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Work > STI - Ops A and Line Ops > Flashcards

STI - Ops A and Line Ops Flashcards

1
Q

When is “Minimum Fuel” declared?

A

After having committed at an airport, it is anticipated that any change to existing clearances may result in landing with less than planned Final Reserve Fuel.

It is not an emergency situation, however, indicates that an emergency situation might be possible if any delays occur.

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2
Q

When is “MAYDAY Fuel” declared?

A

When it is assessed that the aircraft will land with less than planned Final Reserve Fuel at the nearest airport.

This is an emergency situation.

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3
Q

Normal taxi fuel amount?

A

700kg for APU, engine start and taxi

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4
Q

Trip fuel definition?

A

Take off, cruise, descent, approach and and landing fuel at specified Cost Index. Includes any allowance for carrying Rec Extra

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5
Q

Additional (Mandatory) Fuel?

A

Normally required to cater for depress or engine failure when:

  • Long over water segment
  • Long final route segment between last ERA and the destination
  • Relatively short distance between destination and nominated alternate

Additional fuel will become extra fuel after passing the last enroute CP

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6
Q

Alternate Fuel?

A 
Fuel required to: 
Make a missed approach from the destination minima 
Climb to cruising altitude 
Fly to alternate, plus 5% contingency 
Descend, approach and land
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7
Q

What cost index is alternate fuel calculated at?

A

Cost Index - 0

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8
Q

Final Reserve Fuel?

A

30 minutes at 1500’ AAL, based off the planned landing weight at the alternate

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9
Q

Final Reserve Fuel for 777-300 and ER?

A
  • 300: 3,200kg

- 300ER: 3,500kg

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10
Q

Minimum Reserve Fuel?

A

Minimum fuel with which the aircraft shall land at an ERA, after a depressurization and/or engine failure.

15 minutes holding at 1,500’ AAL, based on planned landing weight at nominated ERA

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11
Q

Recommended Extra Fuel?

A

Fuel additional to ‘Fuel Required’ to allow for exceptional weather, ATC delays or other operational factors.

Sum of the alternate, mandatory and rec extra should not be less than reserve, allowing for 1 hour fuel on landing in normal circumstances

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12
Q

In Flight Fuel Reduction?

A

2 independent runways
Actual or forecast weather above non precision minima for filing as an alternate
No known or probable ATC delays
Fuel remaining is sufficient to:
i) continue to destination
ii) plus 5% contingency fuel from overhead or abeam the last suitable enroute airport
iii) plus 30 minute holding at 1500’ AAL
iv) complete an approach and landing

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13
Q

Minimum fuel requirements in flight?

A

The most limiting scenario is depress and/or engine failure, in which case fuel required at any point is:
* Diversion Trip Fuel to an ERA plus 5% contingency
* Carry out an approach
* Land with 15 minutes Minimum Reserve Fuel
(5% contingency is only required at planning stage, not an inflight requirement)

At any point, have sufficient fuel for:

  • Diversion Trip Fuel to an ERA
  • Carry out an approach
  • Land with 30 minutes Final Reserve Fuel
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14
Q

Is contingency fuel required to be considered in flight?

A

No, only at the planning stage

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15
Q

What are the options if reduced fuel level available in flight?

A

Change of destination airport
In Flight Fuel Reduction
Diversion to alternate airport

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16
Q

When are RAMP fuel corrections used?

A

Ramp corrections is used if the trip fuel is adjusted by using fuel that is already on board such as contingency fuel

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17
Q

When are LNDG fuel corrections used?

A

Landing correction should be used when adjusting the total fuel figure (i.e. If the ZFW has changed and you need to add or reduce fuel)

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18
Q

When is a take off alternate required?

A

Required when weather conditions are below published ILS landing minima, or the approach in use.

Alternate to be within 60 mins OE/400nm VERIFY

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19
Q

Destination weather requirements prior to dispatch?

A
  • Needs to be above the published landing minima
  • Can convert visibility to equivalent RVR
  • If there is no destination forecast, 2 alternates need to be carried
  • PROB/INTER/TEMPO periods ignored
  • RFF 9
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20
Q

Destination alternate weather requirements prior to dispatch?

A
  • Needs to be above CAT 1 minima when LVO in operation at destination
  • Weather above Minima for Filing as Alternate
  • Above Landing Minima for PROB/INTER/TEMPO
  • RFF 7
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21
Q

ERA weather requirements prior to dispatch?

3 items

A
  • EDTO ERA needs to be above Alternate Minima (including INTER/TEMPO)
  • RFF 4
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22
Q

Weather requirements for destination, alternate and ERA en route?

A

Above Landing Minima

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23
Q

Prior to dispatch, how long are alternate and destination weather forecasts required to be valid for?

A

60 minutes prior, 60 minutes after planned arrival

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24
Q

Adequate airport definition

A

Sufficient runway length and taxiway availability
Pavement strength sufficient
RFF category is suitable (Cat 4 for ERA)
Equipped with the necessary ancillary services - ATC, lighting, weather reporting and at least one serviceable navigation aid or suitable RNAV approach

All airports in the aircraft library, except those excluded in OPS-A)

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25
Q

Suitable airport definition

A

Meets the adequate standards

Weather meets the planning minima for the expected arrival time

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26
Q

What are the EDTO distance requirements from an ERA for 777?

A

777-300ER: 60 mins, 456nm/180 minutes, 1313nm/207 minutes, 1506nm
777-300: 60 minutes, 434nm/180 minutes, 1272nm

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27
Q

What is the definition of EDTO operations?

A

Extended Diversion Time Operations

Operations of a twin engine aircraft conducted over a route that contains a point further than 60 minutes flying time in still air, at one engine inoperative cruising speed, from an ADEQUATE airport

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28
Q

How is CFP MRA calculated?

A

Calculated from the highest grid MORA within 10nm of track, including end segments (i.e. a radius drawn at the end of track)

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29
Q

What terrain clearances are provided from CFP MRA?

A

Correct for wind speeds up to 30 knots

Actual terrain elevation Total terrain clearance
0-5000’ 2,500’
5000< 3,000’

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30
Q

Wind speed corrections for CFP MRA?

A

When wind speeds exceed 30 knots

Elevation of terrain: above 2000’
31-50 knots: +500’
51-70 knots: +1000’
Over 70 knots: +1500’

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31
Q

How is EDG MRA calculated?

A

Highest obstacle
On a red airway: 5nm either side of track
On a black airway: 10nm either side of track
Off airway: 20nm either side of track
No end segments

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32
Q

What terrain clearance is provided by EDG MRA’s?

A

(Actual terrain elevation) 0-5,000’: 2,500’ (Total clearance)
5,001-8,000’: 3,000’
Above 8,000’: 3,500’

33
Q

Wind speed corrections for EDG MRA?

A

Wind speeds correct to 50 knots

51-70 knots: +500’
70+ knots: +1000’

34
Q

Where can Low Temperature Altimetry corrections be found?

A

OPSA Section 8.1

35
Q

Non China RVSM offset?

A

45 degrees left or right

  • Oceanic: 15nm
  • Middle East: 25nm
  • Otherwise mid point from adjacent track
36
Q

China RVSM offset?

A 
30 degrees RIGHT 
5nm parallel 
* After deviating 10nm: 
Above FL410 CLB/DES 1000'
Below FL410 CLB/DES 500'
37
Q

Weather deviation without ATC contact?

A

SCND (Some Chicks Need D)

Deviating South Climb 300’
Deviating North Descend 300’

38
Q

RVSM requirements?

A

Altimeters within 200ft
Autopilot required
Altitude alerting required
Do not exceed altitude by 150’

39
Q

Oceanic wake turbulence separation?

A

Can deviate RIGHT up to 2nm without ATC clearance

40
Q

Icing conditions definition?

A

When OAT or TAT is below +10C and there is visible moisture in the air, or snow, ice, slush and standing water on the ground

41
Q

When does timing for holdover period begin?

A

At the commencement of the final application process

42
Q

What happens when the lower limit of HOT is reached?

A

Pre Take Off Contamination INSPECTION shall be completed from inside the aircraft

43
Q

What happens when the higher limit of HOT is exceeded?

A

Pre Take Off Contamination CHECK shall be completed externally
Take off required within 5 minutes

44
Q

How are holdover times determined?

A

Using the eHOT calculator in FOP Tools app

45
Q

Cold weather airframe conditions?

A

All leading edges, control surfaces, and upper wing must be free of ice and snow
Thin hoar frost on upper side of fuselage acceptable, provided ports and vents clear
3mm frost on lower wing acceptable

46
Q

Freezing point of Jet A?

A

-40C (FMC buffer of 3 degrees, fuel temp low at -37C)

47
Q

When is a runway considered contaminated?

A

When more than 25% of the runway is covered by:
* Water more than 3mm deep
* Slush, loose snow equivalent to more than 3mm of water
* Compacted snow or ice
*

48
Q

If drifting is experienced on a contaminated runway, what actions should be taken?

A

Reducing reverse thrust to idle and releasing the brakes
Use rudder and differential braking to regain centreline
When on centreline, reapply reverse and brakes as required

49
Q

When operating on a contaminated runway, what thrust options are available?

A

TO, TO1, TO2

ATM not available

50
Q

Where would you find information on airport specific LVP procedures?

A

Port Pages

51
Q

What does a flashing LOC or GP indicator mean?

A

If encountered above alert height, approach may be continued provided that aircraft is correcting (VERIFY)

If encountered below alert height, approach must be discontinued unless visual conditions exist and a manual landing can be conducted

52
Q

During short term interference on an ILS approach, what can be expected?

A

Erratic raw data ILS indications. Autopilot disregards ILS signal and continues in attitude stabilised mode based on ADIRU data

53
Q

During long term interference on an ILS approach, what can be expected?

A 
Autopilot remains in stablised mode:
Amber line appears through affected mode(s)
EICAS caution message
Master Caution
Flight director command bar(s) disappear
54
Q

Maximum autoland wind limits?

A

Headwind: 25 knots
Crosswind: 25 knots
Tailwind: 15 knots

55
Q

What EICAS message will not permit an LVO to be conducted?

A

SINGLE SOURCE DISPLAYS

56
Q

What EICAS message will not permit a Cat 3B approach to be conducted?

A

AUTOTHROT DIS

57
Q

Minimum autopilot disconnect height on an ILS when LAND 2 or LAND 3 is displayed?

A

100 ft

Need reference to be found

58
Q

What is the alert height?

A

200’ RA

59
Q

What redundancy does LAND 3 provide?

A

Fail Operational

60
Q

What redundancy does LAND 2 provide?

A

Fail Passive

61
Q

What does Fail Operational redundancy provide?

A

A single fault cannot prevent the autopilot system from making an automatic landing

62
Q

What does Fail Passive redundancy provide?

A

A single fault cannot cause a significant deviation from the flight path

63
Q

If one or both TOGA switches fail, can an autoland or LVO approach be conducted?

A

No

64
Q

With what systems inoperative, is an LVO approach prevented from being conducted?

A 
Autopilot disconnect switch 
Autothrottle system
TOGA switches (both required)
65
Q

What is the difference between the shorter and longer HOT?

A

The shorter HOT is for moderate precipitation, the longer HOT is for light precipitation

66
Q

On a METAR, how is snow intensity described?

A

-SN, SN, +SN

67
Q

Do holdover times exist for heavy snow conditions?

A

No

68
Q

After overnight freezing conditions, what aircraft characteristics might be encountered?

A

Tyres may retain flat spots, short taxi may not heat up sufficiently. Could encounter vibration on take off roll

69
Q

What measures can be taken when encountering minimum fuel temperatures?

A

Decreasing altitude
Increasing Mach
Diverting to warmer air mass

70
Q

How are maximum FDP times calculated?

A

Using Table A for acclimatized and Table B for unacclimatized in OPS A

71
Q

Where are Cat B, Cat C and Cat X airports listed?

A

Ops A

72
Q

Whats the difference between MEL dispatch and OPS A dispatch definition?

A

MEL is moving under your own power, Ops A is blocks off

73
Q

Definition of Category A fuel?

A

One sector fuel

74
Q

Definition of Category C fuel?

A

Three sector fuel

75
Q

Difference between CONT A and CONT B contingency fuel levels?

A

CONT A is the normal LRO/ULRO contingency fuel level. However, CONT B may be planned where a suitable ERA is available to increase payload.

CONT B usage has conditions attached to it which can be found in OPS A

76
Q

In what visibility is an autoland recommended?

A

<1500M

77
Q

What is the actual terrain clearance before the addition buffer has been added for EDG MRA’s?

A

0-5000’: 1500ft

5000

78
Q

Volcanic Ash colour codes?

A

Green - Normal
Yellow - Signs of elevated unrest
Orange - Signs of heightened unrest
Red - Eruption is imminent or underway

79
Q

How far away should a flight plan to fly from Volcanic Ash?

A

For reported or forecast areas of VA: 60nm

For observed emission if VA areas are not defined: 120nm

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