Structure and Function of Systems Flashcards

1
Q

What are the four types of tissues?

A
  1. Epithelial
  2. Connective (bone, cartilage, blood)
  3. Muscle
  4. Nervous
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2
Q

Bringing conditions back to their normal homeostatic function

A

negative feedback

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3
Q

The volume of air that is normal inhaled or exhaled in one breath

A

tidal volume

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4
Q

control of exchange of heat with the environment

A

thermoregulation

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5
Q

These organisms obtain heat from the environment

A

Cold-blooded/Ectotherm/Poikilotherm

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6
Q

These organisms generate their own body heat and have a higher basal metabolic rate than their counterparts

A

Warm-blooded/Endotherm/Homeotherm

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7
Q

The maximum volume of air that can be inhaled after a normal tidal volume inhalation

A

Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)

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8
Q

The left lung contains ___ lobes. The right lung contains ___ lobes.

A

2
3

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9
Q

Why is the left lung smaller?

A

to accommodate the heart

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10
Q

The volume of air that can be inhaled after a normal exhalation;

VT + IRV

A

Inspiratory capacity (IC)

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11
Q

Lines the inside of the chest cavity

A

parietal pleura

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12
Q

Has negative pressure relative to the atmosphere, if stabbed, air rushes in and causes lungs to collapse

A

Intrapleural space

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13
Q

What happens to the lungs as we inhale and exhale?

A

Inhale: volume increases, diaphragm contracts, pressure decreases

Exhale: volume decreases, diaphragm relaxes, pressure increases

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14
Q

Where gas exchange occurs between the circulatory system and lungs

A

alveoli

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15
Q

What is surfactant?

A

A detergent like complex, reduces surface tension and helps keep the alveoli from collapsing.

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16
Q

Filters, moistens, and warms incoming air. Mucus secreted by goblet cells traps large dust particles here

A

Nose

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17
Q

Throat, passageway for food and air; dust and mucus are swept back here by cilia for disposal via spitting or swallowing

A

Pharynx

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18
Q

The volume of air remaining in the lungs after a normal exhalation

ERV + RV

A

Functional residual capacity (FRC)

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19
Q

Epiglottis covers this

A

Trachea

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20
Q

What is the order of the respiratory system?

A

Mouth & nose, pharynx, trachea, epiglottis, bronchi, bronchial tubes, bronchioles, alveoli, circulatory system.

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21
Q

What is the Bohr effect?

A

The shift in the oxygen dissociation curve caused by changes in concentration of CO2 or pH.

Curve shifts right = needs more O2 “CADET, face right!”
High CO2
Acidic
High 2,43 DPG
Exercise
High Temperature

Opposite when curve shifts left

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22
Q

What is the Haldane effect?

A

deoxygenation of blood increases its ability to carry CO2

-Increase in Co2 pressure, there is increase CO2 blood concentration. However, when hemoglobin is saturated with oxygen, its capability to hold CO2 is reduced

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23
Q

Oxygen diffuses from

A

Alveoli into the blood

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24
Q

CO2 diffuses from

A

blood into the lungs

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25
Q

Majority of CO2 in the blood is in the form of

A

Bicarbonate (70%)

23% bound to Hemoglobin
7% dissolves in plasma

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26
Q

How is respiration controlled?

A

Medulla oblongata

  1. partial pressure of CO2 increases causing increase rate of ventilation
  2. Diaphragm contracts
  3. Lungs inflate, pressure decreases, volume increases

Both central (medulla) and peripheral (heart) chemoreceptors

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27
Q

Pathology marked by destruction of alveoli

A

Emphysema

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28
Q

what is respiratory acidosis?

A

Results from inadequate ventilation; we don’t clear enough CO2 and it builds up, so more H+ is formed, lower the pH

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29
Q

What is respiratory alkalosis?

A

Results from breathing too rapidly (hyperventilation); we are losing CO2 too quickly so H+ and HCO3- start combining to form more CO2 and pH starts rising

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30
Q

An increase in H+ or CO2 will cause a (increase/decrease) in breathing rate. High blood O2 partial pressure would cause a (increase/decrease) in breathing rate.

A

Increase
Decrease

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31
Q

What is the equation for cardiac output?

A

stroke volume x heart rate

SV = volume of blood discharged from ventricles with each contraction

CO = volume discharged from the ventricle each minute

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32
Q

What is the equation for blood pressure or mean arterial pressure?

A

CO x Systemic Vascular Resistance

CO = cardiac output

SVR = resistance controlled by vasoconstriction/dilation - the larger the diameter, the less resistance

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33
Q

The maximum volume of air that can be exhaled after a normal tidal volume exhalation

A

Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)

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34
Q

The amount of air remaining in the lungs after maximum exhalation; air that cannot be exhaled

A

Residual Volume (RV)

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35
Q

The maximum volume of air that can be exhaled after a maximum inspiration;

IRV + VT + ERV

A

Vital capacity (VC)

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36
Q

The maximum amount of air that the lungs can accommodate

IC + FRC

A

Total lung capacity

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37
Q

What is the path of blood?

A

Vena cava, right atria, tricuspid, right ventricle, PSLV, pulmonary artery, lungs, pulmonary vein, left atria, bicuspid/mitral, left ventricle, ASLV, aorta, body

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38
Q

What is the path of circulation?

A

Away from heart
aorta –> arteries –> arterioles –> capillaries

Toward heart
capillaries –> venules –> veins

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39
Q

What is the ejection fraction?

A

stroke volume/end diastolic volume

blood that leaves the ventricles when heart pumped

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40
Q

What is the electrical conduction of the heart?

A
  1. SA Node - pacemaker - sends impulse to contract the atria
  2. AV Node - sends impulse to ventricles
  3. Bundle of His (AV Bundle) - impulses passes through here
  4. Purkinje Fibers - impulses arrives here and causes ventricles to contract
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41
Q

What are chordae tendinae and papillary muscles?

A

Chordae tendinae are small cordlike structures that connect the AV valves to the walls of the heart and work with the papillary muscles located in the walls of the ventricles to make a tight seal to prevent backflow when ventricles contract.

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42
Q

Why are ventricle walls thicker?

A

Because they pump blood to the body and lungs and atria only have to pump blood to fill ventricles

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43
Q

Why is the left side of the heart thicker than the right?

A

Left ventricle pumps blood to most of body
Right ventricle pumps blood to lungs

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44
Q

What is systole?

A

contraction of atria and ventricles

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45
Q

What is diastole?

A

relaxation of atria and ventricles

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46
Q

Compare and contrast veins, capillaries, and arteries.

A
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47
Q

Transports interstitial fluid

A

lymphatic system

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48
Q

True or false: Blood is a connective tissue

A

True

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49
Q

What are the components of blood?

A
  1. Plasma (55%) - aqueous mixture of nutrients, salts, gases, wastes, hormones, and blood proteins
  2. Blood serum - same as plasma minus clotting factor components

Cellular Components (45%)
3. Erythrocytes (RBC) - Red blood cells - transport oxygen on hemoglobin
4. Leukocytes (WBC) - White blood cells - involved in infection
5. Platelets - involved in clotting

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50
Q

What is the process of blood clotting?

A
  1. Formation of platelet plug
  2. Release of thromboplastin
  3. Conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
  4. Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
  5. Clot formation
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51
Q

What stimulates a babies first breath?

A

CO2 and temperature change from womb to outside

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52
Q

What is the pathway of fetal circulation?

A

Oxygenated, nutrient-rich blood from placenta
carried to fetus via umbilical vein —> half of
the blood enters the ductus venosus, which
allows blood to bypass the liver —> blood is
carried to the inferior vena cava —> right
atrium —> right ventricle —> ductus arteriosus
(conducts some blood from the pulmonary
artery to the aorta [bypassing the lungs/fetal
pulmonary circulation]) —> aorta

The other half of the blood that didn’t enter the
ductus venosus enters the live/portal vein —>
right atrium —> foramen ovale (a small opening
in the heart which allows blood to bypass
pulmonary circulation by entering the left atrium
directly from the right atrium since there is no
gas exchange in the fetal lung) —> left atrium —
> left ventricle —> aorta

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53
Q

What is the equation for stroke volume?

A

end diastolic volume - end systolic volume

EDV = volume of blood in ventricle just before contraction

ESV = blood in the ventricle at the end of contraction/systole

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54
Q

What are the four ways humans excrete wastes

A
  1. Lungs - CO2 and H2O diffuse from blood and are continually exhaled
  2. Liver - processes nitrogenous wastes, blood pigment wastes, other chemicals, and produces urea
  3. Skin - sweat glands in the skin excrete water and dissolved salts to regulate body temperature
  4. Kidney - excretes wastes via the following pathway:
    kidney –> ureter –> bladder –> urethra
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55
Q

What is the nephron composed of? Label it.

A
  1. Renal Corpuscle
    - Glomerulus
    - Bowmans Capsule
  2. Renal Tubule
    - Proximal Convoluted Tubule
    - Loop of Henle (Descending loop, Ascending loop)
    - Distal Convoluted Tubule
    - Collecting Duct
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56
Q

What are the four steps in urine formation?

A
  1. Filtration
    - filtrate becomes filtered through the glomerulus (afferent arteriole –> glomerulus –> efferent arteriole) and is then pushed into the Bowmann’s capsule via hydrostatic pressure of blood
    - proteins and large particles (blood cells) that are can’t filter remain in the circulatory system
  2. Reabsorption
    - glucose, salts, amino acids are reabsorbed from filtrate and return to the blood in the proximal convoluted tubule via active transport
    - NaCl and bicarbonate are actively reabsorbed in the distal convoluted tubule via active transport
    - water passively flows
  3. Secretion
    - acids, bases, ammonia, drugs, and ions are secreted by both passive and active transport from the peritubular capillaries and into the nephron
  4. Concentration
    - ADH prevents water loss by making the collecting duct more permeable to water
    - when BP is low, aldosterone increases reabsorption of Na+ by the DCT and collecting duct, which increases water retention
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57
Q

What is the function of the loop of henle?

A
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58
Q

What is the path of urea through the collecting duct?

A
  1. Urea first descends to the medulla (salty party) where ADH/vasopression can make more water leave from urine by increasing permeability of the collecting duct (via increased aquaporins) –> urine is even more concentrated
  2. Aldosterone can act on collecting duct by increase Na+ reabsorption, resulting in water passively following Na+
  3. By the time urine emerges, it usually has varying amounts of H2O, urea, NaCl, K+ and creatinine
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59
Q

If alcohol blocks the creation of vasopressin what does this mean for urine output?

A

More urine output since H2O is reabsorbed by the body

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60
Q

Area where food and air passages cross; epiglottis, a flap of tissue that blocks the trachea so only solid and liquid enter, is located here

A

Pharynx

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61
Q

What is the juxtaglomerular apparatus?

A
  • Contains macula densa which monitors filtrate pressure in DCT
  • If BP low: granular cells secrete renin –> angiotensin cascade –> adrenal cortex to synthesize aldosterone –> more H2O absorbed from DCT and blood pressure rises and is restored to normal
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62
Q

The osmolarity gradient in the kidneys is creating by entering and exiting of solutes, and (increases/decreases) from the cortex to the medulla.

A

Increases

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63
Q

The descending loop is permeable to _____. The ascending loop is permeable to ______. This is known as the _______.

A

water (so less salty)
salts and ions (more salty)
counter current multiplier

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64
Q

Takes place within cells and food is phagocytized and fuses with food vacuoles. Lysosomes break down nutrients.

What organisms does this occur in?

A

Intracellular digestion

Amoeba, Paramecium, Porifera

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65
Q

Takes place outside the cells usually in a food compartment continuous with the animal’s body

What organism does this occur in?

A

Extracellular digestion

Mostly everything

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66
Q

What is the pathway of digestion?

A

Mouth, pharynx (throat), esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, colon

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67
Q

Salivary amylase breaks down starch into maltose by breaking a-glycosidic bonds and chewing creates a bolus

A

Mouth

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68
Q

What are the 9 main functions of the liver?

A
  1. Blood storage
  2. Blood filtration
    - Kupfer cells phagocytize bacteria
  3. Carbohydrate Metabolism
    - blood glucose levels
  4. Fat Metabolism
    - syntehsizes bile to breakdown fats
  5. Protein Metabolism
    - deaminates amino acids, forms urea from ammonia, synthesizes plasma proteins and nonessential amino acids
  6. Detoxification
  7. Erythrocyte Destruction
    - Kupfer cells destroy irregular erythrocytes
  8. Vitamin Storage (A, D, B12)
  9. Glycogenesis and Glycogenolysis
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69
Q

Tube leading toward the stomach, food travels by peristalsis

A

Esophagus

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70
Q

What occurs in the stomach during digestion?

A

Storage - stomach folds (rugae) allow for 2-4 L of storage

Mixing - H2O, food, gastric juice mix and form chyme

Physical breakdown - muscles activated to break down food, HCl denatures proteins and kills bacteria

Chemical breakdown - pepsin digests proteins

Controlled release - chyme enters small intestine via pyloric sphincter

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71
Q

What are the 5 stomach cells?

A
  1. Mucous cells - secrete mucus that lubricates and protects stomach’s lining
  2. Chief cells - secrete pepsinogen which is activated to pepsin by low pH in stomach - protein digestion
  3. Parietal cells - secrete HCl, intrinsic factor assists B12 absorption
  4. G cells - secrete gastrin which stimulate parietal cells to secrete HCl
  5. ECL cells - neuroendocrine cells activated by gastrin to release histamine which stimulates parietal cells to secrete HCl
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72
Q

What is the pH of the stomach?

A

2

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73
Q

What are the 3 parts of the small intestine? What occurs in the small intestine during digestion?

A
  1. Duodenum - continues breakdown of starches and proteins as well as remaining food types
  2. Jejunum - absorption of nutrients
  3. Ileum - absorption of nutrients

DIGESTION
1. structure - contain villi to increase surface area for better digestion and absorption, goblet cells secrete mucus to protect from mechanical or chemical damage

  1. enzyme - protelytic enzymes (i.e, proteases, disaccharadidases, lipases, nucleotidades, phosphatases, and nucleosidases)
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74
Q

Structure connected to large intestine

A

ileocecal valve

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75
Q

90% of digestion and nutrient absorption occurs in the _____

A

small intestine

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76
Q

What occurs in the pancreas during digestion?

A
  • Secretes bicarbonate (helps neutralize acidic chyme)
  • Exocrine gland releasing enzymes from acinar cells via pancreatic duct –> duodenum
  • Enzymes: trypsin, chymotrypsin, lipase, pancreatic amylase, deoxy/ribonucleases
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77
Q

What is the pH of the duodenum?

A

6

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78
Q

What is the function of the liver in digestion?

A
  • produces bile to emulsify (breakdown) fats
  • sodium bicarbonate neutralizes stomach acid
  • small intestine absorbs breakdown products (amino acids and sugars –> capillaries, fatty acids and glycerol –> lymphatic system –> bloodstream)
  • chyme moves through intestine via peristalsis
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79
Q

Where is bile stored?

A

gallbladder

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80
Q

The valve controlling release of bile and pancreatic juice into the small intestine

A

Sphincter of oddi

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81
Q

What occurs in the large intestine during digestion?

A
  • water and electrolyte absorption
  • feces stored at end of large intestine in the rectum and excreted through the anus
  • bacteria (like e. coli) a symbiont in large intestine = main source of vitamin K (also produce b12, thiamin, riboflavin)
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82
Q

How long is the small intestine?

A

6 meters

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83
Q

How long is the large intestine?

A

1.5 meters

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84
Q

What are the 4 hormones involved in digestion?

A
  1. Gastrin - produced by stomach lining when food reaches
  2. Secretin - produced by cells lining duodenum in response to HCl to stimulate bicarbonate production
  3. Cholecystokinin - secreted by small intestine in response to fat digestases - stimulates galbladder to release bile and pancreas to release enzymes
  4. Gastric Inhibitory Peptide - produced in response to fat/protein digestases in duodenum; effect = mild decrease of stomach motor activity
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85
Q

What are the 5 hormones involved in hunger?

A
  1. Grehlin - via stomach wall, initiates hunger
  2. Leptin - via adipose tissue, inhibits hunger
  3. Peptite YY - via small intestine, hunger and lack of hunger
  4. Insulin - via pancreas, stores glucose as glycogen in liver
  5. epinephrine - suppresses hunger
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86
Q

Phagocytes of CNS

A

microglia

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87
Q

Label the neuron

A

Neuron - consists of dentrites, an axon, and a cell body

Axon hillock - where the soma (cell body) connects to thte axon; action potentials generated here

Dendrites - receive information and transfer it to the cell body

Axon - transfers impulses away from cell body

Myelin sheath - insulates axon and separations are called nodes of ranvier; involved in saltatory conduction

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88
Q

Produce myelin in the central nervous system

A

oligodendrocytes

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89
Q

Produce myelin in the peripheral nervous system

A

Schwann cells

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90
Q

Describe an action potential

A
  1. Resting potential = -70 mV
  2. Action potential = Na+ channels open, Na+ comes in, if -50 mV reached then an action potential will occur
  3. Repolarization = in response to Na+ flow, K+ flows out of cell, restoring polarization (Na + are now inside, K+ is now out)
  4. Hyperpolarization = by the time channels close, too much K+ is released (~ - 80 mV)
  5. Refractory period - neuron will not respond to a new stimulus
    - Absolute refractory period = Na+ channels inactivated, nothing can cause an action potential
    - Relative refractory period = a large stimulus can create an action potential
    *prevents an action potential from moving backwards
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91
Q

Use cilia to circulate cerebrospinal fluid

A

ependymal cells

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92
Q

groups of cell bodies in the PNS that serve as support cells

A

satellite cells

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93
Q

provide physical support to neurons of the CNS and maintain mineral and nutrient balance

A

astrocytes

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94
Q

What are the three types of neurons?

A
  1. Sensory - receives initial stimulus from brain
  2. Motor - travel from the brain and stimulate target cells (i.e., muscles, sweat glands, etc)
  3. Interneuron - receive impulses from sensory neurons and sends impulses to motor neurons
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95
Q

A neuron that picks up stimuli from the internal or external environment and converts each stimulus into a nerve impulse.

A

Sensory neuron

96
Q

90% of nerves are

A

interneurons

97
Q

How many Na+ and K+ ions are moved via the Na+/K+ pumps when the cell is at rest?

A

3 Na+ out
2 K+ in

98
Q

Neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junction in invertebrates and is the most common CNS neurotransmitter in vertebrates

A

Glutamate

99
Q

What are the steps of transmission across a synapse?

A
  1. Ca2+ gates open, depolarization allows Ca2+ to enter the cell
  2. Synaptic vessel release neurotransmitter
  3. Neurotransmitter binds with postsynaptic receptors
  4. Post synaptic membrane is excited or inhibited
    - Excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP): Na+ gates open and membrane is depolarized; if threshold potential is succeeded, an action potential is generated
    - Inhibitory postsynaptic potential: K+ gates open and membrane is hyperpolarized; it becomes more difficult to generate an action potential
  5. Neurotransmitter is degraded/recycled/diffused away
100
Q

What are the two factors that can affect the rate at which impulses travel?

A
  1. Diameter - greater diameter = faster propogation
  2. Mylenation - saltatory conduction
101
Q

What breaks down acetylcholine?

A

acetylcholinesterase

102
Q

Neurotransmitter secreted at the neuromuscular junction in PNS and cause muscle contraction or relaxation

A

acetylcholine (Ach)

103
Q

Short chains of amino acids and are a diverse group including substance P and endorphins

A

neuropeptides

104
Q

Inhibitory neurotransmitter among brain neurons

A

Gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA)

105
Q

inhibitory neurotransmitter among synapses of the CNS outside the brain

A

Glycine

106
Q

This nerve innervates the lower limbs and pelvis

A

Sciatic nerve

107
Q

Epinephrine

A

adrenaline

108
Q

What are the meninges?

A
  1. Dura mater - thick, protects brain and spinal cord
  2. Arachnoid mater - middle layer with spiderlike appearance
  3. Pia matter - delicate innermost membrane directly surrounding brain and spinal cord
  4. Space between arachnoid and pia mater is filled with cerebral spinal fluid which acts to cushion brain and serve as a shock absorber
109
Q

What are the parts of the forebrain and their functions?

A
  • Cerebral cortex: processes sensory input, important for perception, memory, voluntary movement and learning
  • Olfactory bulb: smell
  • Thalamus: relays sensory information between spinal cord and cerebral cortex
  • Hypothalamus: water balance, blood pressure regulation, temperature regulation, hunger, thirst, sex, circadian rhythms (superchiasmatic nucleus)
  • Basal Ganglia: centres for planning/learning movement sequences
  • Hippocampus: memory consolidation and spatial navigation
110
Q

What is the function of the midbrain?

A

vision and hearing

111
Q

What are the parts of the hindbrain and their functions?

A
  1. Cerebellum: balance, hand-eye coordination, timing of rapid movements and motor skills
  2. Pons: relay center for cortex and cerebellum
  3. Medulla oblongata: regulates breathing, heart rate, and gastrointestinal activity
  4. Brainstem: consists of midbrain, medulla, pons; connects cerebrum with spinal cord and is part of the reticular formation (regulates sleep and arousal)
112
Q

The part of the spinal cord where sensory information enters

A

dorsal horn

113
Q

The part of the spinal cord where motor information exits

A

ventral horn

114
Q

What are the 4 brain lobes?

A

1.frontal:
- attention
- voluntary skeletal movement
- olfactory bulb for smell
- Broca’s area for speech
- prefrontal cortex for decision making and planning

  1. parietal: sensory areas
    - somatosensation: temperature, touch, pressure, pain
    - proprioception: orientation of body parts in space
    - somatosensory cortex: receives and processes sensory information from the entire body
  2. occipital
    - visual input, object recognizition
  3. temporal: processes and interprets sounds
    - Wernicke’s area - understanding speech
    - hippocampus: memory formation
    - auditory cortex: processes auditory information
115
Q

At the base of the cerebrum there is a mass of nuclei responsible for emotion and memory

A

amygdala

116
Q

What are the parts of the nervous system?

A

Somatic - voluntary skeletal muscle movement

Autonomic - involuntary movement of cardiac and smooth muscle
1. sympathetic - “fight or flight” - increases BP, HR, pupil size, inhibits digestion

  1. parasympathetic - “rest and digest” - decreases BP, HR, pupil size, allows digestion
117
Q

What are the 5 types of sensory receptors?

A
  1. Mechanoreceptors - touch
  2. Thermoreceptors - temperature
  3. Nociceptors - pain
  4. Electromagnetic receptors - light
  5. Chemoreceptors - taste, smell, blood chemistry
118
Q

This nerve extends from the medulla oblongata and innervates parts of the heart, lungs, stomach, intestines and liver

A

Vagus nerve

119
Q

Astigmatism

A

irregularly shaped cornea

120
Q

This nerve serves the somatic muscles surrounding the eyes

A

Abducens nerve

121
Q

This nerve serves structures surrounding the eyes and scalp

A

supraorbital nerve

122
Q

What is the path of vision?

A
123
Q

The eye is surrounded by the ____, a connective tissue layer, and beneath is the ___, a vascular layer providing blood and nutrition to the retina

A

sclera
choroid

124
Q

What are the three parts of the retina?

A
  1. Rods - high-intensity light; sensitive to colour
  2. Cones - low-intensity light; important for night vision and do not percieve colour
  3. Fovea - lots of cones for high visual acuity
125
Q

jelly-like liquid between lens and retina that maintains shape

*makes up most of eye volume

A

Virteous humor

126
Q

watery liquid between the lens and cornea to maintain intraocular pressure and provide nutrients to the avascular ocular tissues

A

Aqueous humor

127
Q

Nearsightedness

A

myopia

128
Q

Hyperopia

A

farsightedness

129
Q

bending of joint

A

flexion

130
Q

Cataracts

A

clouding of the lens

131
Q

Glaucoma

A

increase of pressure in the eye due to blocking of outflow of aqueous homor

132
Q

What are the parts of the ear?

A

Outer
- auricle/pinna
- auditory canal

Middle
- tympanic membrane (eardrum)
- malleus
- incus
-stapes

Inner
- cochlea
-semicircular canals

133
Q

Label skeletal muscle

A
  • Myofibrils
  • Sarcomeres
  • Sarcoplasm reticulum: stores Ca2+ and surrounds myofibrils
  • Sarcoplasm - cytoplasm but for muscles
  • Sarcolemma - plasma membrane of muscles
  • Mitochondria
134
Q

Label a sarcomere

A

Z line - boundary of single sarcomere

M line - middle

I band - region containing thin filaments (actin) only

H zone - region containing thick filaments (myosin) only

A band - area where actin and myosin overlap

*H and I reduce during contraction, A does not

135
Q

Striations are a result of

A

alternating thin actin and thick myosin

136
Q

What occurs during muscle contraction?

A
  1. ATP binds to myosin head, and myosin head cocks back
  2. Ca 2+ exposes binding sites on actin
    - binds to troponin, pulls back tropomyosin, exposes attachment sites
  3. Cross bridges between myosin heads and actin filaments form
  4. ADP + Pi are released
    - the sliding motion of actin brings Z lines together (contraction/ power stroke)
  5. New ATP attaches to the myosin head, causing cross bridges to unbind
137
Q

What are the three types of muscle responses?

A
  1. Simple Twitch: single muscle fibre to brief stimulus
    (1) latent period: time between stimulation and onset of contraction; lag
    (2) contraction: sliding filament model
    (3) relaxation (absolute refractory period): time where muscle is unresponsive to a stimulus
  2. Summation and Tetanus
    - summation: contractions combine and become stronger and more prolonged
    - tetanus: continuous sustained contraction where a muscle cannot relax
  3. Tonus: state of partial contraction where the muscle is never completely relaxed
138
Q

What is smooth muscle?

A
  • involuntary
  • one nucleus
  • no striation
  • autonomic nervous system (bladder, digestive tract, blood vessel)
  • slow to contract
  1. single unit - visceral; connected by gap junctions, contract as a single unit
  2. multi unit - each fiber is directly attached to the neuronlcan contract independently.
139
Q

What is cardiac muscle?

A
  • striated
  • 1-2 nuclei
  • involuntary
140
Q

hard protective structure developed outside the body, as the shell of a lobster

A

Exoskeleton

141
Q

internal skeleton or supporting framework in an animal (cartilage and bone)

A

Endoskelton

142
Q

An avascular connective tissue that is soft and flexible, and can be found in the ear, nose, larynx, trachea and joints

A

cartilage

143
Q

membrane that covers cartilage

A

Perichondrium

144
Q

Most abundant protein in vertebrates

A

collagen

145
Q

How is cartilage developed?

A

Starts with mesenchyme tissue –> chondrocytes –> make collagen

146
Q

Basic framework of the skeleton that includes the skull, vertebral column and rib cage

A

axial skeleton

147
Q

bones of appendages, pectoral and pelvic girdles, and additional bones

A

appendicular skeleton

148
Q

Immovable joints that hold together the bones of the skull

A

sutures

149
Q

Bone to bone connectors

A

ligaments

150
Q

muscle to bone connectors

A

tendons

151
Q

point of attachment of muscle to stationary bone

A

origin

152
Q

point of attachment to muscle or bone that moves

A

insertion

153
Q

straightening of joint

A

extension

154
Q

Label compact bone

A
155
Q

an opening in the bone that allows for the passage of nerves

A

foramen

156
Q

cartilage that covers the bone ends of freely moveable joints begins to wear due to aging

A

osteoarthritis

157
Q

a degenerative joint disease caused by an autoimmune response

A

rheumatoid arthritis

158
Q

How do male and female skeletons differ?

A

Pelvic bones lighter and wider in females (child birth)

More defined features on skull (jaw and eyebrows) in males

159
Q

What are the three types of joints?

A
  1. Fibrous - connects bones allowing no movement (ex. skull, pelvis, vertebrae)
  2. Cartilaginous - bones attached by cartilage and allow little movement (ex. spine and ribs)
  3. Synovial - most common type that allows for much movement as it is filled with synovial fluid that acts as a lubricant
160
Q

What are the 4 types of bone cells?

A
  1. Osteoprogenitor/Osteogenic - part of mesenchymal lineage and become osteoblasts
  2. Osteoblasts - “build bone” so bone formation
  3. Osteocytes - exchange nutrients and waste material with blood
  4. Osteclasts - “chew bone” so breakdown bone matrix and release minerals into blood
161
Q

Label spongey bone

A

Label spongey bone

162
Q

Label long bone

A
163
Q

What are the two types of bone formation?

A
  1. Endochondral ossification - cartilage turns into bone
  2. Intramembraneous ossification - connective tissue replaced by bone
164
Q

surrounds bone

A

periosteum

165
Q

Causes bone density to decrease, and the bone becomes easier to break and fracture. Vitamin D can help prevent this.

A

osteoporosis

166
Q

Made up of the skin, hair, nails, glands and some nerve endings

A

integumentary system

167
Q

What are the functions of the skin?

A
  1. Thermoregulation
  2. Protection
  3. Sensory input (sensing temperature, pressure, pain tough)
  4. Excretion
  5. Immunity
  6. Blood reservoir
  7. Vitamind D synthesis
168
Q

What are the layers of the epidermis (from top to bottom)?

A

Come, Let’s Get Sun Burnt!

Stratum Corneum
- 25-30 dead layers
- water repellant

Stratum Lucidum
- only in palms, soles of feat, and finger tips
- 3-5 layers

Stratum Granulosum
- 3-5 layers of dying cells

Stratum Spinous
- contribute to strength and flexibility
- 8-10 layers

Stratum Basale (germinativum)
- deepest layer
- attached to basement membrane

169
Q

What are the 4 cells of the epidermis?

A
  1. Keratinocytes
    - keratin waterproofs skin
  2. Melanocytes
    - transfer skin pigment melanin to keratinocytes
  3. Langerhans cells
    - interact with helper T cells of immune system
  4. Merkel cells
    - attach to sensory neurons and function in touch sensation
170
Q

Most abundant protein in epidermis

A

keratin

171
Q

Second layer of skin which has a papillary region and a reticular region

A

dermis

172
Q

What layer of the skin are tattoos injected into?

A

dermis

173
Q

Consists of areolar and adipose tissue and function in fat store, act as a heart insulator, and serves as a shock absorber

A

hypodermis (subcutaneous)

174
Q

What are the four glands of the skin?

A
  1. Sebaceous glands - secrete sebum (oil) that keeps skin acidic
  2. Sudoriferous (sweat) glands
    - Eccrine (most of body): regulate temperature through perspiration and eliminate urea
    - YOUR WATERY SWEAT

-Apocrine: pubic region, nipples
- YOUR STINKY SWEAT

  1. Ceruminous (wax) glands
    - ear canal
  2. Mammary (milk) glands
    - secrete milk for breast feeding
175
Q

This type of burn affects the epithelial layer

A

first degree

176
Q

This type of burn affects the epithelial and part of the dermal layer

A

second degree

177
Q

This type of burn affects the epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous layers

A

third degree

178
Q

Plasma protein used to transport fatty acids and steroids and help regulate osmotic pressure

  • most abundant
A

Albumins

179
Q

Plasma proteins essential in body defense

A

Immunoglobulins

180
Q

plasma proteins which control bleeding

A

Clotting factors

181
Q

Types of white blood cells

A
182
Q

Interferons

A

interfere with viral replication within cells

183
Q

What is the inflammatory response?

A
  1. Histamine - secreted by mast cells and cause vasodilation
  2. Vasodilation - increases blood supply to the area and increases temperature to kill pathogens
  3. Phagocytes - attracted to injury and engulf pathogens or damaged cells
  4. Complement - helps phagocytes engulf forein cells, stimulate basophils to release histamine, and lyse foreign cells
184
Q

What are B cells?

A

produce antibodies

originate and mature in bone marrow

igG - “Gross” - gross quantiles are produced - most abundant

igA - breAst milk - found in breast milk - most abundant in secretions

igM - mono - first antibodies produced after initial exposure

igE - SneEze - allergy related

igD - diminished - few produced and function unknown

*Plasma cells
* Memory cells

185
Q

What are T-Cells?

A

actively participate in immune response by recognizing non-self cells

originate in bone marrow and mature in thymus

Cytotoxic T - killer T cells that recognize and destroy cells

Helper T - stimulate activate of B cells, cytotoxic T and suppressor T

Suppressor T - plays negative feedback role in immune system

Memory T - similar function to memory B

186
Q

What is cell-mediated immunity?

A
  • uses mostly T cells and responds to non-self cells, including cells invaded by pathogens
  1. produce cytotoxic T and helper T cells
  2. helper t cells bind macrophages which engulf pathogens
  3. helper t cells produce interleukins to stimulate proliferation of T cells, B cells and macrophages
187
Q

What is humoral (antibody mediated) immunity?

A
  • responds to antigens or pathogens that circulate in lymph or blood (bacteria, fungi, parasites, viruses, blood toxins)
  1. macrophage and helper t cells stimulate b cell production
  2. b cells produce plasma cells
  3. b cells produce memory cells
188
Q

Plasma without fibrinogen

A

serum

189
Q

What is the order of white blood cells (leukocytes) from highest to lowest?

A

“Never Let Men Eat Burritos”

Neutrophils, Lymphocytes, Mast Cells, Eosinophils, Basophils

190
Q

Describe the innate immune response

A
191
Q

Occurs when antibodies are transferred from one individual to another (ex. mother to newborn)

A

Passive immunity

192
Q

Chemicals derived from bacteria and fungi that are harmful to other microorganisms

A

Antibiotics

193
Q

What are the three types of vaccines

A
  1. Inactivated - consist of an inactivated pathogen that has been destroyed
  2. Attenuated - contain live pathogens but are disabled in some way to prevent virulence
  3. Toxoid - can be made from inactivated toxic compounds that cause illness rather than pathogen itslef
194
Q

What is the paracrine system?

A

local mediators function in the immediate area round the cell which they were released

  • prostaglandins: locally acting autocrine/paracrine lipid messenger molecule that has physiological effects such as: contraction/relaxation of smooth muscle, platelet aggregation, inflammation, fever, pain sensation
195
Q

Why is aspirin considered an anti-inflammatory and decreases blood clotting?

A

It inhibits prostaglandin synthesis

196
Q

Synthesizes and secretes hormones in the bloodstream

A

Endocrine

197
Q

Secretes enzymes into ducts (i.e., gallbladder)

A

Exocrine

198
Q

Cell signalling where the target is nearby

A

Paracrine

199
Q

Cell signalling via hormone or chemical messenger that binds to receptors on the same cell

A

Autocrine

200
Q

are transported throughout the body in blood, a small amount has a large impact, and compared to the nervous system, the endocrine system is slower, indirect, and longer lasting

A

Hormone

201
Q

Is the pancreas an endocrine or exocrine gland?

A

Both - it releases digestive enzymes via the pancreatic duct and insulin + glucagon in the blood

202
Q

What are the three types of hormones?

A
  1. Peptide
    - synthesized in rough ER, modified in golgi
    - acts on surface receptors via secondary messengers
    -hydrophilic
    - FSH, LH, ACTH, hGH, TSH, prolactin (anterior pituitary)
    - ADH, PTH (posterior pituitary)
    - glucagon, insulin (pancreas)
  2. Steroid
    - synthesized in smooth ER
    - freely diffuse but require a protein transport molecule to dissolve in blood
    - hydrophobic
    - glucocorticoids and mineralcorticoids (cortisol and aldosterone; adrenal cortex)
    - estrogen, progesterone, testosterone (gonads, placenta)
  3. Tyrosine (amino acid) Derivatives
    - formed on enzymes in cytosol or on rough ER
    - thyroid hormones (t3 and t4; thyroxine)
    - catecholamines (epinephrine, norepinephrine)
203
Q

What is a tropic hormone? What is a direct hormone? What are the tropic and non-tropic (direct) hormones?

A

Tropic - Stimulate other endocrine glands
Direct - Directly stimulate target organs

“FLAT PEG”

Tropic “Flat”
Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
Lutenizing Hormone (LH)
Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH)
Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)

Direct “Peg”
Prolactin
Endorphins
Growth Hormone
Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone (MSH)

204
Q

Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH)

A

Source: Hypothalamus
Target: Anterior pituitary
Action: Secrete FSH, LH

205
Q

Growth Hormone (GH) / Somatotropin / hGH

A

Source: Anterior Pituitary
Target: Bone, Muscle
Action: Stimulates Growth

206
Q

Prolactin (PRL)

A

Source: Anterior Pituitary
Target: Mammary Glands
Action: Production of Milk

207
Q

Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone (MSH)

A

Source: Anterior Pituitary
Target: Melanocytes
Action: Release melanin

208
Q

Endorphins

A

Source: Anterior Pituitary
Target: Pain receptors
Action: Pain relief

209
Q

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

A

Source:Anterior Pituitary
Target: Adrenal Cortex
Action: Secretion of glucocorticoids

210
Q

Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)

A

Source: Anterior Pituitary
Target: Thyroid
Action: Secretion of T3 and T4

211
Q

Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)

A

Source: Anterior Pituitary
Target: Ovaries/Testes
Action: Oogenesis/Spermatogenesis

212
Q

Lutenizing Hormone (LH)

A

Source: Anterior Pituitary
Target: Ovaries/Testes
Action: Oogenesis/Spermatogenesis

213
Q

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) / Vasopression

A

Source: Posterior Pituitary
Target: Kidney
Action: Increase reabsorption of water

214
Q

Oxytocin

A

Source: Posterior Pituitary
Target: Mammary Gland
Action: Milk letdown

215
Q

Melatonin

A

Source: Pineal Gland
Target: Body
Action: Circadian rhythms

216
Q

Thyroxine (T4) andTriiodothyronine (T3)

A

Source: Thyroid
Target: General
Action: Increase cellular metabolism

217
Q

Hypothyroidism

A

underactivity of the thyroid gland
- low HR, respiratory rate, and BMR

218
Q

Hyperthyroidism

A

overactivity of the thyroid gland
- high HR, respiratory rate, and BMR

219
Q

Calcitonin

A

Source: Thyroid
Target: Bone
Action: Lower blood Ca2+

220
Q

Results in dwarfism

A

Achondroplasia

221
Q

Premature aging, wrinkled skin, arthritis, and arteriosclerosis

A

Progeria

222
Q

Four pea shaped structures attached to the back of the thyroid

A

parathyroid

223
Q

Parathyroid Hormone (PTH)

A

Source: Parathyroid
Target: Bone
Action: Increase blood Ca2+

224
Q

Glucocorticoids (cortisol)

A

Source: Adrenal Cortex
Target: General
Action: Increases blood glucose

225
Q

Mineralcorticoids (aldosterone)

A

Source: Adrenal Cortex
Target: Kidney
Action: Increases reabsorption of Na+ and excretion of K+

226
Q

Andorgens

A

Source: Adrenal Cortex
Action: Male sex hormones

227
Q

Epinephrine (E) and Norepinephrine (NE)

A

Source: Adrenal Gland
Target: Blood vessels, liver and heart
Action: Increase blood glucose, vasoconstriction (sympathetic)

228
Q

Glucagon

A

Source: Pancreatic Alpha Cells
Target: Liver
Action: Increase blood glucose

229
Q

Insulin

A

Source: Pancreatic Beta Cells
Target: Liver, muscle, fat
Action: Decreases blood glucose

230
Q

Somatostatin

A

Source: Pancreatic Delta Cells
Target: Liver
Action: Inhibits both insulin and glucagon

231
Q

Testosterone

A

Source: Testis
Target: Testes
Action: Spermatogenesis, secondary sex characteristics

232
Q

Estrogen

A

Source: Ovary
Target: Uterus
Action: Menstrual cycle, secondary sex characteristics

233
Q

Progesterone

A

Source: Ovary
Target: Uterus
Action: Menstrual cycle, pregnancy

234
Q

breaks down food in stomach, stimulates secretion of HCl

A

gastrin

235
Q

When acidic food enters the stomach, this hormone is released to stimulate the release of alkaline bicarbonate from the pancreas

A

secretin

236
Q

horomone that induces bile and pancreatic juice stimulation

A

cholecystokinin