stenosis and aortic stenosis
61
What is the mech of action of angiotensin blocker?
 Bind to and antagonise the receptor for Angiotensin II – Angiotensin 1 Receptor (AT1 R).  Inhibits vasoconstriction and aldosterone stimulation by angiotensin II.
62
Give two adverse drug reactions to angiotensin receptor blockers
 Renal failure |  Hyperkalaemia