Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

HERC REVISION > SOPS/AVOs > Flashcards

SOPS/AVOs Flashcards

1
Q

When are dipclears and pprs required?

A

Dips: 12nm of land PPRs: foreign military base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When must a flight Dev be sent?

A

Delayed > 1 hour a delay message can be sent. If changes don’t meet tasking intent I.e. date, route or hard time changes, a task deviation request must be sent within 2 hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Where can you find a list of differences from icao?

A

Jepp vol 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How do approach plates annotate PANS Ops or Terps?

A

If it doesn’t say, it’s TERPs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What must the nav database be valid for on a trip?

A

Termination +7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What must you have if taking off from a field below app minima?

A

A suitable alternate within 2 hours of takeoff still air, 3 eng.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When must you nominate an alternate? (3)

A
  • All international flights
  • Only one rwy suitable for C130
  • Met +- 1 hour ceiling < 1000’ blw app min or vis < 5km or <2km more than minima
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are endurance fuels based on for the purpose of a flight plan?

A

5000lbs/hr first hour 4500lbs/hr after

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What’s the RoT for climbing out of headwinds?

A

If > 7kts/2000’ there’s no benefit to climb. If HWC > 70kts for every 10kts above, increase LRC by 4kts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is identified extra fuel? (5)

A 
Extra taxi; 50lb/hr
APU 300lb/hr
Icing 500lb/hr
Wx 500lb/hr
ERO 50lb/min
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How must the fuel quantity be confirmed for a main, auxiliary and external FQI out?

A
  • Main:
    over wing port w dipstick (wings level)
    Transfer of a known quantity from another tank
  • Auxiliary:
    Magnetic sight gauge
    Transfer of a known quantity from another tank
  • External:
    Transfer of a known quantity from another tank
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Can you fly with two or more US FQIs?

A

No unless fuel required for flight is in another tank.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the min fuel reserve with a main tank FQI out?

A

Min + 1000lbs (5K LBS)

Must match ff in opposing tank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the requirements for flying with more than one FQI out?
(symmetrical & unsymmetrical)

A
  • Must be specifically authorised

Symmetrical main tanks:
-Mins increased by 2000lbs

Unsymmetrical main tank FQIs:
-Mins increased by 1000lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What do mins become with an inboard main tank boost failure? Why?

A

8300lbs bc dump pump shuts off at 2200lbs when used to pressure feed corresponding engine.
Primary fuel limits mean 2700lbs in adjacent outboard and 3400lbs in opposing wing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What do mins become with an outboard main tank boost pump failure? Why?

A

6700lbs bc dump pump shuts off at 2550lbs when used to pressure feed corresponding engine.
Primary fuel limits mean 1550lbs in adjacent inboard and 2600lbs in opposing wing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are ETPs base on?

A

10k 3eng 245ktas (235ktas for ice)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When is a trim NR?

A

<35000lbs gas
No cargo
Max crew 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When is a ditching and jettison plan required?

A

Over water flights in excess of two hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the requirements of an MSO?

A

Mission security officer can’t be part of the operating crew.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Who can access the a/c safe? (4)

A

Awo Co 40intello 40av tech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What classification materials can the safe carry?

A

Up to secret, money and CCI not to be stored together.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What’s the min EFB battery required?

A

10% per hour of flight with a min of 50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How many attempts at resetting the FD are allowed and what must the FP announce if not successful?

A

One and “flying through the flight director”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the actions of FMS master switches in flight?

A

Record in F700

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When does an “altitude deviation” message occur?

A

Dev > 250’ from ALT SEL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the warning associated w the FD and TCN/VORs?

A

Not certified for TCN or VOR raw data or ENR less than 150kt tracking via tcn/vors.
If AFCP is used w FD utilise fms lnav and back up raw data nfp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the standard set up for pfd/sfd?

A

Pfd is outboard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When does the sfd only display aids certified for high al use?

A

Range at 80nm or greater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the proceedure for HDG/ATT Miscompares?

A

Egi with the east drift should be considered most accurate use that afcp.
If continues, realign problem inu.
If continues egi should be considered u/s.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What does the rwy slope give you?

A

Vref

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

When does the FMS enter app mode?

A

Through the iaf (the vpi then scales to 50ft/dot).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are important naming conventions for VORs and approach transitions?

A

VOR/DMEs will be listed before VORs in the instance of both being available.
HN1 is cat C and D overhead
HN2 is cat A and B overhead
All others are typically via arc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What approaches are unable to be recalled?

A

NDB
TACAN
Circling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the tolerances for cross checking a route?

A

Bearing within 3 degrees

Distance may vary due turning radius, select TRANSITION PT-PT in the waypoint data page for both from and to waypoints.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is not permitted for Rnav1 and 2 routes?

A

Manual waypoint entry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

BEFORE activating a route, what must be selected

A

A departure RWY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the naming conventions of stored routes?

A

WPWN3- standard route
RO18TG25- rwy specific
NZRONZTG- not rwy specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How does the FMS use the wind populated?

A

50 percent HWC 150 percent TWC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

When is an acceleration check time required?

A

When V1 is within 10kts of Vrot, usually calculated for 80kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What must be noted when overwriting a speed in the FMS?

A

The speed will not be adjusted for auw OR changes to TO INIT page (e.g. change in temp)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

When does Vref need to be manually calculated?

A

RCR < 5 and slope is other than 0

An RSC is present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What’s a GEC for when full torque is not available?

A

<21 degrees at SL normal bleeds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What’s a GEC for VMCG dry and wet?

A

VMCG dry in the 80s at SL

VMCG wet typically 18kts faster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is Vrot usually limited by?

A

VMCA ige < 120k

Vto >120k

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What’s the relationship between Vmca ige and oge?

A

IGE is 6-7kts < OGE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

When should dump times be annotated?

A

> 120k and more than 10k fuel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What does LADR stand for?

A

Limitations and deferred rectification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are you confirming by acknowledging the crew check?

A

TOLD, DEPARTURE, NAVAIDS, and COMM data is entered and checked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Who can fly an acceleration check time takeoff?

A

Capt only unless Co is QFI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

When must a fuel system positive flow check be done?

A

Tanks containing fuel on the first flight of the day or after refuelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

When should a bleeds OFF takeoff be considered

A

When torque available < 19600inlbs
Short rwys
Heavy & HOT
Steep clb grad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How much does a bleeds off takeoff decrease the TIT buy in the takeoff roll?

A

30-40 deg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Why do the pilots set no more than 19000inlbs on takeoff?

A

To allow for ram rise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the tolerance for the ASI check at 80kts?

A

10kts or less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the AWOs takeoff scan?

A

RWY/flight path
Birds
Overheat lights
RADAR as required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

When must an acceleration check time be less than 80kts?

A
  • when V1 is less than 90kts (has to be 10kts apart at least)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What does “flaps up slowly” mean?

A

Flaps should be raised in 10% increments

Used at high DA/AUW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Standard circuit speed?

A

150-180kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the recommended minimum length for a touch and go?

A

5000ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Are flapless T & Gs allowed?

A

Not unless with a QFI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are some guidance figures for T + Gs at 120k and 100k?

A

120K: 6000’ (5500’ LDR and 2300’LGR)
110K: 5000’ (4500’ LDR and 2050’ LGR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are the AOB/ROD limits for a flapless finals?

A

35 deg AoB

800fpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the flight director set to on climb out?

Associated warning?

A

1.2Vs (warning at light AUWs this may be below Vmca)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What must the Nav select for an efato in the FMS?

A

3 eng mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What speed is flown for an OCS departure?

A

50 Flap OCS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What can you not do w a recalled SID?

A

Create/add new waypoints

Change it to fly-by or fly-over

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are the dimensions for a net flight path?

A

Lateral splay- 75metres (37.5m either side of centre line) diverging at 0.125 of distance from Brakes off.

Vertical-obstacle must be cleared by 1% of distance from brakes release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What can you do for a net flight path at a long runway?

A

Artificially shorten it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are the three main types of climb? Other two?

A

Placard speeds/four engine
Normal speeds
High Speed climb

Max angle
Best rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What are normal speeds and when are they used?

A 
When fuel is non-critical I.e. domestic
Good for reducing floor angle vs charted
1010TIT
180kias to 10000
170kias to 15000
160kias abv 15000
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are charted/4 engine climb speeds and when are they used?

A

Used when climbing to cruise alt for international legs
1010TIT
Best compromise between time to climb and fuel efficiency

73
Q

What is high speed climb and when is it used?

A

Good for light weights to medium altitudes, saves time
210kias
The aircraft is climbed at 210 in IAS until ROC < 1000fpm then Vs setting 1000fpm
970TIT

74
Q

What is Max Angle Climb Speed?

A

OCL (Flap 50) - used for clearing critical obstacles

75
Q

What is the best rate of climb speed?

Rough calc?

A

3 engine climb speed
Note mcdu calculates based on airfield elevation
Roughly subtract 4kts per 5000ft above airfield elevation

76
Q

How much does 1kt airspeed equate to in in.lbs in the cruise?

A

400in lbs (100in lbs per eng)

77
Q

When is there no advantage to climbing wrt headwind?

A

Greater than 7kts increase in HW per 2000’

78
Q

What do add to LRC for HW greater than 70kts?

A

For every 10kts over 70kts add 4kts to LRC

79
Q

How much of a FF increase does the use of engine anti ice cause

A

5%

About 500lb/hr for continued use

80
Q

What is the controlled rest cycle?

A

5 min prep
30 min rest
15min recovery
50min total

81
Q

What are the standard descent speeds?

A

210kias till F230

230kias through F230

82
Q

What is a range descent

A 
Best lift:drag (3 eng clb at msl)
Clean
Idle
1500fpm
1.5nm/1000'
Speed to fly from -1-1
83
Q

What is an emergency descent (high and low speed)?

A

High speed-no structural damage, Vd, clean, flight idle

Low speed-structural damage suspected, fully configured, flight idle, 140kias, 1.1nm/1000’, 2000’ fpm ROD

84
Q

When must the before landing checklist be done by?

A

1000 TG DA

85
Q

What’s the standard configuration height and speed?

A

3000’ and 150kias

86
Q

What speed does the box target before and after the 1 to go call?

A

Input VNAV speed

Appch speed

87
Q

What is the ALT SEL set to on descent? (3)

A

The higher of ATC cleared level or MSA
DA/MDA rounded up to nearest 100 when clrd app
MAP alt through 1 to go

88
Q 
What are the RADALT mins settings for the various app types?
Precision App
Non prec SI FAF
Non prec SI no FAF
Non prec circling
A

Precision App-DH
Non prec SI FAF- 250’ (300 for terps NDB)
Non prec SI no FAF 300’ (350 for terps NDB)
Non prec circling 400’ (300’ for Terps)

89
Q

When should the weather radar be in wind shear on app?

A

If there is a significant cell within 20nm of field

90
Q

What are the missed approach tolerances for VOR, LOC or GNSS?
NDB?

A

Half scale CDI bar deflection
One dot for inside FAF
NDB: >5deg

91
Q

What are the missed approach tolerances for ILS/DME?

A

Half scale LLZ deflection
Or half scale below glide path
Or full scale above glide path

92
Q

For what messages would you conduct a go-around (RNAV) (5)

A 
Failure of MEL
Unable RNP
Exceed RNP
Raim unavailable
Raim not available at the FAF
93
Q

When is a flap 50 landing recommended?

A

Wind is gusting
Large crosswind
Cloud base less than 500’ AGL

94
Q

Min equip list for radar letdown (7)

A 
2 x SPS
1 x AFCS
1 x DADC
RADALT
AWO altimeter
RADAR
EGPWS w terrain selected at AWO station
95
Q

How close can you come to terrain in a radar letdown? What is the planning turn radius?

A

2nm

1.4nm

96
Q

What is required for perf vnav in the missed approach?

A

MAP is active, and,

Sufficient distance to climb to cruise alt and descend to 400’ at 1.3nm of aerodrome reference point.

97
Q

What must be done if inadvertent imc during circling? (6)

A 
Climbing turn towards NAVAID
Clean up
ATC
TOGA
Use MAP for SA if programmed
Reintroduce automation
98
Q

How many diverts does the FMS continuously display/update?

A

4

99
Q

How many divert airfields can be inhibited at a time? What is the FMS suitability criteria?

A

2

closest > 3000ft sealed RWYs

100
Q

What are the three FMS divert functions?

A

Direct To- ppos dct alternate
Offset
Overhead- specify a particular waypoint to overfly prior

101
Q

What is the default hold speed in the FMS?

A

Best endurance speed

102
Q

How do you enter a second hold in the box?

A

use ‘next hold’ prompt

103
Q

Why do we wait for the 4 beta flags on landing before moving to GI?

A

Indicates removal of the low pitch stops

104
Q

What speed must you be below before down speeding?

A

20kias (2min at LSGI before shutting down)

105
Q

When is a comp wash required?

A

less than 500ft over watre

106
Q

When is a gravity flow check required?

A

Less than 2000lbs in a main tank after landing

107
Q

When must the props be feathered on shutdown?

A

Wind is >20kts

108
Q

What is the distance for proximate traffic?

A

6nm and/or 1200ft

109
Q

What does the TCAS display non altitude reporting traffic as?

A

Co-Alt but TA only

110
Q

How much time does a gang start save?

A

1.5min

111
Q

When can a gang start be used and who watches what?

A

Not first flight of day
Plt #1
Eng #2
Co #3-4

112
Q

What does hasell stand for?

A 
Height
Airframe
Security
Engines
Location
Lookout
113
Q

How do you send an acars emergency message?

A

ACARs
In FLT
EMERGENCY RPT
Goes to JFNZ CO40 and HFC

114
Q

How much is Vmca increased by with simulated engines out?

A

As much as 8kts

115
Q

What are the four things that need to be briefed for loss of utility hydraulics? (Due 1 & 2 engines out)

A

Flapless/manual ext
Manual gear
NWS
Brakes (emerg) no anti skid

116
Q

What are the awo actions on a depressurisation?

A 
Log pos
MSA/safe heading
PAN
Divert plan
LRC at 10k vs 14k w flight deck air con
Fuel/time o/h
117
Q

What are the awo actions on an engine failure?

A 
Ensure 1010 TIT
Select Eng Out
Confirm drift down speed
MSA
Ceiling service/cruise
PAN
Log pos
Diverts
LRC
Fuel
IFF to TA only when close to service ceiling
118
Q

How many crew life vests and harnesses are there on board?

A

10 & 3

119
Q

When must you wear a life vest?

A

Below 1000’ over water

120
Q

What is lost in a hard fail of both SPS?

A

All automation
Raw navaid data
(Esis Eids and vdrs remain)

121
Q

What must the awo do in a dual SP failure or isolated DC bus on battery(only power sources)?

A

Use;

  • STBY GPS
  • RADAR
  • Moving map
122
Q

What are the actions on a 500’ call out earlier than expected on a non precision app? (3)

A

Go around
Validate qnh
Re enter/verify FMS entries

123
Q

What is Auckland oceanic RNP airspace?

A

FL245-FL600

124
Q

What is the maximum tracking tolerance for RNP from SOPs?

A

0.5 x RNP (brief of 1 x when turning)

125
Q

What is the minimum distance to intercept finals on an RNP app?

A

2nm prior to FAF

126
Q

What is the max diff for the pistol? Max firing speed?

A

6inHg

280kts

127
Q

What causes an SP reset in the alternates pages?

A

Entering 2x manual airports

128
Q

What do you do if perf/vnav is lost in descent to prevent an SP event?

A

Enter a waypoint at the end of the plan (prevents wilkinsons sword)
- NOTE THE AP WILL GET KICKED OUT IF IN VNAV DESCENT)

129
Q

Do not use vnav across turns greater than what?

A

130 deg

130
Q

How much does TOF increase by if bleeds off?

A

10%

131
Q 
Max consecutive flying days conducting long range operations without a 36 hour rest period
Max flying hours in 7 days
Max flying hours in 30 days
Max flying hours in 90 days
Max flying hours in 12 months
A 
4
50
150
400
1200
132
Q

Sim 3 eng LDG/EFATO, MAUW not to exceed, not initiated below what alt?

A

115k Lb

300ft

133
Q

Sim one eng go around not below __ft
Sim two eng …
Min KIAS & AUW?

A
  • 200
  • 500ft
  • 150KIAS & 115k lbs
134
Q

Nil AP below ___AGL when not on appch

A

1000ft except where approved within AVOs

135
Q

Use of AP within 1000ft MSD of water;

  • Day
  • Night
A
  • Day: NI 250ft MSD

- Night: NI 300ft MSD

136
Q

What is the prerequisite for AP to be engaged below 5000ft

A

Flt controls, AFCS modes and flight instruments to be continuously monitored

137
Q

Max number of pers on flight deck when pressurised (due seatbelts)

A

7

138
Q

Low flying defined as?

A

Flight inside 1000ft AGL over built up areas, inside 500ft elsewhere

139
Q

Operational low flying?

A

50-250ft

140
Q

Avoid built up/sensitive areas by?

A

1000ft and/or 1nm laterally

141
Q

MSDs Over land;

  • Day VMC
  • Day VMC with MLFA
  • Night VMC
A
  • Day VMC: 250ft
  • Day VMC with MLFA: 150ft
  • Night VMC: 1000ft
142
Q 
Low flying limits: over water
- Day VMC
- Night VMC/IMC
unless;
- reliable QNH/Radar?
- serviceable RADALT & Radar?
A
  • Day VMC: 250ft
  • Night VMC/IMC: 1000ft
    UNLESS;
  • reliable QNH/Radar: 500ft
  • serviceable RADALT & Radar: 300ft
143
Q

Nil alcohol within ___ hrs of reporting for duty & __ hrs of engine start

A

10hrs

12hrs

144
Q

Max hours for crew day (planning)

A

16hrs

145
Q

Rest period

A

12hrs

8h sleep & 4 recreation

146
Q

Controlled rest

A

50mins

5 prep, 30 rest, 15 recovery

147
Q

Max duration with cabin alt @F180, desirable?

A

60mins

30mins

148
Q

What is MILMIN?

What is the critirea which must be met? (4)

A

Ops at less than the prescribed civil IFR or VFR met mins by day or night

  • Rwy has centreline marking or centreline lighting & visibility is sufficient to maintain directional control for take off
  • Net flight path takeoff obstacle clearance is checked
  • 2 engine prop = operative autofeather or autocoarse system
  • Auth and flight plan has MILMIN annotated.
149
Q

Define MILSEP

A

Operations at less than the promulgated IFR separation minimums from other military aircraft or formations. E.g. formation flying. Not to be authorised from civil aircraft.

150
Q

Define MILTER

A

Operations at less than the prescribed civil IFR minimums for separation from terrain. E.g. Radar Letdown.

151
Q

Define MILCOMMS

A

Operations that do not comply with civil Radio Telephony (RT) procedures, inside or outside of civil controlled airspace.

152
Q

For planning, when does crew duty start & finish?

A

2hrs before doors and one hour after LDG

153
Q

Define Deployed Fixed Base Location

A

= aircraft operating out of a different base for 5 consecutive days or more.

154
Q

Define short range ops

A

= termination in a timezone that differs 2hrs or less (from home or deployed fixed base loc)

155
Q

Define long range ops

A

= termination in a timezone that differs 2hrs or more (from home or deployed fixed base loc)

156
Q

Max crew duty?

A

18hrs, 20 if Augmented

157
Q

Min crew rest

A

12hrs, can be reduced to 10 with approval

158
Q

Options for IMC climb to MSA (4)

A
  • Missed approach or reverse of approach path. Day only or at night on NVGs. Maintain terrain clearance visually until established on track or above DA/MDA.
  • Net flight path (for 3eng)
  • Above terrain, by ensuring all terrain on intended climb track is below the a/c for the distance required to climb above MSA.
  • Radar, use to establish safe HDG & maintain terrain sep on CLB to MSA.
159
Q

What should you do when 2hrs island hold will impinge on a task outcome? condxs?

A

ACs may elect to reduce the holding fuel to a minimum of one hour. Forecast met conditions should be above visual minimums at the destination aerodrome.
OR, carry LPD gas

160
Q

What conditions must be met to only carry LPD gas? (3)

A
  • Forecast weather at the destination does not require the nomination of an alternate;
  • Forecast weather at the en route alternate meets the criteria for nomination as an alternate; and
  • The LPD should not be more than one hour from destination, and where possible should be near top of descent
161
Q

When can we dump fuel (3)

A

In an emergency
As part of a MCF (maint check flight)
If an operational imperative exists

162
Q

RFS requirements

A

Require Cat 6 (ICAO), or Cat B (FAA) (7 provides higher ICAO, C provides higher FAA)

163
Q

What is holding/diversion fuel usually calculated based on? (5)

A

ISA day, AUW 110k, LRC @ 10,000ft

164
Q

When can AP be engaged over water?

A

NI 250ft MSD by day

NI 300ft MSD by night

165
Q

What three elements of PBN are there?

A
  • NAVAID infrastructure,
  • Nav specification: a/c & crew rqmts needed to operate PBN. (either RNP or RNAV specification)
  • Nav application
166
Q

What does RNP require that RNAV doesnt

A

On board, self contained performance monitoring and alerting.

167
Q

What is the point of PBN

A

Allows significant reductions in latitudinal and longitudinal spacing, allowing more aircraft to operate in a smaller space.

168
Q

What is the required containment for RNP 10

A

XTRL/along track positioning error of less than 10nm for 95% of the time.

169
Q

What is our RNP certification based on

A

2x servicable SPs

both EGIs serviceable

170
Q

In RNP asx where DME updating is not allowed, what nav solution can not be used?

A

INU/RAD

171
Q

RNP max tracking tolerance

A

0.5x RNP value

172
Q

(What must be confirmed before entering RNP asx? (4)

A
  • preflt: check RAIM
  • Confirm route against ATC clearance
  • confirm ANP is less than the RNP #
  • RNP value is set to correct #
173
Q

RNAV 2 TSE error?

A

less than 2nm for 95% of flight time

174
Q

For any RNAV/RNP procedure, what must occur for SIDs/STARs?

A

SID & STARs must be retrieved from the database.

175
Q

Nav accuracy under RNP APPCH (IAF/FAF)

A

Initials: TSE of <1nm and FTE <0.5nm for 95%
Finals: TSE <0.3nm and FTE <0.25 for 95%

176
Q

MEL for RNP appch (7)

A
  • 2x SPs
  • 2x EGI/MMRs
  • 2x DADC
  • 2x AFCPs
  • 3x MFDUs
  • RADALT
  • EGPWS
177
Q

RNP: when should you conduct another RAIM check?

A

If ETA changes by more than 15mins

178
Q

What is a NNDP

A

Non normal deciion point
point on RNP appch (IAF), up until which any nav system malfunctions can be rectified, after which, crew must conduct visual appch or go around.

179
Q

When on RNP appch, must the crew conduct a missed appch? (3)

A
  • Failure of any systems on MEL
  • UNABLE RNP/RNP EXCEED/UNABLE RAIM
  • RAIM not available at FAF/MAP

HERC REVISION (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions