Study Questions Chaps. 3-4; 6; 9; 11; 13; 14; 15

Question 1

Which of the following statements best describes the free-market system as it applies to our health-care system?

1. All principles of the free-market system apply to health care in the same way as they apply to all other products.
2. All principles of the free-market system apply to health care in the same way as they apply to all other products except competition, because competition is limited.
3. All principles of the free-market system apply to health care in the same way as they apply to all other products except supply and demand, because supply and demand are totally under government control.
4. All principles of the free-market system apply to health care, but in complex ways that limit consumers’ free choice in various ways.

Answer 1

4. All principles of the free-market system apply to health care, but in complex ways that limit consumers’ free choice in various ways.

Question 2

A state-run program that is jointly funded by states and the federal government for people who have limited income or high medical expenses where eligibility for the limited income cohort is based on the family income and size in relation to the national poverty level would best be called which of the following?

1. Medicare
2. Medicaid
3. Workers’ compensation
4. Sliding scale self-pay

Answer 2

2.Medicaid

Question 3

Based on data on trends in self-pay (i.e., out-of-pocket) as a payment source for complementary medicine, which of the following is most accurate?

1. Most adults are highly unlikely to pay for complementary health care out-of-pocket and utilization is very low when there is no third-party payment.
2. Third-party payment for complementary medicine is essentially nonexistent, so almost 100% of payment for these approaches is out-ofpocket.
3. Complementary health care is an essential benefit of the ACA and therefore self-pay approaches need not be considered.
4. Adults are likely to pay for complementary approaches to health care when they have the resources, and approximately a third of self-pay payments are for complementary health care.

Answer 3

4. Adults are likely to pay for complementary approaches to health care when they have the resources, and approximately a third of self-pay payments are for complementary health care.

Question 4

A legislative act that provides for free and appropriate education for children with disabilities in the least restrictive environment and includes requirements for the states to develop EI programs would best be called the:

1. Patient Protection, Education and Affordable Care Act.
2. Individuals With Disabilities Education Act.
3. Health Insurance Portability, Accountability and Education Act.
4. Rehabilitation Services Education Act.

Answer 4

2. Individuals With Disabilities Education Act.

Question 5

Groups of providers that provide care associated with a defined population of patients across multiple settings while being held responsible for the quality and cost of care delivered to that population would best be called:

1. Patient-centered medical homes.
2. Post-acute care bundles.
3. Home health agencies.
4. Accountable care organizations.

Answer 5

4. Accountable care organizations.

Question 6

Which of the following is most accurate in regard to AOTA official documents such as concept papers, guidelines, or position papers?

1. AOTA official documents represent a consensus opinion of experts, so they should influence practice and action but are not always the “final word” in decision-making.
2. AOTA official documents represent legal opinions published by AOTA on behalf of the profession and must be followed.
3. AOTA official documents are historical only in nature; they reflect past practices and not current recommendations for practice or action.
4. AOTA official documents represent a consensus opinion of experts and are often officially sanctioned and accepted by the federal government.

Answer 6

1. AOTA official documents represent a consensus opinion of experts, so they should influence practice and action but are not always the “final word” in decision-making.

Question 7

Occupational therapy managers often need to access data, information, and other forms of evidence to guide decision-making and the development and implementation of programs. Which of the following is most accurate regarding the process of obtaining and interpreting such evidence in the current environment?

1. Data, information, and other forms of evidence are easily accessible, easy to organize, and easy to interpret due to the abundance of resources available to the modern-day occupational therapy manager.
2. Despite the Internet and online data sources, access to relevant data, information, and other forms of evidence remains elusive; it is often difficult for occupational therapy managers to find the necessary evidence.
3. With the rise of the Internet and the development of many systems for storing and accessing data, information, and other forms of evidence, occupational therapy managers may find an overwhelming amount of evidence and may have to focus on organized and strategic approaches to gathering and interpreting the most appropriate evidence.
4. Not much has changed in the last decade; because it is often impossible to validate the sources of data, information, and other forms of online evidence, occupational therapy managers should stick to formal literature searches using electronic search engines.

Answer 7

3. With the rise of the Internet and the development of many systems for storing and accessing data, information, and other forms of evidence, occupational therapy managers may find an overwhelming amount of evidence and may have to focus on organized and strategic approaches to gathering and interpreting the most appropriate evidence.

Question 8

Which of the following is most accurate in regard to variability in licensure laws in the 50 states, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, and Guam?

1. There is considerable variation in issues such as practicing without a referral, continuing education requirements, and supervision requirements for OTAs.
2. Due to the NBCOT certification examination, all licensure laws are 100% consistent across the 50 states, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, and Guam.
3. There is considerable variation in whether or not occupational therapists can practice without a referral, but all other elements of licensure laws are consistent across the 50 states, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, and Guam.
4. Most elements of licensure laws are consistent across the 50 states, but there is much variation in the territories, including the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, and Guam.

Answer 8

1. There is considerable variation in issues such as practicing without a referral, continuing education requirements, and supervision requirements for OTAs.

Question 9

A shared set of basic assumptions or shared way of doing things that is based upon the underlying values and beliefs of the members of a particular society or of a group might best be called a(n):

1. Organizational vision.
2. Strategic plan.
3. Code of ethics.
4. Organizational culture.

Answer 9

4.Organizational culture.

Question 10

Rebecca works part-time for AOTA as an associate in the Practice Department. When she functions in this paid work role, it is most appropriate to say she is working within a structure most accurately described as a(n):

1. Association.
2. Bureaucracy.
3. Trade bureau.
4. Professional hierarchy.

Answer 10

2.Bureaucracy.

Question 11

A type of system that is capable of self-maintenance within a larger context or environment, and in which the influence of internal and external environments are keenly recognized, is best called a(n):

1. Rational systems organization.
2. Natural systems organization.
3. Open systems organization.
4. Market economy systems organization.

Answer 11

3.Open systems organization.

Question 12

Two types of values related to the means to achieve the ends, as well as the ends a person wishes to achieve, are commonly referred to as:

1. Instrumental values and terminal values.
2. Personal values and cultural values.
3. Organizational values and societal values.
4. Formative values and summative values.

Answer 12

1.Instrumental values and terminal values.

Question 13

An organizational chart is a management tool that:

1. Shows the location of an organization in a larger system such as a city or county.
2. Visually depicts the lines of authority, organization, and reporting in an organization.
3. Defines the sources of revenue and expenses and how these affect the tax status of an organization.
4. Helps leaders determine the impact of an organization’s culture to guide leaders in choosing the most effective leadership styles.

Answer 13

2.Visually depicts the lines of authority, organization, and reporting in an organization.

Question 14

Which of the following is not a commonly cited purpose of organizational structures discussed in Chapter 4?

1. Structures produce outputs to achieve organizational goals.
2. .Structures minimize or regulate the influence of individuals on the organization.
3. Structures are the settings in which power is exercised, decisions are made, and activities are carried out.
4. Structures dictate administrative policies and procedures that guide organizational decisionmaking.

Answer 14

4.Structures dictate administrative policies and procedures that guide organizational decisionmaking.

Question 15

A commonly recognized form of organizing in hospital systems where a managerial hierarchy is duplicated for physicians and nonphysicians would best be called:

1. Dual pyramid.
2. Medical-model.
3. Mirror model.
4. Traditional administrative model.

Answer 15

1.Dual pyramid.

Question 16

The primary characteristic of double-loop (generative) learning would best be described as which of the following?

1. It emphasizes concrete problem-solving and application of solutions in the here and now.
2. It emphasizes continuous experimentation and feedback in an ongoing examination of the very way organizations go about defining and solving problems.
3. It is most applicable for slow-paced environments where there is little change.
4. It focuses on learning from the past and applying that learning to the present.

Answer 16

2.It emphasizes continuous experimentation and feedback in an ongoing examination of the very way organizations go about defining and solving problems.

Question 17

Deciding which staff are most appropriate to work on a specific patient care unit and assigning them work tasks would best be described as which of the following key functions of a manager?

Planning
Controlling
Organizing and staffing
Directing

Answer 17

Organizing and staffing

Question 18

Determining the costs for staff salaries and benefits, equipment, and other operational expenses, as well as the amount of revenue anticipated, would best be described as which of the following functions of a manager?

Planning
Controlling
Organizing and staffing
Directing

Answer 18

Planning

Question 19

A management tool that describes why your department or organization exists and its key functions would best be called a:

Vision statement.
Strategic plan.
Policy and procedure.
Mission statement.

Answer 19

Mission statement.

Question 20

An aspirational description of the future state of an organization that identifies the organization’s primary goals would best be called a:

Vision statement.
Strategic plan.
Policy and procedure.
Mission statement.

Answer 20

Vision statement.

Question 21

Which of the following was described as a function of the manager?

Recruiting and retaining staff

Developing and implementing policies and procedures

Establishing performance standards and measuring, evaluating, and correcting performance

All of the above

Answer 21

All of the above

Question 22

A description of the appropriate ratio of OTs, OTAs, and service extenders or aides needed to provide care that is effective but also cost efficient would best be called a:

Staffing plan.
Skill mix.
Case mix ratio.
Staffing index.

Answer 22

Skill mix.

Question 23

Which of the following is not true of mentoring programs based on the discussion and evidence presented in this chapter?

Both naturally occurring and formally structured mentoring experiences can be beneficial to newer employees.

Mentoring relationships often transition and “end” when goals are met, the mentee has gained skills and experience, and he or she is ready to establish a new relationship with his or her mentor as an equal colleague.

The advantage of mentoring as an approach to staff development is that there is a standard definition of the concept that is widely accepted and utilized.

Orchestrated mentoring relationships are often less intense and often last for a shorter period of time than naturally occurring mentoring relationships.

Answer 23

The advantage of mentoring as an approach to staff development is that there is a standard definition of the concept that is widely accepted and utilized.

Question 24

Which of the following is not one of the identified phases of controlling?

Establishing standards
Negotiating goals
Measuring performance
Correcting deviations

Answer 24

Negotiating goals

Question 25

A statement that sets forth an organization’s or department’s purpose, including definitions, products, and services, is best called a:

Vision statement.
Mission statement.
Purpose statement.
Business statement.

Answer 25

Mission statement.

Question 26

In strategic planning, a SWOT analysis includes all of the following domains of analysis except which of the following?

Strengths
Weaknesses
Operations
Threats

Answer 26

Operations

Question 27

As an alternative to the traditional SWOT analysis, a SOAR analysis includes all except which of the following elements?

Strengths
Opportunities
Aspirations
Research

Answer 27

Research

Question 28

A document that includes a coordinated set of tasks for carrying out the goals delineated in a strategic plan, goes into greater detail specifying specific time frames and deadlines for activities, and assigns activities to specific organizational members to aid accountability would best be called a(n):

Business plan.
Operational plan.
Case statement.
SOAR plan.

Answer 28

Operational plan.

Question 29

Appreciative inquiries include which of the following?

Discovery
Dream
Design
All of the above

Answer 29

All of the above

Question 30

The stage of strategic planning in which you identify your key customers and their expectations; identify other key stakeholders and their expectations; identify your key suppliers, partners, and collaborators; and assess the health of your relationships with all of these persons would best be called:

Planning to plan.

Environmental assessment and monitoring.

Business modeling.

Action planning.

Answer 30

Planning to plan.

Question 31

Which of the following best describes the purpose of the performance audit and gap analysis stage of strategic planning?

It compares current performance against measurable quantitative and qualitative outcome indicators of success related to the departmental or organizational mission.

It identifies the gap between the current and desired indicators of performance.

It substantiates the needed financial resources for budget planning.

Both A and B.

Answer 31

Both A and B.

It compares current performance against measurable quantitative and qualitative outcome indicators of success related to the departmental or organizational mission.
AND
It identifies the gap between the current and desired indicators of performance.

Question 32

The stage of strategic planning that includes deciding exactly what you are going to do to get to where you want to be and to attain the goals and objectives established earlier in the planning process would best be called:

Planning to plan.
Environmental assessment and monitoring.
Business modeling.
Action planning.

Answer 32

Action planning.

Question 33

Basic principles of accounting as identified by Ellexson include which of the following?

Tracking accounts
Managing risk
Monitoring cash flow
All of the above

Answer 33

All of the above

Question 34

Which of the following best defines the term fiscal year ?

A period of time representing one full budget cycle

A period of time representing a federal tax period

A period of time representing a staff recruitment cycle based on graduation dates

A period of time representing a year of performance used to determine staff merit increases (pay increases)

Answer 34

A period of time representing one full budget cycle

Question 35

Which of the following best defines the term net revenue ?

The total revenue charged after multiplying total units provided by charge per unit during a specific period

The total revenue charged minus any expenses such as salary, rent, and equipment purchased

Gross revenue minus any allowances, deductions, and anticipated bad debt that are applied

The revenue that varies according to the volume of work produced

Answer 35

Gross revenue minus any allowances, deductions, and anticipated bad debt that are applied

Question 36

Which of the following best defines the term full-time equivalent (FTE)?

The number of hours paid to a full-time employee during a designated time period, including payment of vacation or other benefit time

The productive hours paid to a full-time employee equivalent to one caseload in a particular setting

The volume of work produced by one FTE who is meeting established productivity expectations

The number of hours used to determine if a full-time employee has reached “exempt” status and must be paid overtime

Answer 36

The number of hours paid to a full-time employee during a designated time period, including payment of vacation or other benefit time

Question 37

The term productivity can best defined as:

Care that is provided that proves to be beneficial to the patient in retrospective reviews.

The number of rehabilitation treatments provided to a patient during a Medicare approved acute hospital stay.

Care that is provided that is medically necessary and deemed as a skilled service.

The number of units of billed care or the percentage of time spent in billable activity during a predetermined period of time.

Answer 37

The number of units of billed care or the percentage of time spent in billable activity during a predetermined period of time.

Question 38

The two concepts that are used to determine if services provided under Medicare in hospital settings are appropriate as billed services are:

The correct ICD code and the correct CPT code.

Medical necessity and the correct CPT code.

Medical necessity and qualifying as skilled service.

Qualifying as skilled service and the correct ICD code.

Answer 38

Medical necessity and qualifying as skilled service.

Question 39

A single piece of equipment that exceeds a predetermined amount (e.g., $5,000) and has a life span of longer than a predetermined period (e.g., 1 year) would best be called which of the following?

Capital improvements
Capital equipment
Capital investments
Capital depreciation

Answer 39

Capital equipment

Question 40

A type of code used by an occupational therapy practitioner to describe the type of services provided by an occupational therapy practitioner, a physical therapy practitioner, a physician, or other health-care provider would best be called a(n):
ICD code.
HCPCS code.
CPT code.
G-code.

Answer 40

G-code.

Question 41

Which of the following represents the four stages teams commonly go through in correct order?

Storming, forming, performing, norming

Forming, storming, norming, performing

Performing, storming, reforming, norming

Forming, norming, storming, performing

Answer 41

Forming, norming, storming, performing

Question 42

Which of the following best describes the PDSA cycle?

It is a systematic, repeatable, and teamwork-based process for solving problems or realizing opportunities for enhanced performance.

It is a set of cautions to be avoided during the cycle of CQI efforts.

It is an acronym for the requirements to determine a valid customer concern.

It represents the four critical tools that must be used in analyzing variation in work processes.

Answer 42

It is a systematic, repeatable, and teamwork-based process for solving problems or realizing opportunities for enhanced performance.

Question 43

Which of the following is true regarding the principles, tools, and approaches that comprise CQI?

They must be implemented organization-wide.

They require the assistance of a consultant to implement effectively.

They may be integrated on a smaller scale within a department or business unit.

They must be led by a quality council.

Answer 43

They may be integrated on a smaller scale within a department or business unit.

Question 44

Which of the following is true regarding quality goals according to Juran?

Quality goals should be based on organizational priorities.

Quality goals are set based on customer needs.

Quality goals are designed to reduce variation.

Quality goals are developed using the PDSA cycle.

Answer 44

Quality goals are set based on customer needs.

Question 45

When selecting a CQI project, a leader should consider:

The alignment of the initiative to the organization’s mission and vision.

Whether the project relates to a regulatory requirement or government mandate.

The priorities of the department.

All of the above.

Answer 45

All of the above.

Question 46

Which of the following best describes the purpose of a fishbone diagram?

It is a method used to assist with identification and documentation of causes to the problem (effect) being studied.

It is a method used to assist with variance analysis.

It is a method used to order the causes of a problem from most relevant to least relevant.

It is a method to help identify the most appropriate members for participation in a CQI team.

Answer 46

It is a method used to assist with identification and documentation of causes to the problem (effect) being studied.

Question 47

Which of the following best describes the purpose of a process flow diagram?

It demonstrates the flow of revenue within an efficient and high-performing organization.

It is a graphic representation of recommended decision-making processes in the PDSA cycle.

It is a graphic representation of the steps and decision points in any process.

It demonstrates the flow of expenses within an efficient and high-performing organization.

Answer 47

It is a graphic representation of the steps and decision points in any process.

Question 48

Which of the following best describes the Pareto principle?

It is the concept stating that most of the cause of any problem is because of special cause variation.

It is the concept stating that 80% of the problem is caused by 20% of the contributing root causes.

It is the concept stating that most aspects of any problem can be solved by a single solution.

It is the concept stating that 80% of the gain in process efficiency is created by 20% of those contributing to the solution.

Answer 48

It is the concept stating that 80% of the problem is caused by 20% of the contributing root causes.

Question 49

Your manager has asked you to complete a SWOT analysis. Which of the following components of the marketing process addresses the SWOT analysis?

Organizational assessment
Environmental assessment
Market analysis
Marketing communications

Answer 49

Organizational assessment

Question 50

Which component of the marketing process best helps you to identify the needs of your external customers?

Organizational assessment
Environmental assessment
Market analysis
Marketing communications

Answer 50

Environmental assessment

Question 51

Which common form of promotional media may be perceived as an interruption by customers?

Direct mailings
Face-to-face meetings
Seminars
TV ads

Answer 51

Face-to-face meetings

Question 52

Which of the following sources of data is best categorized as a primary data source?

Government census reports
Economic statistics
Surveys
AOTA tip sheets

Answer 52

Surveys

Question 53

Tangible information readily available to your customers may best be called:

Tangible evidence.
Price.
Promotion.
SWOT data.

Answer 53

Tangible evidence.

Question 54

From a marketing perspective, the time required to take advantage of your product or service, the psychological and emotional toll of taking advantage of your product or service, and the physical pain that may be experienced when taking advantage of your product or service would best be categorized as which of the following?

Price
Product weaknesses
Disadvantages
Service dissatisfiers

Answer 54

Price

Question 55

From a marketing perspective, nurses, payers, patients, doctors, and outside referral sources may all best be categorized as which of the following?

Health-care consumers
Internal audiences
Customers
External audiences

Answer 55

Customers

Question 56

Target populations include which of the following?

Customers
Clients
Third-party payers
All of the above

Answer 56

All of the above

Question 57

A term used to describe the organization of knowledge that generates theory and the methods that are used by therapists in their everyday work to apply that theory, such as assessments and intervention strategies, is best called which of the following?

Frame of reference
Paradigm
Conceptual practice model
Occupational therapy practice theory

Answer 57

Conceptual practice model

Question 58

Knowledge that specifically addresses the identity and perspective of the occupational therapy profession is best called which of the following?

Sensory integrative frame of reference

Occupational therapy paradigm

MOHO conceptual practice model

Occupational therapy practice theory

Answer 58

Occupational therapy paradigm

Question 59

A model or theory that helps you to understand where different prevention and health behavior interventions may occur is best called which of the following?

Health Belief Model

Social Cognitive Theory

Transtheoretical Stages of Change Theory

Ecological Model of Health Promotion

Answer 59

Ecological Model of Health Promotion

Question 60

A model or theory that helps you understand how you can affect health behaviors by influencing four sets of beliefs is best called which of the following?

Health Belief Model

Social Cognitive Theory

Transtheoretical Stages of Change Theory

Ecological Model of Health Promotion

Answer 60

Social Cognitive Theory

Question 61

A model or theory that holds that behavior is determined by expectancies and incentives is best called which of the following?

Health Belief Model

Social Cognitive Theory

Transtheoretical Stages of Change Theory

Ecological Model of Health Promotion

Answer 61

Social Cognitive Theory

Question 62

A health-related concept that helps to indicate how change proceeds, designates the conditions under which an intervention achieves beneficial results, and suggests why change may occur for certain groups of consumers and not for others is best called which of the following?

Mechanism of action
Health change indicator
Predictive factor
Performance accomplishment measure

Answer 62

Mechanism of action

Question 63

Which of the following best describes the relationship between theory and a program development model?

1. To be most effective and evidence-based, you should choose to use either an appropriate theory or a program development model.
2. Most theories include a program development model, so a program development model is part of a theory.
3. They are used in combination to guide decisionmaking about where, how, and when to intervene given a chosen problem or target population.
4. Most program development models include a theory, so a theory is part of a program development model.

Answer 63

3.They are used in combination to guide decisionmaking about where, how, and when to intervene given a chosen problem or target population.

Question 64

Steps in the process of developing an evidence-based occupational therapy program include which of the following?

Program planning
Needs assessment
Evaluation of outcomes
All of the above

Answer 64

All of the above