Skin Flashcards

(46 cards)

1
Q

How does antibiotic resistance of MRSI occur

A

acquisition of mecA gene which encodes a penicillin binding protien (PBP2a) that has a lower binding affinitiy for beta lactams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are risk factors for MRSI

A

use of fluoroquinolones; IV catheterization; more than 10 vet staff employed; post-surgery site infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are abx commonly used to treat MRSI

A

doxycyclyline and chloramphenicol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How are burns classified

A

on body surface area and depth of tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe the total body surface area measurements in adapted to animals

A

Rule of nines
Head/Neck, each front limb = 9%
Each pelvic limb, dorsal trunk, ventral trunk = 18%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the severity associated with TBSA in burns

A

Local burn < 20% less likely for SIRS
Severe burn > 20-30% Very likely SIRS
> 50% TBSA very poor prognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe a first degree burn

A

Epidermis only

Painful, hyperemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe second degree burns

A

Epidermis and upper portions of dermis: pain, blistering, hair intact
If deeper portions of dermis but not complete can see yellow white skin, lost of hair (pulls out), pain only with deep pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe third degree burns

A

Epidermis and entire dermis
black letheary skin; eschar is sensitive to touch
Hair pulls out easily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe fourth degree burns

A

epidermis and entire dermis, deeper tissues (connective, bone, vessels etc)
Black letheary skin; eschar is sensitive touch
Hair pulls out easily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which burn categorization method has been validated in small animals

A

None

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the local response to burn

A

Cells closest to heat source undergo coagulation and vascular thrombosis
Surrounding tissue affected by blood stasis and edema from capillary leak syndrome
Above plus hypoperfusion lead to ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How does hypoxia worsen with burns

A

Edema from hypoalbuminema and vasoactive substances thromboxane and inducible NO worsen hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How long before closure of burn may be considered

A

Up to 3 days to declare itself, may be up to 7 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How does frostbite result in injury

A

Formation of ice crystals resulting in varying degrees of severity similar to burns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe type 1 hypersensitivity reactions- skin

A

angiodema, uticaria, erythema

IgE- antigen complex binds to mast cells and basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe type 2 hypersensitivity reactions - skin

A

Vesicles, bullae, erosions, mucocutaneous junctions
IgM and IgG cytotoxic
antigen-antibody binding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describe type 3 hypersensitivity reactions - skin

A

Uticaria, ulceration, pitting edema, wheals, papules, pinnae foot pads; MC junctions
IgG immune complexes deposited in endotheilium of vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe type 4 hypersensitivity reactions - skin

A

Vesicles bullae, papules, plaques, along trunk axilla, inguinal and pinnae
Antigen bound to T-cells result in tissue necrosis and activation of macrophages

20
Q

What are the three types of soft tissue infections

A

Type 1 Polymicrobial— often MRSA
Type 2 Monomicrobial– often streptococci
Type 3 Anerobic

21
Q

Why are fluoroquinolones not recommended as first line for severe soft tissue infections

A

In vitro induce bacteriophage-mediated lysis with increase expression of superantigens
1 study 50% were resistant

22
Q

What are the phases of wound healing

A

Inflammation/debridement
Repair (proliferation
Maturation

23
Q

What occurs in the inflammation/debridement phase of wound healing

A

First 48-72 hrs
Fills with blood; transient vasoconstriction then vasodilation response to histamine and IL8
Neutrophils initially then macrophages which are essential for wound healing

24
Q

What occurs in the repair (proliferation) phase of wound healing

A

1-3 weeks
angiogensis, fibroplasia, wound contraction and epithealization
Phase change marked by increase number of fibroblasts
Type III to Type 1 collagen

25
How does contraction occur in the repair phase
Migration of myofibroblasts | Ceases when tension on surround skin equals the contracting forces or when epithealization is complete
26
What are the benifits of granulation tissue
blood supply | increase wounds resistance to infection
27
What occurs in the maturation phase of wound healing
Progressive gain of tissue strength revolves around collagen deposition. Intial portion of phase at 20% after 3 weeks. Generally will only be 70-80% of normal
28
Which tissue may achieve 100% strength
Bladder, Bones
29
What are the types of wound closure
Primary- within a few hours of wounding Delayed primary- within 3 days--- before granulation tissue formed Secondary closure- closure after onset of granulation tissue
30
What are advantages to wound lavage
debride and hydrate
31
What is the recommended method of lavage and what pressure is ideal
8 psi | 35 ml syringe with 19 ga needle
32
What are advantage properities of SSD
anti: Gram - , gram + and candida
33
In Burn resuscitation what can be deleterious
Delay beyond 2 hours ( increase mortality) | Over resuscitation just as bad as under
34
How does burn shock develop
Distrubitive and hypovolemic | IV volume depletion, low pulmonary artery occulusion pressure, elevated systemic vascular resistance and depressued CO
35
How does depressed cardiac output occur with burn injuries
Decreased plasma volume increased afterload, and decreased contractility TNF alpha and impared calcium at the cellular level
36
How does fluid shift after a burn
Protein loss to interstitium as microcirculation is lost Colloid osmotic pressure drops Transient decrease in interstitial pressure by release of osmotic particles moving fluid to interstitium
37
What results due to fluid shifts after a burn
loss of circulationg plasma volume, hemoconcentration, massive edema formation Decreased UOP, depressed cardiovascular function
38
When is the maximal fluid shift after a burn injury occur
at 24 hours
39
What is the formula most widely used to calculate volume resuscitation after a burn
Parkland formulat 4 ml/kg x % TBSA = amount LRS to give in first 24 hrs Give 1/2 over 8 hours then give second have over 1 hours adjust as needed based on UOP
40
What are colloid recommendations for burns in people based on CCM 2009 review article
alubmin increased risk of death Hypertonic saline 4 x increase AKI, 2 x death FFP only if coagulatpathy
41
What is a good way and not good way to estimate fluid volume in burn patients
No truly great way UOP > 0.5 ml/kg/hr, if less generally under resuscitated BAD: HCT- as will often be increased due to protein loss
42
In burn patients what are the benifits of vitamin C
reduced fluid requiremtns, burn tissue water content, decreased ventilator days
43
How does inhalation injury affect fluid requirements
Increase
44
In people how does inhalation injury alter developement of ventilatory associated pneumonia
70% of pateitns develop.... DONT give prophy abx
45
What are preventable complications of burn injuries
hypothermia, compartement syndrome, DVT, heparin induced thrombocytopenia neutropenia, stress ulcers (give prophy), adrenal insufficency
46
How are signs of infection altered with burns
Burn patients have a reset of temp (often higher), increased HR and tachypenia therefore it is not always easy to tell