Structure and Function of Systems Flashcards
1
Q
What are the four types of tissues?
A
- Epithelial
- Connective (bone, cartilage, blood)
- Muscle
- Nervous
2
Q
Bringing conditions back to their normal homeostatic function
A
negative feedback
3
Q
The volume of air that is normal inhaled or exhaled in one breath
A
tidal volume
4
Q
control of exchange of heat with the environment
A
thermoregulation
5
Q
These organisms obtain heat from the environment
A
Cold-blooded/Ectotherm/Poikilotherm
6
Q
These organisms generate their own body heat and have a higher basal metabolic rate than their counterparts
A
Warm-blooded/Endotherm/Homeotherm
7
Q
The maximum volume of air that can be inhaled after a normal tidal volume inhalation
A
Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
8
Q
The left lung contains ___ lobes. The right lung contains ___ lobes.
A
2
3
9
Q
Why is the left lung smaller?
A
to accommodate the heart
10
Q
The volume of air that can be inhaled after a normal exhalation;
VT + IRV
A
Inspiratory capacity (IC)
11
Q
Lines the inside of the chest cavity
A
parietal pleura
12
Q
Has negative pressure relative to the atmosphere, if stabbed, air rushes in and causes lungs to collapse
A
Intrapleural space
13
Q
What happens to the lungs as we inhale and exhale?
A
Inhale: volume increases, diaphragm contracts, pressure decreases
Exhale: volume decreases, diaphragm relaxes, pressure increases
14
Q
Where gas exchange occurs between the circulatory system and lungs
A
alveoli
15
Q
What is surfactant?
A
A detergent like complex, reduces surface tension and helps keep the alveoli from collapsing.
16
Q
Filters, moistens, and warms incoming air. Mucus secreted by goblet cells traps large dust particles here
A
Nose
17
Q
Throat, passageway for food and air; dust and mucus are swept back here by cilia for disposal via spitting or swallowing
A
Pharynx
18
Q
The volume of air remaining in the lungs after a normal exhalation
ERV + RV
A
Functional residual capacity (FRC)
19
Q
Epiglottis covers this
A
Trachea
20
Q
What is the order of the respiratory system?
A
Mouth & nose, pharynx, trachea, epiglottis, bronchi, bronchial tubes, bronchioles, alveoli, circulatory system.
21
Q
What is the Bohr effect?
A
The shift in the oxygen dissociation curve caused by changes in concentration of CO2 or pH.
Curve shifts right = needs more O2 “CADET, face right!”
High CO2
Acidic
High 2,43 DPG
Exercise
High Temperature
Opposite when curve shifts left
22
Q
What is the Haldane effect?
A
deoxygenation of blood increases its ability to carry CO2
-Increase in Co2 pressure, there is increase CO2 blood concentration. However, when hemoglobin is saturated with oxygen, its capability to hold CO2 is reduced
23
Q
Oxygen diffuses from
A
Alveoli into the blood
24
Q
CO2 diffuses from
A
blood into the lungs
25
Majority of CO2 in the blood is in the form of
Bicarbonate (70%)
23% bound to Hemoglobin
7% dissolves in plasma
26
How is respiration controlled?
Medulla oblongata
1. partial pressure of CO2 increases causing increase rate of ventilation
2. Diaphragm contracts
3. Lungs inflate, pressure decreases, volume increases
Both central (medulla) and peripheral (heart) chemoreceptors
27
Pathology marked by destruction of alveoli
Emphysema
28
what is respiratory acidosis?
Results from inadequate ventilation; we don't clear enough CO2 and it builds up, so more H+ is formed, lower the pH
29
What is respiratory alkalosis?
Results from breathing too rapidly (hyperventilation); we are losing CO2 too quickly so H+ and HCO3- start combining to form more CO2 and pH starts rising
30
An increase in H+ or CO2 will cause a (increase/decrease) in breathing rate. High blood O2 partial pressure would cause a (increase/decrease) in breathing rate.
Increase
Decrease
31
What is the equation for cardiac output?
stroke volume x heart rate
SV = volume of blood discharged from ventricles with each contraction
CO = volume discharged from the ventricle each minute
32
What is the equation for blood pressure or mean arterial pressure?
CO x Systemic Vascular Resistance
CO = cardiac output
SVR = resistance controlled by vasoconstriction/dilation - the larger the diameter, the less resistance
33
The maximum volume of air that can be exhaled after a normal tidal volume exhalation
Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)
34
The amount of air remaining in the lungs after maximum exhalation; air that cannot be exhaled
Residual Volume (RV)
35
The maximum volume of air that can be exhaled after a maximum inspiration;
IRV + VT + ERV
Vital capacity (VC)
36
The maximum amount of air that the lungs can accommodate
IC + FRC
Total lung capacity
37
What is the path of blood?
Vena cava, right atria, tricuspid, right ventricle, PSLV, pulmonary artery, lungs, pulmonary vein, left atria, bicuspid/mitral, left ventricle, ASLV, aorta, body
38
What is the path of circulation?
Away from heart
aorta --> arteries --> arterioles --> capillaries
Toward heart
capillaries --> venules --> veins
39
What is the ejection fraction?
stroke volume/end diastolic volume
blood that leaves the ventricles when heart pumped
40
What is the electrical conduction of the heart?
1. SA Node - pacemaker - sends impulse to contract the atria
2. AV Node - sends impulse to ventricles
3. Bundle of His (AV Bundle) - impulses passes through here
4. Purkinje Fibers - impulses arrives here and causes ventricles to contract
41
What are chordae tendinae and papillary muscles?
Chordae tendinae are small cordlike structures that connect the AV valves to the walls of the heart and work with the papillary muscles located in the walls of the ventricles to make a tight seal to prevent backflow when ventricles contract.
42
Why are ventricle walls thicker?
Because they pump blood to the body and lungs and atria only have to pump blood to fill ventricles
43
Why is the left side of the heart thicker than the right?
Left ventricle pumps blood to most of body
Right ventricle pumps blood to lungs
44
What is systole?
contraction of atria and ventricles
45
What is diastole?
relaxation of atria and ventricles
46
Compare and contrast veins, capillaries, and arteries.
47
Transports interstitial fluid
lymphatic system
48
True or false: Blood is a connective tissue
True
49
What are the components of blood?
1. Plasma (55%) - aqueous mixture of nutrients, salts, gases, wastes, hormones, and blood proteins
2. Blood serum - same as plasma minus clotting factor components
Cellular Components (45%)
3. Erythrocytes (RBC) - Red blood cells - transport oxygen on hemoglobin
4. Leukocytes (WBC) - White blood cells - involved in infection
5. Platelets - involved in clotting
50
What is the process of blood clotting?
1. Formation of platelet plug
2. Release of thromboplastin
3. Conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
4. Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
5. Clot formation
51
What stimulates a babies first breath?
CO2 and temperature change from womb to outside
52
What is the pathway of fetal circulation?
Oxygenated, nutrient-rich blood from placenta
carried to fetus via umbilical vein —> half of
the blood enters the ductus venosus, which
allows blood to bypass the liver —> blood is
carried to the inferior vena cava —> right
atrium —> right ventricle —> ductus arteriosus
(conducts some blood from the pulmonary
artery to the aorta [bypassing the lungs/fetal
pulmonary circulation]) —> aorta
The other half of the blood that didn't enter the
ductus venosus enters the live/portal vein —>
right atrium —> foramen ovale (a small opening
in the heart which allows blood to bypass
pulmonary circulation by entering the left atrium
directly from the right atrium since there is no
gas exchange in the fetal lung) —> left atrium —
> left ventricle —> aorta
53
What is the equation for stroke volume?
end diastolic volume - end systolic volume
EDV = volume of blood in ventricle just before contraction
ESV = blood in the ventricle at the end of contraction/systole
54
What are the four ways humans excrete wastes
1. Lungs - CO2 and H2O diffuse from blood and are continually exhaled
2. Liver - processes nitrogenous wastes, blood pigment wastes, other chemicals, and produces urea
3. Skin - sweat glands in the skin excrete water and dissolved salts to regulate body temperature
4. Kidney - excretes wastes via the following pathway:
kidney --> ureter --> bladder --> urethra
55
What is the nephron composed of? Label it.
1. Renal Corpuscle
- Glomerulus
- Bowmans Capsule
2. Renal Tubule
- Proximal Convoluted Tubule
- Loop of Henle (Descending loop, Ascending loop)
- Distal Convoluted Tubule
- Collecting Duct
56
What are the four steps in urine formation?
1. Filtration
- filtrate becomes filtered through the glomerulus (afferent arteriole --> glomerulus --> efferent arteriole) and is then pushed into the Bowmann's capsule via hydrostatic pressure of blood
- proteins and large particles (blood cells) that are can't filter remain in the circulatory system
2. Reabsorption
- glucose, salts, amino acids are reabsorbed from filtrate and return to the blood in the proximal convoluted tubule via active transport
- NaCl and bicarbonate are actively reabsorbed in the distal convoluted tubule via active transport
- water passively flows
3. Secretion
- acids, bases, ammonia, drugs, and ions are secreted by both passive and active transport from the peritubular capillaries and into the nephron
4. Concentration
- ADH prevents water loss by making the collecting duct more permeable to water
- when BP is low, aldosterone increases reabsorption of Na+ by the DCT and collecting duct, which increases water retention
57
What is the function of the loop of henle?
58
What is the path of urea through the collecting duct?
1. Urea first descends to the medulla (salty party) where ADH/vasopression can make more water leave from urine by increasing permeability of the collecting duct (via increased aquaporins) --> urine is even more concentrated
2. Aldosterone can act on collecting duct by increase Na+ reabsorption, resulting in water passively following Na+
3. By the time urine emerges, it usually has varying amounts of H2O, urea, NaCl, K+ and creatinine
59
If alcohol blocks the creation of vasopressin what does this mean for urine output?
More urine output since H2O is reabsorbed by the body
60
Area where food and air passages cross; epiglottis, a flap of tissue that blocks the trachea so only solid and liquid enter, is located here
Pharynx
61
What is the juxtaglomerular apparatus?
- Contains macula densa which monitors filtrate pressure in DCT
- If BP low: granular cells secrete renin --> angiotensin cascade --> adrenal cortex to synthesize aldosterone --> more H2O absorbed from DCT and blood pressure rises and is restored to normal
62
The osmolarity gradient in the kidneys is creating by entering and exiting of solutes, and (increases/decreases) from the cortex to the medulla.
Increases
63
The descending loop is permeable to _____. The ascending loop is permeable to ______. This is known as the _______.
water (so less salty)
salts and ions (more salty)
counter current multiplier
64
Takes place within cells and food is phagocytized and fuses with food vacuoles. Lysosomes break down nutrients.
What organisms does this occur in?
Intracellular digestion
Amoeba, Paramecium, Porifera
65
Takes place outside the cells usually in a food compartment continuous with the animal's body
What organism does this occur in?
Extracellular digestion
Mostly everything
66
What is the pathway of digestion?
Mouth, pharynx (throat), esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, colon
67
Salivary amylase breaks down starch into maltose by breaking a-glycosidic bonds and chewing creates a bolus
Mouth
68
What are the 9 main functions of the liver?
1. Blood storage
2. Blood filtration
- Kupfer cells phagocytize bacteria
3. Carbohydrate Metabolism
- blood glucose levels
4. Fat Metabolism
- syntehsizes bile to breakdown fats
5. Protein Metabolism
- deaminates amino acids, forms urea from ammonia, synthesizes plasma proteins and nonessential amino acids
6. Detoxification
7. Erythrocyte Destruction
- Kupfer cells destroy irregular erythrocytes
8. Vitamin Storage (A, D, B12)
10. Glycogenesis and Glycogenolysis
69
Tube leading toward the stomach, food travels by peristalsis
Esophagus
70
What occurs in the stomach during digestion?
Storage - stomach folds (rugae) allow for 2-4 L of storage
Mixing - H2O, food, gastric juice mix and form chyme
Physical breakdown - muscles activated to break down food, HCl denatures proteins and kills bacteria
Chemical breakdown - pepsin digests proteins
Controlled release - chyme enters small intestine via pyloric sphincter
71
What are the 5 stomach cells?
1. Mucous cells - secrete mucus that lubricates and protects stomach's lining
2. Chief cells - secrete pepsinogen which is activated to pepsin by low pH in stomach - protein digestion
3. Parietal cells - secrete HCl, intrinsic factor assists B12 absorption
4. G cells - secrete gastrin which stimulate parietal cells to secrete HCl
5. ECL cells - neuroendocrine cells activated by gastrin to release histamine which stimulates parietal cells to secrete HCl
72
What is the pH of the stomach?
2
73
What are the 3 parts of the small intestine? What occurs in the small intestine during digestion?
1. Duodenum - continues breakdown of starches and proteins as well as remaining food types
2. Jejunum - absorption of nutrients
3. Ileum - absorption of nutrients
DIGESTION
1. structure - contain villi to increase surface area for better digestion and absorption, goblet cells secrete mucus to protect from mechanical or chemical damage
2. enzyme - protelytic enzymes (i.e, proteases, disaccharadidases, lipases, nucleotidades, phosphatases, and nucleosidases)
74
Structure connected to large intestine
ileocecal valve
75
90% of digestion and nutrient absorption occurs in the _____
small intestine
76
What occurs in the pancreas during digestion?
- Secretes bicarbonate (helps neutralize acidic chyme)
- Exocrine gland releasing enzymes from acinar cells via pancreatic duct --> duodenum
- Enzymes: trypsin, chymotrypsin, lipase, pancreatic amylase, deoxy/ribonucleases
77
What is the pH of the duodenum?
6
78
What is the function of the liver in digestion?
- produces bile to emulsify (breakdown) fats
- sodium bicarbonate neutralizes stomach acid
- small intestine absorbs breakdown products (amino acids and sugars --> capillaries, fatty acids and glycerol --> lymphatic system --> bloodstream)
- chyme moves through intestine via peristalsis
79
Where is bile stored?
gallbladder
80
The valve controlling release of bile and pancreatic juice into the small intestine
Sphincter of oddi
81
What occurs in the large intestine during digestion?
- water and electrolyte absorption
- feces stored at end of large intestine in the rectum and excreted through the anus
- bacteria (like e. coli) a symbiont in large intestine = main source of vitamin K (also produce b12, thiamin, riboflavin)
82
How long is the small intestine?
6 meters
83
How long is the large intestine?
1.5 meters
84
What are the 4 hormones involved in digestion?
1. Gastrin - produced by stomach lining when food reaches
2. Secretin - produced by cells lining duodenum in response to HCl to stimulate bicarbonate production
3. Cholecystokinin - secreted by small intestine in response to fat digestases - stimulates galbladder to release bile and pancreas to release enzymes
4. Gastric Inhibitory Peptide - produced in response to fat/protein digestases in duodenum; effect = mild decrease of stomach motor activity
85
What are the 5 hormones involved in hunger?
1. Grehlin - via stomach wall, initiates hunger
2. Leptin - via adipose tissue, inhibits hunger
3. Peptite YY - via small intestine, hunger and lack of hunger
4. Insulin - via pancreas, stores glucose as glycogen in liver
5. epinephrine - suppresses hunger
86
Phagocytes of CNS
microglia
87
Label the neuron
Neuron - consists of dentrites, an axon, and a cell body
Axon hillock - where the soma (cell body) connects to thte axon; action potentials generated here
Dendrites - receive information and transfer it to the cell body
Axon - transfers impulses away from cell body
Myelin sheath - insulates axon and separations are called nodes of ranvier; involved in saltatory conduction
88
Produce myelin in the central nervous system
oligodendrocytes
89
Produce myelin in the peripheral nervous system
Schwann cells
90
Describe an action potential
1. Resting potential = -70 mV
2. Action potential = Na+ channels open, Na+ comes in, if -50 mV reached then an action potential will occur
3. Repolarization = in response to Na+ flow, K+ flows out of cell, restoring polarization (Na + are now inside, K+ is now out)
4. Hyperpolarization = by the time channels close, too much K+ is released (~ - 80 mV)
5. Refractory period - neuron will not respond to a new stimulus
- Absolute refractory period = Na+ channels inactivated, nothing can cause an action potential
- Relative refractory period = a large stimulus can create an action potential
*prevents an action potential from moving backwards
91
Use cilia to circulate cerebrospinal fluid
ependymal cells
92
groups of cell bodies in the PNS that serve as support cells
satellite cells
93
provide physical support to neurons of the CNS and maintain mineral and nutrient balance
astrocytes
94
What are the three types of neurons?
1. Sensory - receives initial stimulus from brain
2. Motor - travel from the brain and stimulate target cells (i.e., muscles, sweat glands, etc)
3. Interneuron - receive impulses from sensory neurons and sends impulses to motor neurons
95
A neuron that picks up stimuli from the internal or external environment and converts each stimulus into a nerve impulse.
Sensory neuron
96
90% of nerves are
interneurons
97
How many Na+ and K+ ions are moved via the Na+/K+ pumps when the cell is at rest?
3 Na+ out
2 K+ in
98
Neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junction in invertebrates and is the most common CNS neurotransmitter in vertebrates
Glutamate
99
What are the steps of transmission across a synapse?
1. Ca2+ gates open, depolarization allows Ca2+ to enter the cell
2. Synaptic vessel release neurotransmitter
3. Neurotransmitter binds with postsynaptic receptors
4. Post synaptic membrane is excited or inhibited
- Excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP): Na+ gates open and membrane is depolarized; if threshold potential is succeeded, an action potential is generated
- Inhibitory postsynaptic potential: K+ gates open and membrane is hyperpolarized; it becomes more difficult to generate an action potential
5. Neurotransmitter is degraded/recycled/diffused away
100
What are the two factors that can affect the rate at which impulses travel?
1. Diameter - greater diameter = faster propogation
2. Mylenation - saltatory conduction
101
What breaks down acetylcholine?
acetylcholinesterase
102
Neurotransmitter secreted at the neuromuscular junction in PNS and cause muscle contraction or relaxation
acetylcholine (Ach)
103
Short chains of amino acids and are a diverse group including substance P and endorphins
neuropeptides
104
Inhibitory neurotransmitter among brain neurons
Gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA)
105
inhibitory neurotransmitter among synapses of the CNS outside the brain
Glycine
106
This nerve innervates the lower limbs and pelvis
Sciatic nerve
107
Epinephrine
adrenaline
108
What are the meninges?
1. Dura mater - thick, protects brain and spinal cord
2. Arachnoid mater - middle layer with spiderlike appearance
3. Pia matter - delicate innermost membrane directly surrounding brain and spinal cord
4. Space between arachnoid and pia mater is filled with cerebral spinal fluid which acts to cushion brain and serve as a shock absorber
109
What are the parts of the forebrain and their functions?
- Cerebral cortex: processes sensory input, important for perception, memory, voluntary movement and learning
- Olfactory bulb: smell
- Thalamus: relays sensory information between spinal cord and cerebral cortex
- Hypothalamus: water balance, blood pressure regulation, temperature regulation, hunger, thirst, sex, circadian rhythms (superchiasmatic nucleus)
- Basal Ganglia: centres for planning/learning movement sequences
- Hippocampus: memory consolidation and spatial navigation
110
What is the function of the midbrain?
vision and hearing
111
What are the parts of the hindbrain and their functions?
1. Cerebellum: balance, hand-eye coordination, timing of rapid movements and motor skills
2. Pons: relay center for cortex and cerebellum
3. Medulla oblongata: regulates breathing, heart rate, and gastrointestinal activity
4. Brainstem: consists of midbrain, medulla, pons; connects cerebrum with spinal cord and is part of the reticular formation (regulates sleep and arousal)
112
The part of the spinal cord where sensory information enters
dorsal horn
113
The part of the spinal cord where motor information exits
ventral horn
114
What are the 4 brain lobes?
1.frontal:
- attention
- voluntary skeletal movement
- olfactory bulb for smell
- Broca's area for speech
- prefrontal cortex for decision making and planning
2. parietal: sensory areas
- somatosensation: temperature, touch, pressure, pain
- proprioception: orientation of body parts in space
- somatosensory cortex: receives and processes sensory information from the entire body
3. occipital
- visual input, object recognizition
4. temporal: processes and interprets sounds
- Wernicke's area - understanding speech
- hippocampus: memory formation
- auditory cortex: processes auditory information
115
At the base of the cerebrum there is a mass of nuclei responsible for emotion and memory
amygdala
116
What are the parts of the nervous system?
Somatic - voluntary skeletal muscle movement
Autonomic - involuntary movement of cardiac and smooth muscle
1. sympathetic - "fight or flight" - increases BP, HR, pupil size, inhibits digestion
2. parasympathetic - "rest and digest" - decreases BP, HR, pupil size, allows digestion
117
What are the 5 types of sensory receptors?
1. Mechanoreceptors - touch
2. Thermoreceptors - temperature
3. Nociceptors - pain
4. Electromagnetic receptors - light
5. Chemoreceptors - taste, smell, blood chemistry
118
This nerve extends from the medulla oblongata and innervates parts of the heart, lungs, stomach, intestines and liver
Vagus nerve
119
Astigmatism
irregularly shaped cornea
120
This nerve serves the somatic muscles surrounding the eyes
Abducens nerve
121
This nerve serves structures surrounding the eyes and scalp
supraorbital nerve
122
What is the path of vision?
123
The eye is surrounded by the ____, a connective tissue layer, and beneath is the ___, a vascular layer providing blood and nutrition to the retina
sclera
choroid
124
What are the three parts of the retina?
1. Rods - high-intensity light; sensitive to colour
2. Cones - low-intensity light; important for night vision and do not percieve colour
3. Fovea - lots of cones for high visual acuity
125
jelly-like liquid between lens and retina that maintains shape
*makes up most of eye volume
Virteous humor
126
watery liquid between the lens and cornea to maintain intraocular pressure and provide nutrients to the avascular ocular tissues
Aqueous humor
127
Nearsightedness
myopia
128
Hyperopia
farsightedness
129
bending of joint
flexion
130
Cataracts
clouding of the lens
131
Glaucoma
increase of pressure in the eye due to blocking of outflow of aqueous homor
132
What are the parts of the ear?
Outer
- auricle/pinna
- auditory canal
Middle
- tympanic membrane (eardrum)
- malleus
- incus
-stapes
Inner
- cochlea
-semicircular canals
133
Label skeletal muscle
- Myofibrils
- Sarcomeres
- Sarcoplasm reticulum: stores Ca2+ and surrounds myofibrils
- Sarcoplasm - cytoplasm but for muscles
- Sarcolemma - plasma membrane of muscles
- Mitochondria
134
Label a sarcomere
Z line - boundary of single sarcomere
M line - middle
I band - region containing thin filaments (actin) only
H zone - region containing thick filaments (myosin) only
A band - area where actin and myosin overlap
*H and I reduce during contraction, A does not
135
Striations are a result of
alternating thin actin and thick myosin
136
What occurs during muscle contraction?
1. ATP binds to myosin head, and myosin head cocks back
2. Ca 2+ exposes binding sites on actin
- binds to troponin, pulls back tropomyosin, exposes attachment sites
3. Cross bridges between myosin heads and actin filaments form
4. ADP + Pi are released
- the sliding motion of actin brings Z lines together (contraction/ power stroke)
5. New ATP attaches to the myosin head, causing cross bridges to unbind
137
What are the three types of muscle responses?
1. Simple Twitch: single muscle fibre to brief stimulus
(1) latent period: time between stimulation and onset of contraction; lag
(2) contraction: sliding filament model
(3) relaxation (absolute refractory period): time where muscle is unresponsive to a stimulus
2. Summation and Tetanus
- summation: contractions combine and become stronger and more prolonged
- tetanus: continuous sustained contraction where a muscle cannot relax
3. Tonus: state of partial contraction where the muscle is never completely relaxed
138
What is smooth muscle?
- involuntary
- one nucleus
- no striation
- autonomic nervous system (bladder, digestive tract, blood vessel)
- slow to contract
1. single unit - visceral; connected by gap junctions, contract as a single unit
2. multi unit - each fiber is directly attached to the neuronlcan contract independently.
139
What is cardiac muscle?
- striated
- 1-2 nuclei
- involuntary
140
hard protective structure developed outside the body, as the shell of a lobster
Exoskeleton
141
internal skeleton or supporting framework in an animal (cartilage and bone)
Endoskelton
142
An avascular connective tissue that is soft and flexible, and can be found in the ear, nose, larynx, trachea and joints
cartilage
143
membrane that covers cartilage
Perichondrium
144
Most abundant protein in vertebrates
collagen
145
How is cartilage developed?
Starts with mesenchyme tissue --> chondrocytes --> make collagen
146
Basic framework of the skeleton that includes the skull, vertebral column and rib cage
axial skeleton
147
bones of appendages, pectoral and pelvic girdles, and additional bones
appendicular skeleton
148
Immovable joints that hold together the bones of the skull
sutures
149
Bone to bone connectors
ligaments
150
muscle to bone connectors
tendons
151
point of attachment of muscle to stationary bone
origin
152
point of attachment to muscle or bone that moves
insertion
153
straightening of joint
extension
154
Label compact bone
155
an opening in the bone that allows for the passage of nerves
foramen
156
cartilage that covers the bone ends of freely moveable joints begins to wear due to aging
osteoarthritis
157
a degenerative joint disease caused by an autoimmune response
rheumatoid arthritis
158
How do male and female skeletons differ?
Pelvic bones lighter and wider in females (child birth)
More defined features on skull (jaw and eyebrows) in males
159
What are the three types of joints?
1. Fibrous - connects bones allowing no movement (ex. skull, pelvis, vertebrae)
2. Cartilaginous - bones attached by cartilage and allow little movement (ex. spine and ribs)
3. Synovial - most common type that allows for much movement as it is filled with synovial fluid that acts as a lubricant
160
What are the 4 types of bone cells?
1. Osteoprogenitor/Osteogenic - part of mesenchymal lineage and become osteoblasts
2. Osteoblasts - "build bone" so bone formation
3. Osteocytes - exchange nutrients and waste material with blood
4. Osteclasts - "chew bone" so breakdown bone matrix and release minerals into blood
161
Label spongey bone
Label spongey bone
162
Label long bone
163
What are the two types of bone formation?
1. Endochondral ossification - cartilage turns into bone
2. Intramembraneous ossification - connective tissue replaced by bone
164
surrounds bone
periosteum
165
Causes bone density to decrease, and the bone becomes easier to break and fracture. Vitamin D can help prevent this.
osteoporosis
166
Made up of the skin, hair, nails, glands and some nerve endings
integumentary system
167
What are the functions of the skin?
1. Thermoregulation
2. Protection
3. Sensory input (sensing temperature, pressure, pain tough)
4. Excretion
5. Immunity
6. Blood reservoir
7. Vitamind D synthesis
168
What are the layers of the epidermis (from top to bottom)?
Come, Let's Get Sun Burnt!
Stratum Corneum
- 25-30 dead layers
- water repellant
Stratum Lucidum
- only in palms, soles of feat, and finger tips
- 3-5 layers
Stratum Granulosum
- 3-5 layers of dying cells
Stratum Spinous
- contribute to strength and flexibility
- 8-10 layers
Stratum Basale (germinativum)
- deepest layer
- attached to basement membrane
169
What are the 4 cells of the epidermis?
1. Keratinocytes
- keratin waterproofs skin
2. Melanocytes
- transfer skin pigment melanin to keratinocytes
3. Langerhans cells
- interact with helper T cells of immune system
4. Merkel cells
- attach to sensory neurons and function in touch sensation
170
Most abundant protein in epidermis
keratin
171
Second layer of skin which has a papillary region and a reticular region
dermis
172
What layer of the skin are tattoos injected into?
dermis
173
Consists of areolar and adipose tissue and function in fat store, act as a heart insulator, and serves as a shock absorber
hypodermis (subcutaneous)
174
What are the four glands of the skin?
1. Sebaceous glands - secrete sebum (oil) that keeps skin acidic
2. Sudoriferous (sweat) glands
- Eccrine (most of body): regulate temperature through perspiration and eliminate urea
- YOUR WATERY SWEAT
-Apocrine: pubic region, nipples
- YOUR STINKY SWEAT
3. Ceruminous (wax) glands
- ear canal
4. Mammary (milk) glands
- secrete milk for breast feeding
175
This type of burn affects the epithelial layer
first degree
176
This type of burn affects the epithelial and part of the dermal layer
second degree
177
This type of burn affects the epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous layers
third degree
178
Plasma protein used to transport fatty acids and steroids and help regulate osmotic pressure
* most abundant
Albumins
179
Plasma proteins essential in body defense
Immunoglobulins
180
plasma proteins which control bleeding
Clotting factors
181
Types of white blood cells
182
Interferons
interfere with viral replication within cells
183
What is the inflammatory response?
1. Histamine - secreted by mast cells and cause vasodilation
2. Vasodilation - increases blood supply to the area and increases temperature to kill pathogens
3. Phagocytes - attracted to injury and engulf pathogens or damaged cells
4. Complement - helps phagocytes engulf forein cells, stimulate basophils to release histamine, and lyse foreign cells
184
What are B cells?
produce antibodies
originate and mature in bone marrow
igG - "Gross" - gross quantiles are produced - most abundant
igA - breAst milk - found in breast milk - most abundant in secretions
igM - mono - first antibodies produced after initial exposure
igE - SneEze - allergy related
igD - diminished - few produced and function unknown
*Plasma cells
* Memory cells
185
What are T-Cells?
actively participate in immune response by recognizing non-self cells
originate in bone marrow and mature in thymus
Cytotoxic T - killer T cells that recognize and destroy cells
Helper T - stimulate activate of B cells, cytotoxic T and suppressor T
Suppressor T - plays negative feedback role in immune system
Memory T - similar function to memory B
186
What is cell-mediated immunity?
- uses mostly T cells and responds to non-self cells, including cells invaded by pathogens
1. produce cytotoxic T and helper T cells
2. helper t cells bind macrophages which engulf pathogens
3. helper t cells produce interleukins to stimulate proliferation of T cells, B cells and macrophages
187
What is humoral (antibody mediated) immunity?
- responds to antigens or pathogens that circulate in lymph or blood (bacteria, fungi, parasites, viruses, blood toxins)
1. macrophage and helper t cells stimulate b cell production
2. b cells produce plasma cells
3. b cells produce memory cells
188
Plasma without fibrinogen
serum
189
What is the order of white blood cells (leukocytes) from highest to lowest?
"Never Let Men Eat Burritos"
Neutrophils, Lymphocytes, Mast Cells, Eosinophils, Basophils
190
Describe the innate immune response
191
Occurs when antibodies are transferred from one individual to another (ex. mother to newborn)
Passive immunity
192
Chemicals derived from bacteria and fungi that are harmful to other microorganisms
Antibiotics
193
What are the three types of vaccines
1. Inactivated - consist of an inactivated pathogen that has been destroyed
2. Attenuated - contain live pathogens but are disabled in some way to prevent virulence
3. Toxoid - can be made from inactivated toxic compounds that cause illness rather than pathogen itslef
194
What is the paracrine system?
local mediators function in the immediate area round the cell which they were released
- prostaglandins: locally acting autocrine/paracrine lipid messenger molecule that has physiological effects such as: contraction/relaxation of smooth muscle, platelet aggregation, inflammation, fever, pain sensation
195
Why is aspirin considered an anti-inflammatory and decreases blood clotting?
It inhibits prostaglandin synthesis
196
Synthesizes and secretes hormones in the bloodstream
Endocrine
197
Secretes enzymes into ducts (i.e., gallbladder)
Exocrine
198
Cell signalling where the target is nearby
Paracrine
199
Cell signalling via hormone or chemical messenger that binds to receptors on the same cell
Autocrine
200
are transported throughout the body in blood, a small amount has a large impact, and compared to the nervous system, the endocrine system is slower, indirect, and longer lasting
Hormone
201
Is the pancreas an endocrine or exocrine gland?
Both - it releases digestive enzymes via the pancreatic duct and insulin + glucagon in the blood
202
What are the three types of hormones?
1. Peptide
- synthesized in rough ER, modified in golgi
- acts on surface receptors via secondary messengers
-hydrophilic
- FSH, LH, ACTH, hGH, TSH, prolactin (anterior pituitary)
- ADH, PTH (posterior pituitary)
- glucagon, insulin (pancreas)
2. Steroid
- synthesized in smooth ER
- freely diffuse but require a protein transport molecule to dissolve in blood
- hydrophobic
- glucocorticoids and mineralcorticoids (cortisol and aldosterone; adrenal cortex)
- estrogen, progesterone, testosterone (gonads, placenta)
3. Tyrosine (amino acid) Derivatives
- formed on enzymes in cytosol or on rough ER
- thyroid hormones (t3 and t4; thyroxine)
- catecholamines (epinephrine, norepinephrine)
203
What is a tropic hormone? What is a direct hormone? What are the tropic and non-tropic (direct) hormones?
Tropic - Stimulate other endocrine glands
Direct - Directly stimulate target organs
"FLAT PEG"
Tropic "Flat"
Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
Lutenizing Hormone (LH)
Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH)
Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
Direct "Peg"
Prolactin
Endorphins
Growth Hormone
Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone (MSH)
204
Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH)
Source: Hypothalamus
Target: Anterior pituitary
Action: Secrete FSH, LH
205
Growth Hormone (GH) / Somatotropin / hGH
Source: Anterior Pituitary
Target: Bone, Muscle
Action: Stimulates Growth
206
Prolactin (PRL)
Source: Anterior Pituitary
Target: Mammary Glands
Action: Production of Milk
207
Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone (MSH)
Source: Anterior Pituitary
Target: Melanocytes
Action: Release melanin
208
Endorphins
Source: Anterior Pituitary
Target: Pain receptors
Action: Pain relief
209
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
Source:Anterior Pituitary
Target: Adrenal Cortex
Action: Secretion of glucocorticoids
210
Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
Source: Anterior Pituitary
Target: Thyroid
Action: Secretion of T3 and T4
211
Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
Source: Anterior Pituitary
Target: Ovaries/Testes
Action: Oogenesis/Spermatogenesis
212
Lutenizing Hormone (LH)
Source: Anterior Pituitary
Target: Ovaries/Testes
Action: Oogenesis/Spermatogenesis
213
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) / Vasopression
Source: Posterior Pituitary
Target: Kidney
Action: Increase reabsorption of water
214
Oxytocin
Source: Posterior Pituitary
Target: Mammary Gland
Action: Milk letdown
215
Melatonin
Source: Pineal Gland
Target: Body
Action: Circadian rhythms
216
Thyroxine (T4) andTriiodothyronine (T3)
Source: Thyroid
Target: General
Action: Increase cellular metabolism
217
Hypothyroidism
underactivity of the thyroid gland
- low HR, respiratory rate, and BMR
218
Hyperthyroidism
overactivity of the thyroid gland
- high HR, respiratory rate, and BMR
219
Calcitonin
Source: Thyroid
Target: Bone
Action: Lower blood Ca2+
220
Results in dwarfism
Achondroplasia
221
Premature aging, wrinkled skin, arthritis, and arteriosclerosis
Progeria
222
Four pea shaped structures attached to the back of the thyroid
parathyroid
223
Parathyroid Hormone (PTH)
Source: Parathyroid
Target: Bone
Action: Increase blood Ca2+
224
Glucocorticoids (cortisol)
Source: Adrenal Cortex
Target: General
Action: Increases blood glucose
225
Mineralcorticoids (aldosterone)
Source: Adrenal Cortex
Target: Kidney
Action: Increases reabsorption of Na+ and excretion of K+
226
Andorgens
Source: Adrenal Cortex
Action: Male sex hormones
227
Epinephrine (E) and Norepinephrine (NE)
Source: Adrenal Gland
Target: Blood vessels, liver and heart
Action: Increase blood glucose, vasoconstriction (sympathetic)
228
Glucagon
Source: Pancreatic Alpha Cells
Target: Liver
Action: Increase blood glucose
229
Insulin
Source: Pancreatic Beta Cells
Target: Liver, muscle, fat
Action: Decreases blood glucose
230
Somatostatin
Source: Pancreatic Delta Cells
Target: Liver
Action: Inhibits both insulin and glucagon
231
Testosterone
Source: Testis
Target: Testes
Action: Spermatogenesis, secondary sex characteristics
232
Estrogen
Source: Ovary
Target: Uterus
Action: Menstrual cycle, secondary sex characteristics
233
Progesterone
Source: Ovary
Target: Uterus
Action: Menstrual cycle, pregnancy
234
breaks down food in stomach, stimulates secretion of HCl
gastrin
235
When acidic food enters the stomach, this hormone is released to stimulate the release of alkaline bicarbonate from the pancreas
secretin
236
horomone that induces bile and pancreatic juice stimulation
cholecystokinin
