Session 11 - Epilepsy Flashcards

(74 cards)

1
Q

What is epilepsy?

A

Epilepsy is an episodic discharge of abnormal high frequency electric activity in the brain leading to seizure.

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2
Q

What does an epilepsy diagnosis require?

A

evidence of recurrent seizures unprovoked by any other identifiable causes.

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3
Q

Describe four things that happen in epilepsy on a neuronal level

A
  • Increased excitatory activity
  • Decreased inhibitory activity
  • Loss of homeostatic control
  • Spread of neuronal hyperactivity
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4
Q

What are two overarching categories of epilepsy

A

Partial seizures

Generalized seizures

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5
Q

Give two sub-types of partial seizures - What is the distinguishing feature between the two?

A

Simple (concious)

Complex (unconscious)

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6
Q

What four things occur in a partial seizure?

A

o Increased discharged in focal cortical area
 Symptoms reflect affected area
 Involuntary motor disturbance
 Behavioural change
 Impending focal spread accompanied by Aura, e.g. unusual smell or taste, déjà vu, jamais vu

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7
Q

What is jamais vu?

A

Sense of seeing a situation for the first time, despite it happening many times before

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8
Q

What is a generalized seizure?

A
  • Generated centrally and spreads through both hemispheres

- Loss of consciousness

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9
Q

What are two types of generalised seizure?

A

Tonic-clonic seizure
- Grand mal
Absence seizure
- petit mal

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10
Q

What occurs in a tonic-clonic seizure?

A

Initial rigidity (tonic) and shaking (clonic)

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11
Q

What occurs in an absence seizure

A

Loss of expression, stare blankly, patient not aware of them

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12
Q

What is status epilepticus?

A

Seizure that lasts >5 minutes.

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13
Q

What is the mortality rate in status epilepticus?

A

20%

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14
Q

What must be excluded in any suspected fit?

A

Hypoglycaemia

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15
Q

What two drugs do you give in status epilepticus

A

Benzodiazepines

Phenytoin

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16
Q

What is primary epilepsy

A

No identifiable cause - 60-65%

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17
Q

What is secondary epilepsy?

A

Medical conditions affecting the brain 30%

  • Vascular disease
  • Tumour
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18
Q

What is most common cause of epilepsy in the elderly?

A

Secondary epilepsy

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19
Q

Give four categories of stimuli which could trigger epileptic fit

A
Sensory stimuli 
Brain disease/trauma
Metabolic disturbances
Infections 
Therapeutics
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20
Q

Give a sensory stimuli that can cause epileptic fit

A

Flashing lights/strobes

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21
Q

Give four brain diseases/trauma which can cause epilepsy

A

Brain injury
Stroke/Haemorrhage
Drugs/alcohol
Structural abnormality

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22
Q

Give three metabolic disturbances which can cause epilepsy

A

o Hypoglycaemia
o Hypocalcaemia
o Hyponatraemia

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23
Q

What kind of infection causes epilepsy

A

Febrile convulsions

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24
Q

What therapeutics can cause epilepsy?

A

Anti-epilectic drugs and polypharmacy

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25
Give four dangers in severe epilepsy
``` o Physical injury relating to fall/crash o Hypoxia o SUDEP – Sudden death in Epilepsy o Varying degrees of brain dysfunction/damage o Cognitive impairment o Serious psychiatric disease o Significant adverse reactions to medication o Stigma/Loss of livelihood ```
26
How do anti-epileptic drugs generally work, generally?
By inhibiting the rapid, repetitive neuronal firing that characterises seizures
27
How do anti-epileptics work specifically?
o Inhibition of channels involved in neuronal excitability  Voltage gated Sodium channels  Inhibition of Calcium Channel Function (not examined) o Enhancement of inhibitory activity  GABA-mediated inhibition
28
How to sodium channel blockers work?
By binding to sodium channels and keeping them in an inactivated state. Self regulating, as detach from binding site.
29
How does GABA mediated inhibition work?
an increase in Chloride current into the neurone, increasing the threshold for action potential generation
30
What are three main pharmacological targets of GABA enhancers?
o Direct GABA agonists o Benzodiazepine Site – Enhance GABA action o Barbiturate Site – Enhance GABA action
31
Name five anti-epileptic drugs
``` Phenytoin Carbamezapine (will be examined!) Lamotrigine Sodium Valproate Benzodiazepine ```
32
What is first line treatments for seizures?
Sodium Valproate and Lamotrigine, then carbamezapine (unless tonic, atonic or myoclonic)
33
What is first line in partial seizure?
Carbamezapine
34
What is the indication for phenytoin?
All forms of epilepsy except absence
35
What is the mechanism of phenytoin?
 Prolongs VGSC inactivation state |  Stops the spread of excitation from focus
36
Give some phenytoin ADRs
 CNS effects – dizziness, ataxia, headache, Nystagmus, nervousness  Gingival Hyperplasia (20%)  Rashes – Hypersensitivity (Stevens-Johnson Syndrome 2-5%)
37
Give some phenytoin DDIs
 CYP450 Inducer  Many drug interactions, e.g. Warfarin, OCP  Cimetidine  Phenytoin   Well absorbed, 90% Protein Bound  Competitive binding, e.g. with Valproate, NSAIDs  Can exacerbate non-linear PKs
38
What precaution must be taken with phenytoin admin?
 Phenytoin displays Non-Linear Pharmacokinetics at Therapeutic concentrations (linear at sub-therapeutic levels). This means close monitoring of free plasma levels is required – saliva often used.
39
How is carbamezapine administered?
Oral/rectal
40
What are the indications of carbamexzapine
Second line for most except for absence seizures, tonic, atonic and myoclonic seizures (may make worse)
41
What is a contraindication for carbamezapine
 AV conduction problems
42
What is the mechanim of action of carbamezapine?
 Prolongs VGSC inactivation state
43
What are some CNS ADRs of carbamezapine?
Dizziness, drowsiness, ataxia, motor disturbances, numbness, tingling
44
Give three ADRs of carbamezapine other than CNS
Gi -Vomiting CVS - BP variations Hyponatremia
45
Give three DDIs for carbamezapine
 CYP450 Enzyme Inducer  Many drug interactions, e.g. Warfarin, OCP  Protein bound  Another protein binding drug can raise Carbamazepine conc.  Antidepressants (SSRIs, MAOIs, TCAs and TCA) interfere with Carbamazepine’s action
46
What are some therapeutic notes for carbamezapine?
 Well absorbed, 75% protein bound  Linear Pharmacokinetics  Initial t½ is ~30hrs, but is a strong inducer of CYP450s and therefore affects its own Phase I metabolism. In repeated use t½ falls to ~15hrs  Drug monitoring required to adjust dosing due to falling t½
47
What are some indications for lamotrigine?
 All forms of epilepsy  Partial seizures  Generalized tonic-clonic and absence seizures (unlike phenytoin and carbamezapine)
48
What are some contraindications for lamotrigine?
 Hepatic impairment |  Not first line use in paediatric patients due to ADRs
49
What is lamotrigines mechanism of action
Prolongs VGSC inactivation state
50
What are some ADRs for lamotrigine (3)
 Less marked CNS dizziness, ataxia, somnolence (drowsiness)  Nausea  Some mild (10%) and serious (0.5%) skin rashes, which limits child use
51
Give some DDIs for lamotrigine
 Adjunct therapy with other anti-epileptic drugs  Oral Contraceptives reduce Lamotrigine plasma levels  Valproate increases Lamotrigine plasma levels (protein binding)
52
In what situation can you use lamotrigine when you can't use other AEDs?
Pregnancy
53
Give three significatn therapeutic notes for lamotrigine
 Increasingly first line anti-epileptic drug  Well absorbed, linear PK = 24hrs  No CYP450 induction
54
What is the mechanism of action of sodium valproate? (3)
 Weak inhibition of GABA inactivation enzymes   GABAA  Weak stimulus of GABA synthesising enzymes   GABA A  Weak VGSC blocker and Weak Ca2+ channel blocker   Discharge
55
Give give ADRs for Sodium valproate
 Generally less severe than with other AEDs  CNS sedation – Ataxia, tremor  Weight gain  Hepatic Dysfunction – Transaminases increased in 40% of patients  Rarely hepatic failure
56
In light of this, what is a major contraindication for sodium valproate?
Acute Liver Disease/Hepatic dysfunction
57
Give four DDIs with Sod Val
 Adjust therapy with other AEDs  Care needed with adjunct therapy, as both Valproate and adjunct PKs are affected. E.g. displaces Lamotrigine and Phenytoin, raising their free plasma concentrations  Antidepressants (SSRIs, MAOIs, TCAs and TCA) inhibit Valproate  Antipsychotics antagonise Valproate, by lowering convulsive threshold  Aspirin displaces Valproate from plasma proteins, raising its free conc
58
Give three indications for benzodiazepines
 Diazepam / Lorazepam – Status Epilepticus  Clonazepam – Absence seizures, short term use  Anxiety
59
What is a CI for benzos
 Respiratory depression
60
Give mechs of action of Benzos
 Act at a distinct receptor site on GABA Chloride channel  Binding of GABA or Benzodiazepines enhance each others binding, acting as positive allosteric effectors  Increases Chloride current into the neurone, increasing threshold for action potential generation
61
Give three ADRs for Benzos
```  Sedation  Tolerance with chronic use  Dependence/Withdrawal with chronic use  Confusion, impaired co-ordination  Aggression  Abrupt withdrawal – seizure trigger  Respiratory and CNS depression ```
62
What is a DDI for Benzos?
 Highly protein bound (85-100%) |  Some adjunct use
63
How can benzos overdose be reversed?
 Overdose reversed by IV Flumazenil |  Use may precipitate seizure/arrhythmia
64
What is a basic prescribing rule for AEDs?
Monotherapy is the aim | Systematic use of one drug and replacement if necessary
65
What is the conundrum in pregnany epileptics?
Will stopping treatment harm mother and baby more than continuing?
66
What are the risks of AEDs with pregnancy
Neural tube defects Face and digital hyoplasia Vit K deficiency (coagulopathy and cerebral haemorrhage)
67
What can mothers take to avoid birth defects?
Folate supplements
68
What should be avoided and what should be used as AED in preg?
Sodium valproate should be avoided - neural tube defect | Lamotrigine should be used - 2% defect rate
69
What is the defet rate with most AEDs?
8%
70
What is failure rate of contraceptives with Carbamezapine/phenytoin?
5-10%
71
What is baseline failure rate of contraceptives?
1-2%
72
Outline phenytoin drug monitoring
o Sub-Therapeutic Levels  Linear Kinetics o Therapeutic Levels  Non-Linear Kinetics  Saturated enzymes  Plasma t½ increases as dose is increased  Steady State Concentration in Plasma (achieved with a daily dose) varies disproportionately with the dose (see image). The therapeutic range of Phenytoin is quite narrow, 40-100μmol. Drug monitoring of the plasma levels of Phenytoin is required, as due to its pharmacokinetic properties this therapeutic range can be exceeded quite rapidly, causing adverse effects (see above).
73
What is status epilepticus?
o Medical emergency o Adult mortality ~20% o Risk increases with the length of Status Epilepticus
74
How do you manage status epilepticus?
o ABC approach o Exclude hypoglycaemia o Hypoventilation may result with high AED doses o ITU for paralysis and ventilation if AEDs are failing AEDs in Status Epilepticus o Benzodiazepines  Lorazepam (0.1mg/kg)  Preferred to Diazepam due to longer t½  Given intravenously (rectal if IV access difficult) o Phenytoin  Zero Order (Non-Linear) kinetics (15-20mg/kg)  Rapidly reaches therapeutic levels IC  Cardiac monitoring – Arrhythmias and hypotension