Sketchy Pharm 100 Question Final Flashcards by Anita Maxwynn

What is a common side effect (up to 10%) of ACE inhibitors due to the buildup of bradykinin?
a. Cough
b. Gingival hyperplasia
c. Gynecomastia
d. Hypotension

a. Cough

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Which is a pure opioid antagonist that blocks opioid receptors and is used to reverse opioid overdoses
a. Gabapentin (Neurontin)
b. Fentanyl (Duragesic)
c. Naloxone (Narcan)
d. Tramadol (Ultram)

c. Naloxone (Narcan)

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Ibuprofen is likely to cause a drug interaction with which of the following?
a. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
b. Doxycycline (Doryx)
c. Warfarin (Coumadin)
d. Oxycodone

c. Warfarin (Coumadin)

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RW is being treated for Generalized Tonic-Clonic Seizures with Valproic Acid (Depakote), Gabapentin (Neurontin), and topiramate (Topamax). In addition, RW is treated for Schizophrenia with Risperidone (Risperdal). Routine therapeutic lab monitoring reveals a drop in platelet level from 320,000 to ONE of the following? 160,000. The medication most likely to contribute to the development of a dose related thrombocytopenia is which

a. risperidone (Risperdal)
b. topiramate (Topamax)
c. gabapentin (Neurontin)
d. valproic acid (Depakote)

c. gabapentin (Neurontin)

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SI is a 42 year old undergoing endodontic treatment for tooth number 15, which has irreversible pulpits and extremely percussion sensitive. He reports she has hypertension but is otherwise healthy. His blood pressure is currently well controlled. He reports the only medication he takes is amlodipine. He reports no known allergies. Which of the follow is the best pain management regimen?

a. Acetaminophen 325 mg, 2 tablets qid for 48-72 hours post procedure, then prn
b. Acetaminophen 300 mg with codeine 30 mg (Tylenol #3), 1-2 tablets gid for 48-72 hours post procedure, then prn
c. Ibuprofen 600 mg qid alternating with acetaminophen 650 mg gid or 48-72 hours post procedure, then prn
d. Oxycodone/acetaminophen 5/325 mg qid for 48-72 hours post procedure, then prn

file had no answer
i think it might be… c

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In a patient who presents with severe cholinergic toxicity, which of the following symptoms would atropine NOT be effective in treating?
a. Paralysis
b. Hypersalivation
c. Bradycardia
d. Excessive urination

a. Paralysis

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What are the most common side effects associated with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) use?
a. sedation, weight gain
b. orthostatic hypotension, dizziness, tachycardia
c. blurred vision, dry mouth, constipation, urinary retention
d. nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, headache, insomnia

c. blurred vision, dry mouth, constipation, urinary retention

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Calcium and Vitamin I supplementation is recommended for patients taking which ONE of the following antiepileptic medications?
a. valproie acid (Depakote)
b. levetiracetam (Keppra)
c. zonisamide (Zonegran)
d. tiagabine (Gabitril)

a. valproie acid (Depakote)

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Which antianginal medication works by inhibiting the late inward sodium current (…) in ischemic myocardium?
a. Atenolol (Tenormin)
b. Isosorbide mononitrate (Imdur)
c. Ranolazine (Ranexa)
d. Verapamil (Calan/Verlan)

a. Atenolol (Tenormin)

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hich of the following is an arrhythmia that results in heart rate less than 60 beats per minute?
a. Bradycardia
b. Delayed after-depolarization (DAD)
c. Tachycardia
d. Ventricular fibrillation

a. Bradycardia

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hich antidepressant’s mechanism of action includes both serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibition?
a. fluoxetine (Prozac)
b. bupropion (Welbutrin)
c. venlafaxine (Effexor)
d. citalopram (Celexa)

c. venlafaxine (Effexor)

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hich medications possess analgesics and anti-inflammatory properties?
a. Acetaminophen
b. Naproxen
c. Oxycodone
d. Tramadol

a. Acetaminophen

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hich medication increases cardiac contractility by inhibiting the phosphodiesterase-3 enzyme (PDE3)?
a. Digoxin (Lanoxin/Digitek)
b. DOBUTamine (Dobutrex)
c. Levosimendan (Simdax)
d. Milrinone (Primacor)

d. Milrinone (Primacor)

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Nitric Oxide causes vasodilation by activating which of the following enzymes?
a. Adenylyl cyclase
b. Angiotensin converting enzyme
c. Guanyly cyclase
d. Phosphodiesterase 5

c. Guanyly cyclase

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What herbal product is recommended in treatment guidelines for depression?
a. kava kava
b. turmeric
c. ginseng
d. St. John’s wort

file was confusing but I assume it is d

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Which of the following antiepileptic medications is known to cause a significant amount of cognitive impairment and is associated with an increased risk of nephrolithiasis the patient is not adequately hydrated?
a. phenobarbital (Luminal)
b. phenytoin (Dilantin)
c. lamotrigine (Lamictal)
d. topiramate (Topamax

b. phenytoin (Dilantin)

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Acetaminophen is contraindicated in which of the following conditions?
a. Active hepatitis
b. Acute heart failure
c. Asthma exacerbation
d. Recent gastric ulcer

a. Active hepatitis

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Which of the following results from covalent modification and alteration of DNA?
a. teratogenicity
b. mutagenesis
c. carcinogenicity
d. cardiotoxicity

b. mutagenesis

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Which of the following medications is used for management of chronic neuropathic pain and has been used for pre-operative and peri-operative analgesia in dental and other surgical procedures?
a. Aspirin
b. Celecoxib (Celebrex)
c. Duloxetine (Cymbalta)
d. Pregabalin (Lyrica)

file had no answer… but maybe it is d

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Which of the following medications prevents the conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I?
a. Aliskiren (Tekturna)
b. Captopril (Capoten)
c. Losartan (Cozaar)
d. Spironolactone (Aldactone)

a. Aliskiren (Tekturna)

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Which of the following is a “depolarizing” neuromuscular blocker?
a. Vecuronium
b. Succinylcholine
c. Rocuronium
d. Methacholine

b. Succinylcholine

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Which one of the of following medications is most likely to be associated with the development of anaphylactic shock?
a. Clozapine (Clozaril)
b. Valproic Acid (Depakote)
c. Sulfamethoxazole-Trimethoprim (Bactrim)
d. Penicillin (Pen-VK)

d. Penicillin (Pen-VK)

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Patient AB is in your clinic today for a routine cleaning procedure and check-up. AB is 72 years of age and takes a multivitamin and a low dose of amitriptyline for neuropathic pain. After you complete your check for cavities and dismiss the patient, she attempts to rise out of the dental chair but immediately falls back into the chair, nearly falling to the ground. AB reports that she became extremely dizzy upon standing. A potential cause of this dizziness may be related to the amitriptyline and its ability to block alpha-1 receptors. This may result from what type of individual variation?
a. idiosyncratic
b. pharmacokinetic
c. pharmacodynamic
d. pharmacogenomics

c. pharmacodynamic

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Which side effect of citalopram (Celexa) is NOT transient and does NOT subside with continued use? a. sexual dysfunction b. Gl upset c. headache d. anxiety

file had no answer but it might be a

If a patient presents to the dental clinic with an oral infection that requires antibiotic therapy, but possesses a "sulfa allergy", you would avoid sulfa-based antibiotics such as sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim (Bactrim-DS). If a patient is being treated for epilepsy, which one of the following antiepileptics should also be avoided in a patient with a "sulfa" allergy? a. valproic acid (Depakote) b. pregabalin (Lyrica) c. zonisamide (Zonegran) d. tiagabine (Gabitril)

file had no answer but maybe it is c

Which nervous system is considered an "all or nothing" system, meaning it fires at once, on-or-off? a. Parasympathetic b. Somatic c. Central d. Sympathetic

d. Sympathetic

Patient JR comes to clinic today for extraction of her wisdom teeth. JR is 24 weeks pregnant and her medical history indicates that she is taking folic acid mg daily and lithium carbonate 600 mg three times daily for bipolar disorder that she has chosen to maintain treatment for through her pregnancy. Because lithium is renally eliminated, what effect can you expect pregnancy to have on JR's lithium drug level? a. no effect on lithium level b. decreased lithium level c. increased lithium level d. lithium is contraindicated and should be discontinued

file did not have an answer but I think it is b

Which of the following medications has a high risk of QT prolongation and torsades de pointes? a. Amlodipine (Norvasc) b. Diltiazem (Cardizem) c. Dofetilide (Tikosyn) d. Mexiletine (Mexitil)

c. Dofetilide (Tikosyn)

CP is a 59 year old undergoing endodontic treatment for tooth #31, which has irreversible pulpits and is extremely percussion sensitive. He stage 3 (GFR 45ml/min), active hepatitis C and has history of an NSAID induced Gl bleed, chronic kidney disease, myocardial infarction in 2014. He denies allergies to medications. Which of the follow is the best pain management regimen? a. Fentanyl patch 25mcg/72 hrs x 2 patches b. Acetaminophen 325 mg, 2 tablets gid for 48-72 hours post procedure, then prn c. Oxycodone 5 mg q 6 hrs prn x 3 days supply d. Ibuprofen 600 mg gid alternating with acetaminophen 650 mg qid for 48-72 hours post procedure, then prn

file had no answer but I think it is b

Which antianginal medication works by blocking calcium from entering the cell through voltage sensitive "slow" L-type channels? a. Diltiazem (Cardizem) b. Isosorbide dinitrate (Isordil) c. Metoprolol (Lopressor) d. Ranolazine (Ranexa)

a. Diltiazem (Cardizem)

Which of the following medications competitively blocks the action of aldosterone? a. Amlodipine (Norvasc) b. Eplerenone (Inspra) c. Sodium nitroprusside (Nitropress) d. Treprostinil (Orenitram/Tyvaso/Remodulin)

b. Eplerenone (Inspra)

Acetylcholine is broken down by which of the following enzymes? a. COMT b. Monoamine oxidase c. Cholinesterase d. Acetylhydrogenase

c. Cholinesterase - acetylcholinesterase??

Which treatment, initiated 24 hours before a dental procedure decreases postoperative edema and improves healing time? a. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) b. Hydrocodone c. Ibuprofen (Motrin) d. Naloxone (Aleve or Naprosyn)

file did not have an answer but I think it is c

JB is a 23-year-old male patient presenting with complaints of tooth and gum pain. JB's history is positive for Focal Seizures with Dyscognitive Features and Major Depressive Disorder. JB's current medications include clonazepam (Klonopin) for anxiety, phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizures, gabapentin (Neurontin) for seizures, and sertraline (Zoloft) for depression. Upon examination, JB is found to have a moderate case of gingival hyperplasia. Which one of the following medications is most likely to contribute to the development of gingival hyperplasia? a. clonazepam b. phenytoin c. gabapentin d. sertraline

b. phenytoin

Carbamazepine (Tegretol) and oxcarbazepine (Trileptal) are both antiepileptic medications that can contribute to condition known as Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH). One result from this condition is to develop a hypervolemic _____________ a. hyperkalemia b. hypomagnesemia c. hyponatremia d. hyperchloremia

File did not have an answer but I think it is c

Pulmonary arterial hypertension (a.k.a primary pulmonary hypertension) is classified as which group per the world health organization? a. Group I b. Group II c. Group IlI d. Group IV

a. Group I

NSAIDs are contraindicated or should be used with caution in patients with which condition? a. Chronic kidney disease b. Hypothyroidism c. Low blood pressure d. High cholesterol

a. Chronic kidney disease

What is the definition of adrenergic fibers? a. Those that release norepinephrine b. Those that release acetylcholine c. Those that absorb norepinephrine d. Those that absorb acetylcholine

c. Those that absorb norepinephrine

Which one of the following tests is most likely to assist in making an accurate diagnosis of a seizure disorder? a. x-ray b. EKG c. EEG d. EMG

c. EEG

Epinephrine is released directly into the bloodstream by the adrenal medulla. Epinephrine can therefore be classified as which type of substance? a. Neurotransmitter b. Neuroactive molecular transmitter c. Hormone d. Cholinergic intermediary

c. Hormone

Which of the following is considered an "irreversible" acetylcholinesterase inhibitor? a. Parathion b. Neostigmine c. Donepezil d. Galantamine

file did not have an answer but I think it is a

What substance is released by PREGANGLIONIC fibers in the autonomic nervous system? a. Acetylcholine b. Norepinephrine c. Dopamine d. Epinephrine

a. Acetylcholine

When administering carbamazepine (Tegretol) one must always consider the potential for drug interactions. One of the most common pharmacokinetic interactions with carbamazepine would result from its induction of which ONE of the following Cytochrome P450 (CYP450) enzymes? a. 3A4 b. 2D6 c. 4B9 d. 2C3

file did not have an answer but I think a

n "older" patients or those over the age Of 65 years, it is not uncommon to see a decrease in hepatic activity, especially metabolism which can lead to drug accumulation. a. Phase 1 b. Phase 2 c. Phase 3 d. Phase 4

a. Phase 1

How long should duloxetine (Cymbalta) be continued after achieving remission in a patient following their first episode of depression? a. months b. 9-12 months c. 18-24 months d. 5 years

file did not have an answer but I think it is b

True or False. During an absence seizure, an patients lose consciousness but do not lose postural control

True

A new drug is in development that is designed to treat chronic dry mouth. In order to minimize potential for adverse effects and unwanted clinical effects while maximizing the ability to stimulate saliva secretion, which receptor should the drug be a selective agonist of? a. M3 b. M2 c. M1 d. Post-ganglionic nicotinic

a. M3

Which of the following is an important education point for patients using acetaminophen for dental pain? a. Acetaminophen commonly causes constipation. Increase fluids, eat high fiber foods and use a laxative, as needed. b. Acetaminophen may increase the risk of cardiovascular events, patients with a history of cardiovascular events or at high risk should avoid use of acetaminophen. c. Do not take more than 8 grams a day of acetaminophen. d. Many OTC products contain acetaminophen. Do not take more than one acetaminophen-containing medications at one time.

file did not have an answer but I think it is d

A severe adverse drug reaction to ACE inhibitors that involves the swelling of the throat, tongue, and lips is called? a. Agranulocytosis b. Angioedema c. Hirsutism (hair growth) d. Photosensitivity

b. Angioedema

Which of the following medications for pulmonary hypertension available in an oral, inhaled, intravenous, and subcutaneous form? a. Ambrisentan (Letairis) b. Bosentan (Tracleer) c. Sildenafil (Revatio) d. Treprostinil(Orenitram/Tyvaso/Remodulin)

d. Treprostinil(Orenitram/Tyvaso/Remodulin)

Which of the following agents is used to regenerate acetylcholinesterase? a. Atropine b. Pyridostigmine c. Pralidoxime d. Methacholine

c. Pralidoxime

Toxin induced cell damage from drug metabolites can occur through a series of non covalent and covalent interactions. Which one of the following is considered a non-covalent type of interaction? a. exposed hepatocytes resulting in hepatotoxicity b. increased protein resulting in nephrotoxicity c. increased build-up of glutathione d. formation of hydrogen peroxide

file did not have an answer but I think it is d

Movement of this ion is responsible for the rapid depolarization phase (phase 0) of the cardiac action potential? a. Calcium b. Magnesium c. Potassium d. Sodium

d. Sodium

Which antidepressant is recommended as first line therapy in treatment guidelines for depression? a. escitalopram (Lexapro) b. venlafaxine (Effexor) c. mirtazapine (Remeron) d. All of the answers above correct.

file did not have an answer but I think it is d

True/false: Variation in drug response may result from a different drug concentration at sites of drug action or by different response to the same drug concentration

True

What is the risk associated with using a monoamine oxidase inhibitor antidepressant with the pain medication tramadol (Ultram)? a. thrombocytopenia b. hypertensive crisis c. serotonin syndrome d. QT prolongation

file did not have an answer but I think it is c

WK, a 24 year old female was given hydrocodone/acetaminophen after having her 3rd molars removed. Before she leaves the office you should to educate her/her caregiver on which common side effect? a. Constipation b. Diarrhea c. Insomnia d. Skin photosensitivity

a. Constipation

Which one of the following antiepileptic medications is considered a controlled substance? a. topiramate (Topamax) b. levetiracetam (Keppra) c. phenytoin (Dilantin) d. phenobarbital (Luminal)

d. phenobarbital (Luminal)

What is a primary indication for cevimeline? a. Diagnostic agent for asthma b. Adjunct therapy for glaucoma c. TO increase salivation and lacrimal secretion d. Post-op urinary retention

c. TO increase salivation and lacrimal secretion

efore patient starts on gabapentin (Neurontin) for a seizure disorder, it would be appropriate to obtain what lab measure before a first dose is administered? a. hepatic function b. renal function c. thyroid function d. CBC with differential

b. renal function

The sympathetic nervous system contains which type of neurons? a. Short preganglionic, short postganglionic b. Short preganglionic, long postganglionic c. Long preganglionic, long postganglionic d. Long preganglionic, short postganglionic

b. Short preganglionic, long postganglionic

Patient TS is currently being prescribed Acetaminophen with taking? Codeine for post-operative pain related to an extraction. What effect could this medication have on the absorption of other medications TS may be taking? a. no effect b. slowed absorption c. increased absorption d. protein binding decreasing effect

b. slowed absorption

Which of the following antiepileptic medications is most likely to be associated with cognitive impairment, gingival hyperplasia, and significant drug interactions through CYP450 3A4 enzyme induction? a. carbamazepine (Tegretol) b. oxcarbazepine (Trileptal) c. phenobarbital d. phenytoin (Dilantin) e. lamotrigine (Lamictal)

d. phenytoin (Dilantin)

Which ion is required to bind to actin and myosin to produce cardiac contractility? a. Calcium b. Chloride c. Potassium d. Magnesium

a. Calcium

The physical state of pregnancy can contribute to drug variation. Which of the following statements is a correct observation of a physiologic change that commonly occurs during pregnancy? a. increased renal blood flow and decreased GFR (glomerular filtration rate) b. increased renal blood flow and FR (glomerular filtration rate) c. increased maternal plasma protein d. decreased cardiac output

b. increased renal blood flow and FR (glomerular filtration rate)

Which of the following medications has a possible adverse drug reaction (ADR) of altered/unusual taste? a. Amiodarone (Cordarone) b. Disopyramide (Norpace) c. Metoprolol (Lopressor/Toprol XL) d. Propafenone (Rythmol)

a. Amiodarone (Cordarone)

Many antidepressants including tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs), monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs), and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) have the potential to lower the seizure threshold. Which one of the following antidepressants has specific labeling that suggests a maximum daily dose of 400 to 450 mg in part because of the risk of seizure activity at doses beyond this? a. fluoxetine (Prozac) b. bupropion (Wellbutrin) c. paroxetine (Paxil) d. amitriptyline (Elavil)

b. bupropion (Wellbutrin)

Beta blockers are in which Vaugh-Williams classification for antiarrhythmic medications? a. Class I b. Class II c. Class III d. Class IV

b. Class II

Which of the following is caused by a fixed blockage rather than a plaque rupture? a. Non-ST segment elevated myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) b. ST segment elevated myocardial infarction (STEMI) c. Stable ischemic heart disease d. Unstable angina

d. Unstable angina

A 32 year old patient presents to you for molar extraction. The patients medication list includes levetiracetam (Keppra), lamotrigine (Lamictal), divalproex sodium (Depakote), and hydrochlorothiazide. In reviewing the lab findings, you note a normal renal function, normal hepatic function, and a slight reduction in platelets. What is most likely the source of platelet reduction? a. hydrochlorothiazide b. lamotrigine (Lamictal) c. divalproex (Depakote) d. levetiracetam (Keppra)

b. lamotrigine (Lamictal)

Which antidepressant has the highest risk of mortality associated with an overdose? a. sertraline (Zoloft) b. duloxetine (Cymbalta) c. mirtazapine (Remeron) d. amitriptyline (Elavil)

c. mirtazapine (Remeron)

Ethnic variation is a possible contributor to the quantitative and qualitative responses that individuals experience to medications and other drugs. An example of this is that some individuals of Chinese descent do not metabolize alcohol as well and may experience flushing and palpitations. This is because of a build-up of plasma concentrations of ________________- a. nitric oxide b. acetaldehyde c. renin d. acetic acid

b. acetaldehyde

WK, a 24 year old female was given hydrocodone/acetaminophen after having her 3rd molars removed. Before she leaves the office, you should educate her/her caregiver on which of the following: a. It is important to use this medication as directed. Do not drive or operate machinery until you know how this medication will affect you. b. DO not drink alcohol while on this medication and do not take other medications that cause drowsiness, unless under the supervision of a health care provider. c. This medication has abuse potential. You should ensure safe storage, including keeping it out of reach of children and dispose of any unused tablets by placing them in a nondescript container with coffee grounds or kitty litter. d. b and c e. All of the above

e. All of the above

Which of the following neuromuscular blockers is associated with an increase in serum potassium? a. Rocuronium b. Vecuronium c. Pancuronium d. Succinylchoine

d. Succinylchoine

Potassium channel blockers are in which Vaugh-Williams classification for antiarrhythmic medications? a. Class I b. Class II c. Class III d. Class IV

c. Class III

Which of the following is required on a written prescription for oxycodone? a. Dentist's full name, address and manual signature b. Patient's age c. Patient's full name and address d. a and c e. All of the above

d. a and c

Which of the following medications IS NOT recommended for children < 12 years of age? a. Celecoxib (Celebrex) b. Morphine (MS Contin) c. Ibuprofen (Motrin) d. Tramadol (Ultram)

d. Tramadol (Ultram)

Sildenafil (Revatio) can be classified in which group based on mechanism of action? a. Angiotensin receptor blocker ARB) b. Endothelin receptor antagonist (ERA) c. Phosphodiesterase 5 (PDE5) inhibitor d. Soluble guanylate cyclase stimulator

c. Phosphodiesterase 5 (PDE5) inhibitor

Which medication does NOT have a risk of hyperkalemia? a. Candesartan(Atacand) b. Eplerenone (Inspra) c. Minoxidil (Loniten) d. Ramipril (Altace)

c. Minoxidil (Loniten)

Which oral side effect occurs most commonly with antidepressants? a. dysgeusia b. gingivitis c. sialorrhea d. xerostomia

the file had no answer but I think it is d

Which of the following antidepressants is associated with the most weight gain? a. venlafaxine (Effexor) b. bupropion (Wellbutrin) c. mirtazapine (Remeron) d. sertraline (Zoloft)

the file had no answer but I think it is c

TJ is being treated for focal seizures with dyscognitive features and secondary generalization with carbamazepine. TJ is stabilized with no seizure activity after two weeks on carbamazepine (Tegretol) 400 mg po tid and a drug level of 9 mg/L. After 4 weeks, TJ's seizure frequency increases and his drug level is 5.6 mg/L. The most likely explanation for the return of TJ's seizure activity is which one of the following? a. protein binding reducing carbamazepine levels b. CYP450 3A4 enzyme inhibition by carbamazepine c. metabolism autoinduction by carbamazepine d. CYP450 3A4 enzyme induction by carbamazepine

the file had no answer but I think it is c

Which of the following is NOT a clinical effect of atropine? a. Dries secretions b. Increases heart rate c. Causes bronchoconstriction d. Causes pupils to dilate (mydriasis)

the file had no answer but I think it is c

Which antidepressant can increase blood pressure at higher doses? a. paroxetine (Paxil) b. venlafaxine (Effexor) c. sertraline (Zoloft) d. bupropion (Wellbutrin)

the file had no answer but I think it is b

Which of the following medications improves angina by increasing myocardial oxygen supply without a change in myocardial oxygen demand? a. Amlodipine (Norvasc) b. Metoprolol (Lopressor/Toprol XL) c. Nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) d. Ranolazine (Ranexa)

the file had no answer but I think it is a

The generalized seizure disorder type that would also be referred to as a "drop attack" and one in which patients often wear helmets to protect their head from injury during a fall is which of the following generalized seizure disorder types? a. myoclonic b. tonic-clonic c. atonic d. absence

the file had no answer but I think it is c

Endothelin-1 binding to which of the following causes vasoconstriction, bronchoconstriction, and stimulates aldosterone secretion? a. Endothelium A receptor (ET,) b. Endothelium B receptor (ET.) c. KATP channel d. T prostanoid receptor

a. Endothelium A receptor (ET,)

Which of the following medications should be avoided if opioid therapy is warranted for dental pain management? a. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) b. Amoxicillin (Amoxil) c. Diazepam (Valium) d. Prednisone

the file had no answer but I think it is c

A patient presents to the dental clinic for a routine cleaning. The patient complains of an extreme dry mouth and feeling sleepy. You review the medication profile, which one of the following medications is most likely to result in dry mouth and sedation due to its pharmacodynamic based receptor effects at the histamine receptor? a. diphenhydramine (Benadryl®) an allergy medication b. sertraline (Zoloft®) a depression medication c. propranolol (Inderal®) a blood pressure medication d. valproic acid (Depakote®) an antiseizure medication

a. diphenhydramine (Benadryl®) an allergy medication

A patient is utilizing the beta-agonist albuterol (Ventolin®) on an as needed basis for asthma. Which one of the following medications is most likely to result in a pharmacodynamic interaction and negate the beneficial effect of albuterol? a. propranolol (Inderal®) beta-blocker b. ibuprofen (Motrin®) a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory c. diphenhydramine (Benadryl®) an antihistamine d. furosemide (Lasix®) a loop diuretic

the file had no answer but I think it is a

Cardiac output is a function of stroke volume of and what other factor? a. Afterload b. End Diastolic Volume c. End Systolic Volume d. Heart rate

d. Heart rate

Which statement is true regarding the efficacy of antidepressants? a. SSRI antidepressants are recommended first line based on superior efficacy b. SNRI antidepressants are recommended first line based on superior efficacy c. Current evidence suggests all antidepressants demonstrate similar efficacy d. Remission rates are approximately 70% for all antidepressants

the file had no answer but I think it is c

Atrial depolarization is represented on the ECG by the: a. P-wave b. PR interval c. QR Complex d. T-wave

a. P-wave

Which antidepressant is contraindicated in patients with seizure disorder? a. bupropion (Wellbutrin) b. duloxetine (Cymbalta) c. mirtazapine (Remeron) d. nortriptyline (Pamelor)

a. bupropion (Wellbutrin)

Which antidepressant has been associated with bruxism? a. fluoxetine (Prozac) b. bupropion (Welbutrin) c. venlafaxine (Effexor) d. mirtazapine (Remeron)

file was confusing but I would guess a

An example of an adverse effect that is independent of the drug's main pharmacological mechanism of action is which one of the following? a. aspirin (Ecotrin) and Gl bleed b. sertraline (Zoloft) and diarrhea c. clozapine (Clozaril) and seizures d. hydroxyzine (Vistaril) and dry eyes

c. clozapine (Clozaril) and seizures

What is the risk associated with consumption of foods containing high levels of tyramine with phenelzine (Nardil)? a. hypertensive crisis b. serotonin syndrome c. QT prolongation d. seizures

a. hypertensive crisis

Which of the following medications has a risk of gingival hyperplasia? a. Amlodipine (Norvasc) b. Metoprolol (Lopressor/Toprol XL) c. Nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) d. Ranolazine (Ranexa)

the file had no answer but I think it is a

Which of the following anticholinergic drugs is considered a quaternary amine, meaning it has greater peripheral effects and few CNS or cardiac effects making it good for use as a "drying agent"? a. Benztropine b. Atropine c. Dicyclomine d. Glycopyrrolate

d. Glycopyrrolate

Sketchy Pharm 100 Question Final Flashcards

(102 cards)