Set B Vol 1 Self Test Flashcards
(168 cards)
1
Q
How do you change drill bits?
A
As a standard safety precaution, always disconnect the drill from the power source when installing or changing drill bits. Insert the shank of the twist bit into the chuck, and secure it firmly by inserting the drill chuck key into the holes of the chuck body and tightening the chuck jaws. With the power disconnected, you reduce your chance of being injured.
2
Q
What do you do before drilling in metal or other hard surfaces?
A
Use a center punch to mark the exact center of the hole to be drilled.
3
Q
What are some of the operations a grinder may help you do?
A
Sharpen chisels or screwdrivers, grind drills, remove excess metal from work, or smooth metal surfaces.
4
Q
What safety precaution is mandatory when using a bench grinder or wire wheel?
A
Always use eye or face protection.
5
Q
State the purpose of the spring guard on a circular saw.
A
This guard is usually designed to snap back automatically when the cut is finished to protect both the blade and the saw operator.
6
Q
How fast should the blade be spinning when it contacts the material being cut?
A
At full speed.
7
Q
List three safety precautions when dealing with pneumatic tools.
A
Inspect the air hose for cracks or other defects. Before connecting the air hose to the air outlet fitting, open the control valve momentarily. Connect the hose to the fitting and open the valve again momentarily—this ensures the hose is clear of water and other foreign material.
8
Q
How do you determine when to lubricate a pneumatic tool?
A
Refer to the specific tool TO or instruction book.
9
Q
What psi is used for safe efficient operation of a pneumatic tool?
A
90 psi.
10
Q
What does the torque regulator do?
A
Reduces the possibility of shearing or damaging threads when installing nuts and bolts to the required tension
11
Q
What ensures the socket or attachment will not fly off?
A
Spring-loaded ball bearing or socket lock.
12
Q
What is the prerequisite of a safe operation when using lifting devices?
A
Familiarity.
13
Q
What will be worn if there is a potential for injury from falling objects or moving equipment
A
Protective helmets
14
Q
List three reasons you would replace or repair a wire-rope sling.
A
Ten randomly distributed broken wires in one rope lay, or five broken wires in one strand in one rope lay. Wear or scraping of one-third the original diameter of outside individual wires. Kinking, crushing, bird caging, or any other damage resulting in distortion of the rope structure. Evidence of heat damage.
15
Q
What publication covers general guidance and safe lifting procedures for lifting devices?
A
AFOSH Standard 91–46, Materials Handling and Storage Equipment, or the specific manual for the lifting devices
16
Q
Explain the function of the AN/PSM–37.
A
Troubleshoot electrical and electronic circuits
17
Q
What are the maximum indications that an AN/PSM–37 can read for voltage?
A
1,000 volts (5,000 volts with the test prod).
18
Q
What are the maximum indications that an AN/PSM–37 can read for current?
A
1 ampere (10 amperes with the shunt).
19
Q
What are the maximum indications that an AN/PSM–37 can read for resistance?
A
100 MΩ.
20
Q
Which tester is currently used to test circuits on the AIM–9 and AIM–120 missile systems?
A
AMTEC 620.
21
Q
What position must the power switch be in during recharging?
A
The charger must be in the OFF position prior to recharging.
22
Q
Which controls are included in the operating controls of the 101–5BFG?
A
Operating controls include a center-scale galvanometer, a rotary three-position OHMS ADD switch (calibration from 0 to 20 ohms in 10 ohm increments), an operating KEY, and an OHMS knob controlling a variable resistor, the setting of which is shown on a digital OHMS indicator.
23
Q
State the maximum load capacity of the MHU–141/M trailer.
A
5,500 lbs.
24
Q
Which TO contains information on the MHU–141/M trailer?
A
TO 35D3–2–27–1.
25
What is the turning radius of the MHU–141/M trailer?
200” or 40 degrees in either direction
26
Explain the purpose of the breakaway cable on the MHU–141/M trailer.
It’s an added safety feature to stop the trailer in the event of an accidental breakaway.
27
State the maximum load capacity of the MHU–110/M trailer.
15,000 lbs.
28
Which TO contains information on the MHU–110/M trailer?
TO 35D3–2–26–1.
29
What allows you to stow the tow bar of an MHU–110/M trailer in a vertical position?
A spring-loaded latch device on the front axle.
30
State the maximum capacity of a pair of rail extenders
3,000 lb.
31
State the maximum load capacity of the MHU–226 trailer.
12,000 lbs.
32
What allows the MHU–226 to have a tighter steering radius then other munitions handling trailers?
Four-wheel steering (double Ackerman).
33
How many openings are on the deck of the MHU–226 trailer?
Three.
34
How many storage boxes are on the MHU–226 trailer?
Five.
35
Name the three types of trailers you may encounter.
Vans (closed). Flatbed (open). Rollerized.
36
What is the actual length of a 40 ft. trailer?
51’
37
The rollerized trailer is designed for what specific purpose?
To handle cargo loaded on HCU–6/E aluminum aircraft pallets.
38
Which TO provides guidance on the loading of conventional and/or nuclear weapons on HCU–6/E aircraft pallets?
TO 11N–45–51B.
39
The adjustable ramp of a rollerized trailer serves what purpose?
It ensures the smooth movement of pallets from the trailer to the aircraft
40
Who has the responsibility to detect deficiencies on trailers?
Vehicle operator.
41
What is a transport module?
Essentially, a large container, designed to secure atop the MHU–141, MHU–226 or MHU–110 munitions trailer for the transport of built-up munitions.
42
What is the maximum transport capacity of the BDU–33/MK 106 transport module?
It is manufactured in either a 40- or 80-round capacity version.
43
What is an absolute necessity when loading or unloading any module?
Positive, two-hand control of munitions
44
To ensure module doors are securely closed, what should you routinely do?
Periodically check the safety pins and/or latches between stops to prevent dropped munitions.
45
List some uses of the lift truck.
They are used to load and unload munitions (bombs, rockets, missiles, etc.) and suspension equipment (pylons, heavy stores, beams, multiple ejector racks, etc.) onto or into fighter and bomber aircraft. In addition, they are used to load and unload munitions onto and off trucks and trailers for transport to flight line or handling within munitions storage areas.
46
Which wheels on the lift truck are steerable?
The two rear wheels.
47
What is the lifting capacity of the MJ–1 lift truck with the bomb rollers attached?
3,000 lbs.
48
What is the top speed on the MJ–1 lift truck?
18 mph.
49
Explain the major difference between the hydrostatic drive system and the automatic transmission.
The automatic transmission can roll in gear, whereas the hydrostatic drive system won’t move unless the operator actuates the necessary controls.
50
Name the two ways you may lift the booms on the MHU–83 lift truck
Hydraulic fluid pressure actuated by the engine or by the hand pump.
51
What adjustments can you make on the cradle or boom of the MHU–83?
Tilt, lateral, and longitudinal.
52
What is the maximum capacity of an MHU–83 lift truck using the fork adapter assembly?
6,000 lbs.
53
When loading or unloading with a bomb-lift truck, the directional control lever should be in what position? Why?
Neutral with the parking brake set to ensure against inadvertent lift truck movement.
54
List three uses of the MC–7 air compressor.
To power pneumatic tools. To provide compressed air used in cleaning and drying equipment components. To provide compressed air to run vacu-blast operations.
55
Why should the diesel-powered MC–7 only be operated with the cover doors closed?
Operation with the doors open can cause damage to the hearing of operating personnel
56
Compressed air has caused injuries at what minimum amount of air pressure?
10 to 15 psi.
57
What publication governs the use of protective equipment for an air compressor operator?
AFOSH Standard 91–501.
58
How is accidental interconnection of high- and low-pressure air systems or equipment prevented?
Noninterchangeable chucks and connectors
59
How does the bobtail get its name?
The back end was shortened by about half the size of a pickup truck.
60
Explain the unique feature of the pintle hook.
It can be unpinned and moved in, out, or sideways to make coupling up a trailer easier.
61
What is the turning radius of the bobtail?
22’
62
What is the maximum towing capacity of the bobtail for towing support equipment?
40,000 lb.
63
Explain the term “operator maintenance.”
The systematic care of a vehicle, including daily cleaning, servicing, and inspecting for maintenance discrepancies.
64
What alerts you that the air pressure in the brake system is too low?
Warning buzzer, light, or both.
65
For what type of driving are the high-range gears of the transmission used?
Normal.
66
What is the primary purpose of the MB–4 tug?
To tow or push aircraft.
67
What is the towing capacity of the MB–4 tug?
140,000 lb.
68
If the MB–4 tug is operated on dry pavement with the differential shift lever in the LOCKED position, what can happen?
Severe damage to the tractor drive train.
69
Explain what a no-slip drive system means.
Every wheel turns exactly the same amount as any other wheel.
70
What components do a pintle assembly consist of?
A lunette ring and pintle hook
71
What are pintle assemblies and towing connections secured with?
Safety locking pin.
72
What must be verified with a quick release type safety pin?
Make sure the ball locks on the pin are present, not excessively worn, the push button is secure in the pin body, and the button moves freely
73
What basic procedures are required for double clutching to change gears in a tractor and trailer?
Release accelerator, push in clutch and shift to neutral at the same time. Release clutch. Let the engine and gears slow down to the rpm required for the next gear. Push in clutch and shift to the higher gear at the same time. Release clutch and press accelerator at the same time.
74
What are the two purposes of the emergency air line?
It supplies air to the trailer air tanks and controls the emergency brakes on your trailer.
75
List a few safety rules while backing a tractor and trailer combination.
Start in the proper position. Look at your path. Use mirrors on both sides. Back slowly. Back and turn toward the driver’s side. Use a spotter.
76
Describe what the term off-tracking or cheating means.
The term describes the path a vehicle wheels follow as it goes around a corner, the rear wheels follow a different path than the front wheels.
77
Where are nontactical forklifts most effective?
On the pavement
78
What are the two types of tactical forklifts?
Rough terrain and adverse terrain.
79
Explain the shutdown procedures of a rough-terrain forklift.
To stop the engine, release the load and, at the same time, decrease the engine speed. Allow the engine to run at half speed or slower with no load for four or five minutes before closing the throttle and stopping the engine. When the engine stops, place the ignition switch in the OFF position.
80
Name the two special-purpose forklifts.
Variable-reach forklift and swingmast forklift
81
What are the forklift tine height requirements while traveling with a load?
It shall be tilted back, if applicable, and raised only as far as necessary to clear the road surface.
82
Why should you drive backwards with bulky loads?
Better vision.
83
How far from combustible material must a forklift be parked?
10’.
84
What is the most common type of container for general purpose, dry cargo?
ISO container.
85
What is the weight capacity of the superstacker forklift?
50,000 lb.
86
What must you do before using the sideloader to lift or drop off an ISO container?
Make sure the trailer stabilizing legs are extended.
87
What aircraft will the LALS service?
The LALS is used exclusively for loading and downloading F–15, F–16, and F–22 aircraft.
88
What modes is the LALS divided into?
Replenishment, aircraft servicing, transport, and stowage
89
What are the five weapons replaceable assemblies on the LALS?
The storage container assembly, transfer unit assembly, conveyor assembly, trailer chassis, and pneumatic system.
90
What weapons replaceable assembly has no moving parts?
The storage container assembly.
91
What weapons replaceable assembly consists of the universal aircraft interface unit, interchange unit assembly, flex drive shaft assembly, conveyor belt assembly, and conveyor chute assembly?
The conveyor assembly.
92
What weapons replaceable assembly is mounted on the top of the storage container assembly and merges the ammunition into a single stream to be handed off to the conveyor assembly?
The transfer unit assembly.
93
State the purpose of the UALS.
To transfer 20 mm M–50-series ammunition into an aircraft gun system.
94
What is the maximum towing speed for the UALS?
20 mph.
95
Which TO covers the UALS?
TO 35D30–4–15–1.
96
What is the purpose of the scoop disk of the inner drum?
Transfers rounds and cases from the entrance cover assembly to the outer drum partitions and from the outer drum partitions to the exit cover assemblies.
97
What is the important safety measure to remember about the interface unit?
The interface unit has an exposed three-gear cluster that turns when mated to the aircraft access/transfer unit or the replenisher assembly
98
How is the cranking initiated on the UALS?
Either a half-inch speed wrench or a pneumatic drive assembly inserted into the drive receptacle.
99
How is the replenisher operated?
Manually or pneumatically.
100
Which TO gives a full description of the replenisher?
TO 35D30–4–11–1, Replenisher, Assembly, 20 MM Ammunition Loading System.
101
Which subassembly of the replenisher supports and transports spent cases and unfired rounds from the loader to the replenisher?
Conveyor element belt.
102
Explain the function of the delinker loader
This unit strips M14 or M22 links from the ammunition, and then feeds the rounds into the replenisher conveyor. The delinker unit automatically downloads any unfired rounds returning from the ammunition loader, unless manually released to recycle them.
103
Name the two 30 mm ammunition loading systems currently being used in the Air Force.
GFU–7/E and the GFU–10/E.
104
Which container is used to house the 30 mm ammunition in link tube carriers?
CNU–309/E.
105
What does the container interface tool provide?
Properly guides and layers the LTC in the containers
106
What assemblies comprise a complete GFU–10/E ALS?
Replenisher assembly, transporter assemblies, loader assembly, pod interface unit, and the rounds return unit.
107
What trailers are capable of singularly transporting an A/E32K–3, MAC?
The MHU–110/M and MHU–226/M trailer.
108
Which TO contains specific information on the MAC?
TO 35D2–17–1.
109
What is used to route electrical and pneumatic power to the MAC?
ICB.
110
Which piece of powered equipment can supply pneumatic power to the MAC?
MC–7 air compressor
111
What is used to level the gantries once the MAC is assembled?
An adjustment bar
112
Explain the purpose of the restraint strap.
The strap is used at a workstation to prevent the bomb body from turning while torque is applied.
113
How many munitions items can be raised, moved, and lowered onto dollies?
Up to three at a time.
114
Explain what happens to the dollies once they become empty.
They are placed on the return rail for reuse.
115
What is the minimum size site required for the MAC?
50 x 100’.
116
Why is it important to monitor the NEW during your operations?
Even in wartime, the intermagazine and intraline distances as outlined in AFMAN 91–201 apply. If your NEW is over the authorized limit, a very dangerous situation is at hand. Remember that intermagazine and intraline distances are designed to prevent propagation of an explosion from one location to another.
117
What should be the first thing you disconnect during disassembly of the MAC?
The ICB.
118
What regulates commercial shipments of explosives by rail, motor vehicle, cargo aircraft, and ship within the United States?
Title 49 of the CFR
119
Generally, transporting explosives on an Air Force installation is subject to the criteria in what regulation?
AFMAN 91–201.
120
How does QD affect the transportation of munitions and explosives?
QD criteria does not apply to munitions and explosives in the transportation mode.
121
When may you push or pull munitions containers?
Containers designed with skids may be pushed or pulled for positioning.
122
Explain the rules that govern the transport of explosives in vehicle passenger compartments
Do not transport explosives in vehicle passenger compartments except in the special circumstances outlined in AFMAN 91–201.
123
When, if ever, is it acceptable to roll un-palletized conventional high explosive bombs or other explosives?
Do not roll un-palletized conventional high-explosive bombs or other explosives unless authorized by the item TO. If authorized by the item TO, the lugs or other projections must be removed. Munitions protected by dunnage rails may be rolled.
124
When, if ever, is it acceptable to leave explosives laden vehicles unattended?
Except as required in the event of an electrical storm, do not leave explosives laden vehicles unattended unless they are parked in a properly designated area, such as the weapons storage area, holding yard, or flight line munitions holding area
125
Explain the use of explosive routes.
Designate the safest possible primary and alternate explosives movement routes to cover all phases of movement. Identify routes and any limitations on explosives quantities by hazard class/division in base publications. Avoid built-up areas and key, mission-oriented facilities and equipment to the maximum extent possible. Movements of munitions within a munitions storage area or to and from licensed storage locations are not restricted to designated routes.
126
What is the purpose of placards?
To provide a general warning to all personnel and furnish specific guidance for fire-fighting forces and other personnel responding to an emergency, such as disaster control.
127
What Web site provides information on which placard to use?
The JHCS is the source of information to check to make sure you have the proper hazard class and division. Once you know the hazard class and division, you can then check Title 49 CFR to determine the correct placard to use.
128
What are the placard requirements for transporting HD 1.4 material on base?
Placards may be omitted for transporting HD 1.4 material on base.
129
Explain the placard requirements for materials handling equipment.
Placard materials handling equipment only when used in the same manner as a transport vehicle or trailer.
130
When may compatibility group letters be omitted from a placard?
Compatibility group letters may be omitted from the placard if the vehicle remains on the installation.
131
What information does TO 11–1–38 provide?
TO 11–1–38 provides information on the correct positioning of munitions, provides tie-down procedures, and lists the equipment you need for each trailer and its various configurations.
132
If there is a conflict between the illustrations in TO 11–1–38 and the written directions, which takes precedence?
Written procedures
133
Who is the lowest level in the chain of command authorized to interpret TO 11–1–38 in making decisions for less than maximum and combined loads?
Munitions flight chief.
134
What requirements must be met to tandem tow trailers?
Always connect the trailer with the greatest GVW to tow vehicle.
The lowest minimum turning radius (of the two trailers) must be maintained.
Rear trailer will be off-loaded first.
Maximum towing speed of loaded trailers shall be 10 mph and 15 mph for unloaded trailers.
Specific item technical order requirement for tandem towing shall apply.
135
What illustrates the correct rail number and hole position to install required equipment for each configuration?
Load matrix card.
136
What information is required to be reviewed prior to proceeding to the load matrix cards?
You are required to review all information in the general notes starting on the first card of each trailer and weapon-type section this area prior to proceeding to the load matrix card to avoid missing critical steps
137
Explain the characteristics of the CGU–1/B tie-down assembly.
The CGU–1/B web-strap tie-down assembly is made of nylon webbing and has a rated working load of 5,000 lb.
138
What chapter of TO 11–1–38 provides configuration procedures to load GBUs on a MHU–141/M trailer?
Chapter 1.
139
What chapter of TO 11–1–38 provides configuration procedures to load MK–82s on a MHU–110/M trailer?
Chapter 2.
140
What piece of equipment is used with the rail extenders to prevent the trailer from becoming unstable?
The MHU–110 stabilizer jack.
141
What chapter of TO 11–1–38 provides configuration procedures for the MHU–226 trailer?
Chapter 3.
142
What items are used to positively identify equipment as nuclear certified?
Make positive identification by a nameplate, label, appropriate markings, or by official documents for the item and verify the item is located in MNCL
143
Explain two ways to locate a piece of equipment in the MNCL
Use the NSN or the item nomenclature on the nameplate and use the MNCL to locate the trailer by NSN. The second way is by using the item nomenclature on the nameplate and using the MNCL to alphabetically locate the item
144
What test equipment requires nuclear certification?
Equipment used to test and verify the proper functioning of critical circuits, assemblies, and devices associated with nuclear bombs and warheads in all nuclear systems. Also, special test or certification equipment used to operationally certify a critical component.
145
List two examples of common multipurpose test equipment that do not require certification.
The AN/PSM–6 and AN/PSM–37.
146
List five examples of general- or special-purpose hand tools that do not require certification.
```
Manually operated hydraulic floor or pallet jacks.
Pliers.
Wrenches.
Vacuum cleaners.
Screwdrivers.
Magnifiers.
Connector removal/pin-straightening tools.
Pry bars.
```
147
Explain what damage to the MB–1 tie-down/chain assembly warrants replacing the assembly
Replace the tie-down device if it has any cracks or bent/worn parts. Replace the chain if you find any deformed, cracked, or damaged links.
148
What preparation is required for MB–1 tie-down device installation?
To prepare the tie-down device for installation, fully extend the hook and open the chain recess.
149
Why is it important to evenly tighten the chain assemblies around the container?
The tension on one chain may be great enough to dislocate the container before the remaining assemblies are tightened.
150
If you can’t remove the tension on the MB–1 chain assembly by using the locking lever, what should you do?
Wear a glove to protect your hand and manually restrain the chain as you activate the MB–1 quick-release lever.
151
Why are you not allowed to use an extension (cheater) to close the load-binder handle?
Using a cheater bar can place too much pressure on the container and trailer tie-down points.
152
Explain how to measure a load binder with cable.
To measure the assembly’s length, first close the load binder and “run in” the turnbuckle to its shortest length. Make your measurement from the inside curves of the clevises.
153
What are the length tolerances for the cable-type load binders?
Between 85.75” minimum to 87.0” maximum
154
Which TO authorizes you to use two CGU–1/B straps for one MB–1 tie-down assembly?
TO 11N–45–51C, Transportation of Nuclear Weapons Materiel, Military Criteria for Shipment, FOUO.
155
How do you prevent damage to cables or trailer tie-down clasps when tightening them?
Make your final tension adjustments with the turnbuckle while the load binder is in the closed position. After the weapon is secure, tighten the wing nut securely against the turnbuckle.
156
How does the DOD ship weapons?
By truck or air.
157
What types of aircraft are normally used for DOD shipments?
C–17 or C–130 aircraft.
158
What is the primary method for transporting nuclear weapons?
The SST/SGT.
159
List four things to consider when planning a nuclear weapons movement
Known and possible hazards. Current intelligence estimates of general and local threats associated with the point of origin, routes, en route stops, and destination. The type of weapons and method of shipment. The availability of security forces and resources.
160
Who is notified in the event of an accident or delay involving a shipment of nuclear weapons?
The shipping and receiving commanders.
161
How often are couriers certified?
At least annually.
162
Why would a DOE convoy seek sanctuary (Safe Haven) at a military base?
As a result of a hostile or emergency situation.
163
What type of operational movement happens inside the WSA?
An intra-area movement.
164
List two examples of outside WSA weapon movements
Hot cargo pad for a special-assignment airlift mission. Flight line for alert aircraft upload.
165
Explain what is involved with the breakout of nuclear weapons.
The term breakout is used to describe the action of removing weapons from a structure. You are issued keys and sent to the storage structures to break out the weapons. Before you leave the maintenance shop, be sure you have everything you need, such as checklists, fire extinguishers, code for the day, and so forth. Prior to loading or departing, all vehicles must be checked out to make sure all equipment—including tires, brakes, lights, and communications equipment—is in proper and safe operating condition. Further, you need to search the vehicles for unauthorized devices. Make sure that the vehicles have a full or almost full tank of fuel.
166
What are the requirements for a vehicle operator in a convoy?
Vehicle operators must be fully qualified in the operation of the particular vehicle, have in their possession a valid operator’s permit, and be certified to transport weapons.
167
What is the most difficult task for escort guards when driving in a convoy?
To keep other vehicles from entering the convoy.
168
What is used in the event of duress during a convoy?
A secure duress code word or signal.
