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2w0 CDCs > Set B Vol 2 Self Test > Flashcards

Set B Vol 2 Self Test Flashcards

1
Q

What explosive do we use as the comparison to measure explosive power?

A

TNT.

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2
Q

What are the economic requirements for military explosives?

A

Raw materials must be cheap and plentiful and the manufacturing process must be relatively cheap, simple, and safe. Raw materials must not be vital to other phases of the war effort.

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3
Q

What is brisance?

A

The shattering or fragmentation effect of explosives.

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4
Q

What term describes the tendency of a substance to produce vapors?

A

Volatility.

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5
Q

When a military explosive does not react with the metal that encases it or with another explosive, it is said to have what characteristic?

A

A natural compatibility.

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6
Q

What is meant by explosive toxicity?

A

An explosive’s poisonous characteristics.

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7
Q

What is hygroscopicity?

A

The moisture-absorbing property of an explosive.

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8
Q

What is the autocombustion rate of low explosives?

A

A few inches per minute to 1,300 feet per second.

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9
Q

What term do we use to describe the tendency of a substance to burn with a rapid and sparkling combustion?

A

Deflagration.

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10
Q

What condition is necessary for an explosive to detonate rather than deflagrate?

A

It must be confined.

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11
Q

What are the basic components of an explosive train?

A

Detonator, booster, and bursting charge.

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12
Q

What is a relatively small and sensitive initial component that begins the functioning of the explosive train?

A

Primer.

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13
Q

What are the two means by which we can activate a detonator?

A

By the action of a primer or by a non-explosive impulse.

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14
Q

What is the purpose of a delay?

A

A delay controls the timed delay in the functioning of the train.

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15
Q

What does an explosive booster do?

A

Detonates a main charge.

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16
Q

Of the three common explosive trains discussed here, which action—time, superquick, or delay—would cause a bomb to detonate on impact?

A

Superquick action.

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17
Q

Which effect of a general-purpose bomb does the most damage: blast or fragmentation?

A

Blast.

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18
Q

What effect causes greater penetration of the explosive charge?

A

Munroe effect.

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19
Q

What happens when you increase the standoff distance of an explosive?

A

Its penetrating capability is increased.

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20
Q

Name four weapons that use the Munroe effect.

A

(1) Artillery shells.
(2) Rocket warheads.
(3) Demolition charges.
(4) Antitank mines.

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21
Q

What are the four factors that control the visibility of pyrotechnics?

A

Candlepower, color, weather, and light.

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22
Q

What type of weather reduces the visibility range of pyrotechnics?

A

Moist weather, rain.

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23
Q

How do we classify pyrotechnics?

A

According to their purpose as illuminants, signals, combinations of signal and illuminants and simulators.

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24
Q

What are the two effects of signals?

A

Light and smoke

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25
Q

How can you identify pyrotechnic ammunition?

A

By its nomenclature, lot number, model designation, painting, marking, NSN, and DODIC.

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26
Q

How long does the AN–MK6 Mod 3 signal burn?

A

Approximately 40 minutes.

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27
Q

What is the candlepower rating of the AN–MK13 flare?

A

3,000 candlepower

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28
Q

Which day-night signal is designed to be used with only one hand?

A

The MK124 Mod 0.

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29
Q

How many flares does the personnel distress signal kit A/P 25S–1 contain?

A

Seven.

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30
Q

At what height and for how long does the A/P 25S–1 burn?

A

Minimum height of 300 feet for five seconds.

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31
Q

What is the A/P 25S–5A distress kit designed to do that the A/P 25S–1 is not?

A

Penetrate a heavy foliage canopy.

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32
Q

How long does the A/P 25S–5A distress signal kit flare burn?

A

Nine seconds.

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33
Q

What is the maximum height the M127A1 signal will reach?

A

650–700 feet.

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34
Q

What is the candlepower of the M127A1 ground illumination signal?

A

50,000.

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35
Q

What are the five main assemblies of the M131 ground illumination signal?

A

Launcher. Igniter. Delay. Parachute. Illumination composition.

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36
Q

What is the M131 signal designed to do?

A

To produce a distinctive red light above the ground fog, haze, or overcast.

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37
Q

What safety equipment is required for handling the MK50 Mod 0 flare?

A

Protective mask and butyl rubber gloves.

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38
Q

Which military weapons do we classify as “small arms”?

A

Those with a bore diameter (inside diameter of the barrel) of 0.50 inch or less.

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39
Q

What terms do we use to describe the measurement of small arms?

A

Gauge and caliber.

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40
Q

Which cartridge is the exception to shotgun gauging?

A

The .410 shotgun cartridge.

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41
Q

What color is the tip of an AP bullet painted?

A

Black.

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42
Q

Against what type of target do we use ball ammunition?

A

Personnel or light materiel targets.

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43
Q

What do grenade cartridges do?

A

Propel grenades and ground signals from rifles or carbines.

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44
Q

What is the purpose of tracer rounds?

A

To illuminate the path of the bullets so the gunner can correct his/her aim.

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45
Q

For what do we use noncombat ammunition?

A

Training and weapons testing.

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46
Q

Which type of round do we use for weapons loading training?

A

Dummy.

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47
Q

Why is wadcutter ammunition used?

A

It is used for medium-range practice and competitive shooting.

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48
Q

What is a small-arms cartridge?

A

A complete assembly of all components necessary to fire the weapon once.

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49
Q

What part of the cartridge case holds the projectile (bullet)?

A

The neck.

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50
Q

Where are the primer pocket and extracting groove located?

A

In the head of the cartridge.

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51
Q

What causes a bullet to spin?

A

The rifling in the gun barrel.

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52
Q

What is the purpose of the meplat?

A

Reduce the possibility of ricochet.

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53
Q

To what part of the cartridge case is the bullet crimped?

A

Cannelure.

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54
Q

What are the classifications of Air Force grenades?

A

Service, practice, and training.

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55
Q

Which grenade has a high-explosive or chemical filler?

A

The service grenade.

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56
Q

What are the uses for hand grenades?

A

Inflict casualties or damage and for screening and signaling.

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57
Q

What are some of the tactical uses of service grenades?

A

Fragmentation, irritant, riot control, screening smoke, signaling smoke, and incendiary.

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58
Q

What does the M26-series fragmentation grenade use for a metal body in place of the old cast-iron grenade body?

A

A thin metal body lined with a wire-wound coil.

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59
Q

What is the explosive filler for the M26-series grenades?

A

0.39 pound of composition B.

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60
Q

Why is the base of the M34 grenade tapered?

A

So that the grenade can be mounted on an M1A2 grenade projection adapter.

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61
Q

What is the filler agent for the M34 grenade?

A

15 ounces of white phosphorous (WP).

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62
Q

What are the uses of the M25-series grenades?

A

Riot and disturbance control.

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63
Q

Which grenades are used with the M1A2 grenade projection adapter?

A

Fragmentation grenades.

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64
Q

Which grenades are used with the M2A1 grenade projection adapter?

A

Chemical grenades.

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65
Q

What publication contains guidance on the safety and handling of grenades?

A

AFMAN 91–201, Explosives Safety Standards, and applicable TOs.

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66
Q

Why must M34 grenades be stored fuze end up?

A

To avoid possible leakage of the filler.

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67
Q

What compound do you use to treat the floors of magazines used to store chemical grenades?

A

Sodium silicate.

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68
Q

What are some of the things that you look for in inspecting grenades?

A

Damaged, rusted, or poorly marked inner or outer containers. Unauthorized fuzes and for deformed or missing safety pins. Look for leaking or exuding fillers; cracks, damage, or corroded grenade body or fuze; loose fuze; lot number of fuze or grenade unknown; missing markings.

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69
Q

What is the killing agent of the M18A1 antipersonnel mine?

A

700 steel balls.

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70
Q

What is the effective kill range of the M18A1 mine?

A

100 meters.

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71
Q

When using a claymore mine, what safety precaution must you observe?

A

Personnel up to 100 meters to the sides and rear of these mines should take cover for protection.

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72
Q

What is the special feature that makes the M14 almost nondetectable by magnetic mine detectors?

A

Its practically all plastic construction.

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73
Q

What are the two limitations of the light mortars?

A

They have a short range and a small-explosive charge.

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74
Q

What type of mortar can be broken down into several smaller loads for easier carrying?

A

Medium mortar (the 81-mm).

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75
Q

What is required to move heavy mortars?

A

Trucks or tracked mortar carriers.

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76
Q

What initiation source do we primarily use to detonate HEs?

A

Blasting caps.

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77
Q

Name the two types of blasting caps.

A

Electric and nonelectric blasting caps.

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78
Q

What is the purpose of the yellow painted bands on military safety/time fuses?

A

Used to estimate the length of burn during tactical situations where a test burn is not feasible

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79
Q

What is the rate of detonation for detonating cord?

A

Between 20,000 and 21,000 feet per second.

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80
Q

What is the purpose of the M60 igniter?

A

It is used to light a safety/time fuse.

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81
Q

For what do we use a flash vented squib?

A

It is used to ignite pyrotechnic or incendiary compositions or black powder

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82
Q

What is the purpose of the initiator well on the TNT demo block?

A

Receiving the initiating explosive/charge.

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83
Q

What is the advantage of military dynamite over commercial dynamite?

A

Military dynamite is safer to store, transport and handle.

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84
Q

What is the purpose of the M1A4 priming adapter?

A

It is used to secure electric or nonelectric blasting caps in a threaded activator well of a demolition charge

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85
Q

What is the M1 clip used to hold together?

A

Two strands of detonating cord.

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86
Q

How do we classify fuzes?

A

By their position, action, and method of arming.

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87
Q

Name the types of fuze action.

A

Impact, time, and proximity.

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88
Q

What principle of detonation does the proximity fuze use?

A

Once the bomb reaches the preset HOF, it detonates

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89
Q

What are the two main types of fuze arming?

A

Mechanically timed and electronically timed.

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90
Q

What are the most common safety features found in bomb fuzes?

A

Seal wires, cotter pins, safety blocks, and the detonator safe feature.

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91
Q

What safety device is normally installed at the time of manufacture?

A

Safety blocks.

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92
Q

When do you remove the sealing wire from an M904 nose fuze?

A

Prior to takeoff.

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93
Q

What is the purpose of the empty delay cavity on the M904 and M905 fuze?

A

It acts as an interrupter to the explosive train of the fuze during handling.

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94
Q

Which adapter booster do we use with the M904 fuze?

A

T45 adapter booster.

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95
Q

What provides the rotational force required to arm the M905 fuze?

A

ATU–35-series drive assembly.

96
Q

What happens to the FMU–54/B fuze if the fin malfunctions?

A

The fuze will not arm.

97
Q

What provides ground handling safety for the FMU–54?

A

The safing pin.

98
Q

Name at least three different electrical fuzes.

A

(1) FMU–81.
(2) FMU–124.
(3) FMU–139.
(4) FMU–143.
(5) FMU–152.

99
Q

How many FZU–2/B boosters are required for use when an FMU–81/B fuze is installed in the tail of a bomb?

A

One.

100
Q

Which fuze has only one safety device that is installed through the safety release shaft and safety device assembly?

A

FMU–124.

101
Q

Which fuze(s) is used by both the Navy and the Air Force?

A

(1) FMU–139.

(2) FMU–152.

102
Q

What provides electrical power in the FMU–139A/B fuze?

A

FZU–48 initiator.

103
Q

What provides electrical power in the FMU–143 series fuze?

A

FZU–32 initiator.

104
Q

What capability does the FMU–152 series fuze provide?

A

Hardened target capability that provides safing, in-flight cockpit selection, and arming fuzing functions for general–purpose and penetrating, unitary warheads.

105
Q

What provides electrical power in the FMU–152 series fuze?

A

FZU–55 initiator.

106
Q

What type of sensor is the DSU–33?

A

Doppler ranging radar proximity sensor.

107
Q

List the types of munitions that use the DSU–33.

A

M117; Mk 80-series general-purpose bombs; JDAM.

108
Q

Which tail fuzes are employed with the DSU–33?

A

(1) FMU–139.

(2) FMU–152.

109
Q

Which dispenser(s) uses the FZU–39/B proximity sensor?

A

The SUU–64/B, SUU–65/B and SUU–66B.

110
Q

What are the function height settings for the FZU–39/B?

A

Ranges from 300 to 3,000 feet.

111
Q

Which booster does the FMU–113/B fuze use?

A

The FZU–2/B booster.

112
Q

What indicates the FMU–113/B fuze is armed?

A

Any position of the armed indicator that is red.

113
Q

How much of the assembled M117 series bomb weight is the explosive charge?

A

Approximately 45 percent.

114
Q

Which conical fin does the M117 use?

A

MAU–103 fin.

115
Q

Which AIR fin does the M117 use?

A

BSU–93/B fin.

116
Q

What are the combined effects of the MK80 series bombs?

A

Blast, penetration, and fragmentation.

117
Q

Which MK80 series bomb weighs approximately 500 pounds?

A

MK82 series.

118
Q

How can an MK82 series bomb produce a mining or penetrating effect?

A

By using delayed action fuze.

119
Q

Which fin is designed for high-speed, low-altitude delivery on the MK82 series bomb?

A

The BSU–49/B.

120
Q

What is the NEW of the MK84 bomb?

A

945.

121
Q

What are penetrator bombs designed to do?

A

Designed to be used on hardened targets. Examples are HAS, reinforced concrete buildings, underground command and control facilities, and runways.

122
Q

What are the four penetrator bombs the Air Force uses?

A

(1) BLU–109 series.
(2) BLU–113 series.
(3) BLU–118 series.
(4) BLU–122 series.

123
Q

What is the BLU–109/B penetrator bomb capable of doing?

A

It can penetrate four to six feet of reinforced concrete.

124
Q

What penetrator is a 4,000-pound class penetrator bomb?

A

BLU–113.

125
Q

Which penetrator is used as the warhead for the GBU–28 A/B and GBU–28 B/B?

A

BLU–113.

126
Q

What penetrator bomb was designed to be more lethal in confined spaces?

A

BLU–118.

127
Q

What penetrator is a 5,000-pound class bomb?

A

BLU–122.

128
Q

What munition does the external appearance of the M129 resemble?

A

M117 750-pound GP bomb.

129
Q

What is the payload of the M129 series bomb?

A

110 paper rolls.

130
Q

What separates the two bomb halves of the M129 series leaflet and MJU–1 series countermeasure bomb?

A

Detonating cord.

131
Q

What bomb was developed to drop leaflets from high-performance aircrafts?

A

PDU–5/B

132
Q

What bomb was developed to drop leaflets from high-performance aircrafts?

A

Situations where friendly forces and/or civilians are close to the target.

133
Q

What is the NEW of the BLU–126/B LCDB?

A

27 pounds.

134
Q

Why does the Air Force use practice bombs?

A

To provide a low-cost target practice for the flight crews of fighter and bomber aircraft.

135
Q

When is the CXU–3A/B spotting charge used?

A

When the danger of starting brush or forest fires is high.

136
Q

What practice bomb simulates the MK82 high-drag bomb?

A

The BDU–48/B.

137
Q

What live item does the MK106 simulate?

A

Retarded nuclear weapon.

138
Q

Which CBU–87 series bomb comes equipped with a dummy proximity sensor?

A

The CBU–87/B.

139
Q

Explain how a CBU–87 functions.

A

When the mechanical timer expires or the HOF setting for the proximity sensor is reached, an explosive bolt functions allowing the fins to cant and spin the dispenser. When the dispenser reaches a preset rpm, the LSCC functions and cuts the dispenser into three sections from front to rear.

140
Q

What type of bomblets are used in the CBU–87?

A

Anti-materiel/anti-tank.

141
Q

Which bomblets are loaded in the CBU–87?

A

BLU–97/B and the BLU–97A/B.

142
Q

What is the major difference between the CBU–89/B and CBU–87/B?

A

They are physically the same except the CBU–89/B does not have canted fins, an explosive bolt, and it utilizes the SUU–64 dispenser.

143
Q

How many and what type of bomblets are loaded in the CBU–89?

A

72 each BLU–91/B bomblets and 22 each BLU–92/B mines.

144
Q

In what configuration is the CBU–89/B delivered from the manufacturer?

A

They are delivered as a complete round with bomb lugs, arming wires, all internal components, and a dummy FZU–39/B sensor installed.

145
Q

For what type of target are the BLU–91/B bomblets designed?

A

Tanks.

146
Q

How many and what type of bomblets are loaded in a CBU–97/B?

A

10 each BLU–108/B submunitions.

147
Q

For what type of target is the CBU–97 series designed?

A

Tanks and armored support vehicles.

148
Q

What CBU–97 series device destroys the target when it’s detected?

A

An explosive forged penetrating projectile is fired, destroying the target through kinetic energy.

149
Q

Which CBU series is considered to be wind-corrected munitions?

A

(1) CBU–103.
(2) CBU–104.
(3) CBU–105.

150
Q

Where is the WCMD kit mounted on the CBU–103, –104, and –105 dispenser bodies?

A

In the tail, replacing the fins.

151
Q

What components make up the WCMD kit?

A

A fin guidance system, variable position umbilical connector, operational flight program software, fin release lanyard, and a fin release safing pin.

152
Q

How does the WCMD function?

A

The WCMD tail kit provides guidance and navigation during free flight. Correction for wind effects, ballistics dispersion and launch transients for munitions delivered from high altitude are communicated with the carrier aircraft prior to weapon separation. The CAA cants the fins to spin the dispenser during flight.

153
Q

How are 20 mm cartridges classified?

A

According to their purpose.

154
Q

How is an API round initiated?

A

On impact.

155
Q

What is the SAPHEI PGU–28 series round used for?

A

Aircraft and light materiel targets.

156
Q

What are the combat effects of an HEI round?

A

It is a combined explosive and incendiary effect.

157
Q

Name two uses for 20 mm dummy ammo

A

Testing feeder assemblies after maintenance and for drill.

158
Q

The 20 mm cartridge case is usually made of what material?

A

Usually brass

159
Q

What prevents the gas from escaping past the projectile when the round is fired?

A

The rotating band.

160
Q

What is the purpose of the bourrelet?

A

It acts as a forward-bearing surface to prevent the projectile from wobbling as it passes through the bore.

161
Q

What do the other chemicals in double-base propellant do?

A

They minimize smoke and flash, increase stability, and permit uniform loading during manufacture.

162
Q

Which 20 mm round requires a fuze to detonate the projectile?

A

The HEI round.

163
Q

What is the safety feature of the M505 fuze?

A

The fuze is bore safe.

164
Q

How does the M505 fuze arm?

A

Centrifugal force caused by the spinning of the projectile.

165
Q

How can we identify 20 mm ammunition?

A

By model number, lot number, and manufacturer’s symbol, all of which are marked or stamped on the side of the projectile.

166
Q

Where and when is the lot number assigned?

A

At the manufacturing plant at the time of manufacture.

167
Q

Remember, all of the components of a 20 mm round have a lot number assigned to them. Where is the lot number located that is used to control a complete round?

A

On the side of the projectile.

168
Q

Is a 20 mm target practice round live or inert?

A

The projectile is inert and the cartridge is live.

169
Q

What Air Force aircraft fires the 25 mm round?

A

The AC–130 gunship.

170
Q

What cannon fires the 25 mm round?

A

The GAU–12 cannon.

171
Q

How do we classify 25 mm ammo?

A

According to its purpose.

172
Q

What is the one difference between the components of a 20 mm round and a 25 mm round?

A

The 25 mm round has an ignition booster to ensure consistent propellant ignition.

173
Q

Which 25 mm round(s) uses the M115 percussion primer?

A

They all do.

174
Q

What fuze is used in the 25 mm HEI round?

A

M505.

175
Q

What color is 25 mm dummy ammo?

A

Gold.

176
Q

What markings can you find on the cartridge case of 25 mm ammo?

A

Caliber, type of projectile, designation, and drawing reference number.

177
Q

How are 25 mm rounds packaged?

A

Bulk 25 mm ammunition is packaged in either 80- or 100-round configurations depending on the NSN.

178
Q

How do we classify 30 mm ammo?

A

According to its purpose.

179
Q

The PGU–15 30 mm round used for what purpose?

A

Pilot training, weapon testing, and aircraft system checkout.

180
Q

What impact fuze is used on the 30 mm HEI round?

A

M505A3.

181
Q

How far from the muzzle of the barrel is the fuze fully armed?

A

30–65 feet.

182
Q

What are the two purposes of the fumer charge in the API and APIT rounds?

A

Reduce air drag during flight to the target and to give a visible trace of the flight path.

183
Q

What produces the heat and incendiary effects of the API round?

A

Target friction.

184
Q

What does the projectile retaining screw in the PGU–16/A dummy round do?

A

It holds the projectile in the cartridge and simulates the weight of the propellant and the center of gravity of the round.

185
Q

The 30 mm cartridge case is made of what material?

A

Aluminum.

186
Q

What type of propellant does the 30 mm round use?

A

Double-base.

187
Q

How can you identify 30 mm ammo?

A

By its model number, lot number, part number, and color coding.

188
Q

What color(s) are API and APIT rounds painted?

A

Both rounds have a black projectile with a red band and white markings.

189
Q

What color are dummy rounds painted?

A

Bronze or gold projectile with black markings.

190
Q

Where is the ammunition lot number stamped?

A

On the side of the cartridge case.

191
Q

How is ammunition for M2A1 cannon classified?

A

According to the type of projectile and/or fuze.

192
Q

Which round has a red tracer composition and an M69 dummy fuze?

A

40 mm AAA target practice tracer (TPT) round.

193
Q

What fuze does the PGU–9 C/B round use?

A

FMU–154/B fuze.

194
Q

What is the minimum specification no arm distance for the FMU–154/B?

A

140 feet.

195
Q

What is the function of the MK1 ammunition box?

A

Holds four MK 4, MK 5 or MK 6 clips for a total of 16 rounds.

196
Q

What is the classification of 105 mm ammo the Air Force currently uses?

A

Fixed.

197
Q

Why is the 105 mm HE round used?

A

Conventional fire support for harassment and interdiction, fragmentation, mining, and blast effect.

198
Q

What point detonating fuze is used with the PGU–44/B?

A

FMU–153.

199
Q

What round produces approximately 13,000 fragments upon detonation?

A

HF PGU–45/B.

200
Q

If the proximity mode fails, how does the FMU–160/B fuze detonate?

A

By impact (point detonating backup).

201
Q

What is the NEW of the inert PGU–43/B TP round with live supplementary charge?

A

0.3 pound TNT supplementary charge.

202
Q

What cartridge is designed to clear a projectile lodged in the bore of a 105 mm cannon?

A

105 mm, clearing.

203
Q

Which military aircraft carry countermeasure flare/decoy flares?

A

All major tactical fighters, current bombers, and cargo aircraft.

204
Q

What is used to safe an ALA–17 flare for handling?

A

Shorting clip.

205
Q

What is the maximum number of MJU–7-series flares that the MJU–12 flare magazine holds?

A

15.

206
Q

Why is the SD–206 Smokey Devil flare simulator used?

A

It is a simulator loaded and dispensed the same as the M206 but instead of burning, it provides a yellowish smoke to simulate a flare for training purposes.

207
Q

What countermeasure consists of a towed decoy?

A

AN/ALE–50 TDS.

208
Q

What is the maximum number of decoys that can be carried on a B–1B?

A

Eight.

209
Q

What is meant by “frequency reflecting dipoles”?

A

Metallic strips cut to match different RF wavelengths.

210
Q

What is the purpose of chaff munitions?

A

They are used to scramble enemy radar signal returns.

211
Q

What is the candlepower range for aircraft parachute flares?

A

60,000–2,000,000 candlepower.

212
Q

How do most aircraft parachute flares extend their illumination time?

A

By using parachutes.

213
Q

What is the purpose of illumination flares?

A

Provide illumination for reconnaissance, bombardment, emergency night landings, or search and rescue.

214
Q

What is the purpose of target marker flares?

A

They mark an area on the ground and provide a colored flame which is distinguishable in the presence of other burning illumination flares.

215
Q

What is the average burning time of the LUU–1/B target marker flare?

A

30 minutes.

216
Q

What color light does the LUU–5/B provide?

A

Green.

217
Q

What type of illumination does the LUU–19 series flare provide?

A

Near-infrared region for use with night vision goggles.

218
Q

How many LUU series flares can the SUU–25E/A hold?

A

Eight.

219
Q

What is the most noticeable difference between the SUU–25E/A and the SUU–25F/A?

A

The SUU–25E/A has a five-ohm toggle switch located in the center manifold on the forward bulkhead.

220
Q

How are flares ejected from the SUU–25E/A?

A

Rearward by gas pressure supplied by an impulse cartridge.

221
Q

Which impulse cartridge is used in the SUU–25?

A

ARD 863–1.

222
Q

What is a CAD?

A

A device that uses a self-contained removable explosive cartridge to provide a source of gas pressure to perform its intended function.

223
Q

When are mechanically operated initiators fired?

A

When the initiator pin is withdrawn by a force of 20–35 pounds.

224
Q

How are gas fired initiators activated?

A

When gas pressure is supplied from an initiator or other CAD, its force on the firing pin shears the shear pin and propels the firing pin against the cartridge.

225
Q

What do thrusters do?

A

Position ejection seats, stow control columns, and open the canopy or escape hatch locks.

226
Q

What are catapults designed to do?

A

Eject the pilot’s seat and the pilot from an aircraft under emergency situations.

227
Q

What do removers do?

A

Jettison the canopy forcibly from the aircraft.

228
Q

What is a PAD?

A

A device that uses a propellant that is an integral part of the device to provide a source of gas pressure to perform its intended function.

229
Q

Why are impulse cartridges used?

A

They furnish explosive power to separate bombs, fuel tanks, missiles, and other stores from aircraft.

230
Q

Name the two types of impulse cartridges

A

Explosive and nonexplosive.

231
Q

How is a typical impulse cartridge fired?

A

Electrical initiation.

232
Q

When does the service life of an impulse cartridge start?

A

When the hermetically sealed container is opened.

233
Q

What precaution must you remember to take when handling impulse cartridges?

A

Ground yourself.

234
Q

What is a major hazard of PADs?

A

EMR, static electricity, or RF energy.

235
Q

When may you remove shunts, clips, and other shorting devices from a PAD?

A

For continuity testing or for installation of the device.

2w0 CDCs (13 decks)

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