Session 9 - Hypertension and Heart Failure Flashcards

(50 cards)

1
Q

Is blood pressure a disease?

A

No, it’s a risk factor for future vascular disease

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2
Q

How does higher blood pressure cause organ damage?

A

Higher Blood Pressure -> Increased arterial thickening -> Smooth muscle cell hypertrophy and accumulation of vascular matrix -> Loss of arterial compliance -> end organ damage

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3
Q

What are the five organ systems affected by sustained hypertension?

A
Brain
Heart
Arterial System
Kidney
Eye
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4
Q

What two conditions is blood pressure a good indicator of?

A

Ischaemic heart disease and stroke

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5
Q

What are the two types of hypertension and which is more common?

A

Primary and secondary
Primary high BP with unkown cause - 90% pop
Secondary - Known cause
10% pop

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6
Q

What two factors determine whether drug therapy is offered to a patient or not?

A

The sustained level of blood pressure

The overall cardiovascular risk profile

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7
Q

What is hypertension defined as?

A

BP over 140/90

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8
Q

What is the effect of lowering diastolic BP by 10mmHg?

A

58% reduction in strokes

37% reduction in coronary artery disease

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9
Q

What level of hypertension justifies drug treatment

A

 ≥ 160mmHg Systolic and ≥100mmHg diastolic justifies drug treatment

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10
Q

What is the overall cardiovasc risk profile?

A

 Is there > 15% risk of a cardiovascular event in the next 10 years?
 Presence of end organ damage?
 In the presence of diabetes the treatment threshold is 140/90mmHg

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11
Q

What are the four non-pharmocological factors that will modify decision to insitute a drug regime

A

o Optimum body weight (BMI 20-25 kg/m2)
o Regular physical activity (>30 mins a day)
o Moderation of alcohol and salt. (< 2 units for women. < 6g salt)
o Smoking cessation should be strongly advised, and supported as necessary (e.g. nicotine replacement therapy)

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12
Q

What is severe hypertension?

A

> 180/>110

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13
Q

What is mild hypertension?

A

140-159/90-99

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14
Q

Name three ace inhibitors

A

 Ramipril
 Lisinopril
 Captopril

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15
Q

What is the mech of action of ACE inhibitors in lowering blood pressure

A

 ACE inhibitors cause inhibition of Angiotensin Converting Enzyme, consequently reducing Angiotensin II and Aldosterone levels. This causes vasodilation and consequent reduction in peripheral resistance and reduced sodium retention.
 Reduce breakdown of the vasodilator Bradykinin

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16
Q

Give three indications for ACE inhibitors?

A

 Hypertension
 Heart failure
 Renal dysfunction

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17
Q

Give three contraindications for ACE inhibitors

A

 Pregnancy, renovascular disease, aortic stenosis

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18
Q

Give five adverse drug reactions of ACE inhibitors

A

 Characteristic dry cough
 Angio-oedema (rare, but more common in black population)
 Renal Failure
 Hyperkalaemia
 Hypotension, dizziness and headache, diarrhoea and muscle cramps

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19
Q

Give two angiotensin blockers

A

 Losartan

 Valsartan

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20
Q

Give an indication for an angiotensin blocker

A

 Hypertension

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21
Q

When would you not use an angiotensin blocker?

A

 Pregnancy, breastfeeding

 Caution in renal artery stenosis and aortic stenosis

22
Q

Give a mechanism of action of an angiotensin blocker?

A

 Bind to and antagonise the receptor for Angiotensin II – Angiotensin 1 Receptor (AT1 R).
 Inhibits vasoconstriction and aldosterone stimulation by angiotensin II.

23
Q

Give the main diuretic used in control of BP

A

Thiazide diuretics

24
Q

Give a short list of drugs involved in BP management

A

ACE inhibitors
Angiotensin blocker
Beta blocker
Calcium Channel Blockers

25
Give four beta blockers
 Propranolol  Atenolol  Bisoprolol  Metoprolol
26
Give the mechanism of action of beta blockers
 Antagonise β-adrenoreceptors. β1-receptors are found in the heart, when they are activated they cause increased Chronotropy and Inotropy.  Inhibit renin release
27
Give four indications for beta blockers
 Angina  Post myocardial infarction  Hypertension  Arrhythmias
28
Give a couple of contraindications for beta blockers
 Non-selective β-blockers (e.g. Propranolol) must not be given to asthmatic patients.  Bradycardia, hypotension, AV block, Congestive Cardiac Failure
29
Give some adverse drug reactions to B blockes
 Bronchospasm, fatigue and insomnia, dizziness, cold extremities, hypotension, bradycardia and decreased glucose tolerance in diabetic patients
30
Give two drug-drug interactions of beta blockers
 Prevents Salbutamol working (β2-adrenoagonist) |  Verapamil – Both have –‘ve inotropic action
31
Give three types of calcium channel blockers
Dihydropyridine Phenylalkylamine Benzothiazepine
32
What is the mechanism of action of calcium channel blockers?
o Calcium channel blockers bind to specific alpha subunit of L-type calcium channel, reducing cellular calcium entry o Vasodilates peripheral, coronary and pulmonary arteries o No significant effect on veins o Verapamil depresses SA node and slows A-V conduction
33
Give two examples of dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers
Nifedipine | Amlodipine
34
Give three properties of 1. Dihydropyridine Ca2+ blockers
 Good oral absorption  Protein bound > 90%  Metabolised by the liver
35
Give three adverse effects of dihydropyridine
 Sympathetic nervous system activation – tachycardia and palpitations  Flushing, sweating, throbbing headache  Oedema
36
What is a phenylalkylamine calcium channl blocker?
Verapamil
37
Give three properties of verapamil (phelyalkylamine calcium channel blocker)
 Impedes calcium transport across myocardial and vascular smooth muscle cell membrane  Class IV anti-arrhythmic agent (prolongs action potential/effective refractory period)  Peripheral vasodilation and a reduction in cardiac preload and myocardial contractility
38
Give three adverse effects of verapamil
 Impedes calcium transport across myocardial and vascular smooth muscle cell membrane  Class IV anti-arrhythmic agent (prolongs action potential/effective refractory period)  Peripheral vasodilation and a reduction in cardiac preload and myocardial contractility
39
Give an example of a benzothazepine calcium channel bloceker
 Diltiazem
40
Give three properties of a benzothazepine calcium channel bloceker
 Impedes Calcium transport across the myocardial and vascular smooth muscle cell membrane  Prolongs the action potential/effective refractory period  Peripheral vasodilation and reduction in cardiac preload and myocardial contractility
41
Give two adverse effects of 3. Benzothiazepine Calcium Channel Blockers
 Risk of bradycardia |  Negative inotropic effect (less than Verapamil) can worsen heart failure
42
Name a direct renin inhibitor
Aliskiren
43
Give an indication for a direct renin inhibitor
Hyperension
44
Give to contraindicator
 Pregnancy  Caution in patients at risk of hyperkalaemia, Na+ and volume depleted patients, severe renal impairment and renal stenosis
45
Give a mechanism of action a direct renin inhibitor
 Antagonises Renin, preventing the conversion of Angiotensinogen  Angiotensin I.  Reduces plasma renin activity by 50-80%
46
Give an adverse drug reaction of angio-oedema
 Angio-oedema, hyperkalaemia, hypotension, GI disturbances
47
Give a therapeutic note for direct renin inhibitors
 t½ of ~40 hours, supporting once daily doses  Mainly eliminated as an unchanged compound in faeces (78%)  Not metabolised via CYP450
48
What are two common combinations of blood pressure control?
o Diuretic and ACE inhibitor | o Diuretic and Beta Blocker
49
What is treatment patter in people under 55?
Primary is Ace inhibitor (A) Secondary A+C or A+D Third is A+C_D Four is more diuretic, alpha blocker or beta blocker
50
What treatment pattern in people over 55 or black patients?
Primary is C or D Secondary A+C or A+D Third is A+C_D Four is more diuretic, alpha blocker or beta blocker