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Private Pilot Ground > SU 6 Holding and Instrument Approaches > Flashcards

SU 6 Holding and Instrument Approaches Flashcards

1
Q

What conditions are necessary before ATC can authorize a visual approach?

A

You must have the airport in sight or a preceding aircraft to be followed, and be able to proceed to the aircraft in VFR conditions

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2
Q

What are the main differences between a visual approach and a contact approach?

A

The pilot must request a contact approach; the pilot may be assigned a visual approach and higher weather minimums must exist

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3
Q

A contact approach is an approach procedure that may be used

A

in lieu of conducting a SIAP

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4
Q

You arrive at your destination airport on an IFR flight plan. Which is a prerequisite condition for the performance of a contact approach?

A

Clear of clouds and at least 1 SM flight visibility

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5
Q

Flying clear of clouds on an instrument flight plan, what are the requirements for a contact approach to an airport that has an approved IAP?

A

The pilot must request the approach, have at least 1 mile visibility, and be reasonably sure of remaining clear of clouds

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6
Q

When is radar service terminated during a visual approach?

A

Automatically when ATC instructs the pilot to contact the tower

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7
Q

When may you obtain a contact approach?

A

ATC will assign a contact approach only upon request if the reported visibility is at least

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8
Q

What are the main differences between the SDF and the localizer of an ILS?

A

The SDF course may not be aligned with the runway and the course may be wider

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9
Q

How wide is an SDF course?

A

Either 6 degrees or 12 degrees

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10
Q

A precision Runway Monitor (PRM) approach requires

A

simultaneously monitoring two frequencies

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11
Q

Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM) is

A

a RADAR system for monitoring approaches to closely spaced parallel runways

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12
Q

If the RVR equipment is inoperative for an IAP that requires a visibility of 2,400 RVR, how should the pilot expect the visibility requirement to be reported in lieu of the published RVR?

A

As a ground visibility of 1/2 SM

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13
Q

If the RVR is not reported, what meteorological value should you substitute for 2400 RVR?

A

A ground visibility of 1/2 SM

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14
Q

(Refer to Figure 178 on page 233 and Legend 21 below.) You have been cleared for the Straight-in Localizer approach for runway 13L at DAL. Prior to reaching the final approach fix. ATC advises you the RVR is not available and that the visibility is 1/2SM You may

A

convert the RVR to statue miles and continue the approach

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15
Q

What does the Runway Visual Range (RVR) value, depicted on certain straight-in IAP Charts, represent?

A

The horizontal distance a pilot should see when looking down the runway from a moving aircraft

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16
Q

The RVR minimums for takeoff or landing are published in an IAP, but RVR is inoperative and cannot be reported for the runway at the time. Which of the following would apply?

A

RVR minimums which are specified in the procedure should be converted and applied as ground visibility

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17
Q

RVR minimums for landing are prescribed in an IAP, but RVR is inoperative and cannot be reported for the intended runway at the time. Which of the following would be an operational consideration

A

RVR minimums which are specified in the procedures should be converted and applied as ground visibility

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18
Q

(Refer to Figure 187 on page 235.) When conducting a missed approach from the RNAV (GPS) X RWY 28L approach at PDX, what is the minimum safe altitude (MSA while maneuvering?

A

5,800 feet MSL

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19
Q

(refer to Figure 233 below.) The missed approach point for the DUC RNAV (GPS) RWY 17 (LNAV/VNAV) procedure is

A

1,903 MSL

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20
Q

(Refer to Figure 249 below.) At what point would a pilot execute the missed approach for the LNAV approach at LBF?

A

RW 30 waypoint for the LNAV

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21
Q

If an early missed approach is initiated before reaching the MAP, the following procedure should be used unless otherwise cleared by ATC

A

Proceed to the missed approach point at or above the MDA or DH before executing a turning maneuver

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22
Q

If the pilot loses visual reference while circling to land from an instrument approach and ATC radar service is not available, the missed approach action should be to

A

make a climbing turn toward the landing runway and continue the turn until established on the missed approach course

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23
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding parallel ILS approaches

A

Parallel ILS approaches provide aircraft minimum of 1 1/2 miles radar separation between successive aircraft on the adjacent localizer course

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24
Q

If an ILS components are operating and the required visual references are not established, the missed approach should be initiated upon

A

arrival at the DH on the glide slope

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25
Q

If during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the approach lights are not visible upon arrival at the DH, the pilot is

A

required to immediately execute the missed approach procedure

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26
Q

How does pilot determine if DME is available on an ILS/LOC

A

IAP indicate DME/TACAN channel in LOC frequency box

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27
Q

(Refer to Figure 61 below.) Determine your position relative to the glide slop and localizer course

A

Above the glide slope and right of the localizer course

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28
Q

(Refer to Figure 140 below, and Figure 139 on page 241.) Which displacement from the localizer and glideslope at the 1.9 NM is indicated?

A

710 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 140 feet above the glideslope

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29
Q

(Refer to figure 139 on page 241 and figure 141 on page 241.) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glideslope at the 1,300-foot point from the runway is indicated?

A

21 feet above the glideslope and approximately 320 feet to the left of the runway centerline

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30
Q

(Refer to figure 139 on page 241 and figure 141 on page 241.) Which displacement from the localizer and glideslope at the outer marker is indicated?

A

1,550 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 210 feet below the glideslope

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31
Q

(Refer to Figures 140, 141, and 142 below.) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glideslope indicates you are high and to the left of ILS course?

A

Figure 141

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32
Q

(Refer to Figures 140, 141, and 142 below.) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope indicates you are low and to the left of the ILS course?

A

Figure 142

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33
Q

(Refer to Figures 140, 141, and 142 below.) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glideslope indicates you are high and to the fight of the ILS course?

A

Figure 140

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34
Q

Which pilot action is appropriate if more than one component of an ILS is unusable

A

Use the highest minimum required by any single component that is unusable

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35
Q

Which substitution is appropriate during an ILS approach?

A

LOC minimums should be substituted for ILS minimums whenever the glide slope becomes inoperative

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36
Q

A pilot is making an ILS approach and is past the OM to a runway which has a VASI. What action is appropriate if an electronic glide slope malfunction occurs and the pilot has the VASI in sight?

A

The pilot may continue the approach and use the VASI glide slope in place of the electronic glide slope

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37
Q

Immediately after passing the final approach in IFR conditions, the glide slope warning flag appears. The pilot is

A

permitted to continue the approach and descend to the localizer MDA

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38
Q

When installed with the ILS and specified in the approach procedures, DME may be used

A

in lieu of the OM

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39
Q

When passing through an abrupt wind shear which involves a shift from a tailwind to a headwind, what power management would normally be required to maintain a constant indicated airspeed and ILS glide slope?

A

Lower than normal power initially, followed by a further decrease as the wind shear is encountered, then an increase

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40
Q

The rate of descent on the glide slope depends on

A

ground speed

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41
Q

The rate of descent required to stay on the ILS glide slope

A

must be decreased if the ground speed is decreased

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42
Q

During a precision radar or ILS approach, the rate of descent required to remain on the glide slope will

A

increase as the groundspeed increases

43
Q

(refer to figure 250 on page 245.) For a stabilized approach, the aircraft must be in an approved configuration for landing

A

with the correct speed and on glide path before descending below 1,268 feet MSL

44
Q

When tracking in bound on the localizer, which of the following is the proper procedure regarding drift corrections?

A

Drift corrections should be accurately established before reaching the outer marker and completion of the approach should be accomplished with heading corrections no greater than 2 degrees

45
Q

What effect will a change in wind direction have upon maintaining a 3 degrees glide slope at a constant true airspeed

A

When ground speed increases, rate of descent must increase

46
Q

While being vectored, if crossing the ILS final approach course becomes imminent and an approach clearance has not been issued, what action should be taken by the pilot?

A

Maintain the last assigned heading and query ATC

47
Q

Thrust is managed to maintain IAS, and glide slope being flown. What characteristics should be observed when a headwind shears to be a constant tailwind?

A

PITCH ATTITUDE: decreases; REQUIRED THRUST: Increases; IAS: Decreases, then increases to approach speed

48
Q

The glide slope and localizer are centered, but the airspeed is too fast. Which should be adjusted initially?

A

Power only

49
Q

While flying a 3 degree glide slope, a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind. Which conditions should the pilot expect?

A

Airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go above glide slope

50
Q

While flying a 3 degree glide slope, a headwind shears to a tailwind. Which conditions should the pilot expect on the glide slope

A

Airspeed and pitch attitude decrease and there is a tendency to go above glide slope

51
Q

When cleared to execute a published sidestep maneuver for a specific approach and landing on the parallel runway, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?

A

As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight

52
Q

Assume this clearance is received
“CLEARED FOR ILS RUNWAY 07 LEFT APPROACH, SIDE-STEP TO RUNWAY 07 RIGHT.”
When would the pilot be expected to commence the side-step maneuver

A

As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight

53
Q

(refer to Figure 112 below.) You arrive at the 15 DME fix on a heading of 350 degrees. Which holding pattern correctly complies with the ATC clearance below, and what is the recommended entry procedure?
HOLD WEST OF THE ONE FIVE DME FIX ON THE ZERO NINE ZERO RADIAL OF THE ABC VORTAC, FIVE MILE LEGS, LEFT TURNS

A

1; direct entry

54
Q

(Refer to Figure 113 on page 249.) You receive this ATC clearance
CLEARANCE TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD WEST ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL

A

Direct only

55
Q

(Refer to Figure 113 below) You receive this ATC clearance
HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS
What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

A

Parallel only

56
Q

(Refer to Figure 113 below) You receive this ATC clearance:
CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL
What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

A

Direct only

57
Q

(Refer to Figure 113 below.) You receive this ATC clearance:
CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTCAC. HOLD NORTH ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS…
What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern

A

Teardrop only

58
Q

(Refer to Figure 114 below.) A pilot receives this ATC clearance:
CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD WEST ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL
What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

A

Direct only

59
Q

(Refer to Figure 114 above.) A pilot receives this ATC clearance:
CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTAC. HOLD NORTH ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS
What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

A

Direct only

60
Q

(Refer to Figure 114 above.) A pilot receives this ATC clearance:
CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL
What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

A

Teardrop only

61
Q

(refer to Figure 115 below.) You receive this ATC clearance:
HOLD WEST OF THE ONE FIVE DME FIX ON THE ZERO NINE ZERO RADIAL OF ABC VORTAC, FIVE MILE LEGS, LEFT TURNS..
You arrive at the 15 DME fix on a heading of 350 degrees. Which holding pattern correctly complies with these instructions, and what is the recommended entry procedure?

A

1; direct

62
Q

To ensure proper airspace protection while in a holding pattern above 14,000 feet in a propeller-driven airplane, what is the maximum indicated airspeed a pilot should use?

A

265 knots

63
Q

To ensure proper airspace protection while in a holding pattern, what is the maximum airspeed above 14,000 feet for civil turbojet aircraft?

A

265 knots

64
Q

(Refer to Figure 160 on page 253 and Legend 27 below.) What is the approximate rate of descent required (for planning purposes) to maintain the electronic glide slope at 105 knots ground speed?

A

557 feet per minute

65
Q

(Refer to Figure 247 on page 255 and Legend 27 below.) With a 15 knot headwind while flying the ILS RWY 9 at RAL with 90 knots, you expect to set power for a

A

398 feet per minute rate of descent

66
Q

(refer to Figure 116 below.) You arrive over the 15 DME fix on a heading of 350 degrees. Which holding pattern correctly complies with the ATC clearance below, and what is the recommended entry procedure?
HOLD WEST OF THE ONE FIVE DME FIX ON THE TWO SIX EIGHT RADIAL OF THE ABC VORTAC, FIVE MILE LEGS, LEFT TURNS

A

2; Direct entry

67
Q

(refer to figure 232 on page 257.) During the LOC RWY 35 missed approach at Duncan/Haliburton Field (DUC), what would be the appropriate entry for the holding

A

parallel

68
Q

(Refer to Figure 223 on page 259 and Legend 27 below.) You have been cleared for the ILS RWY 31 approach to DSM. At a ground speed of 90 knots, what is the rate of descent on final approach?

A

478 feet per minute

69
Q

At that point should the timing begin for the first leg outbound in a nonstandard holding pattern?

A

When over or abeam the holding fix, whichever occurs later

70
Q

What timing procedure should be used when performing a holding pattern at a VOR?

A

Timing for the outbound leg begins over or abeam the VOR, whichever occurs later

71
Q

To ensure proper airspace protection while holding at 5,000 feet in a civil aircraft, what is the maximum indicated airspeed a pilot should use?

A

200 knots

72
Q

Where a holding pattern is specified in lieu of a procedure turn, the holding maneuver must be executed within

A

the 1-minute tine limitation or DME distance as specified in the profile view

73
Q

When more than one circuit of the holding pattern is needed to lose altitude or become better established on course, the additional circuits can be made

A

only if pilot advises ATC and ATC approves

74
Q

How can an initial approach fix be identified on standard instrument approach procedure (SIAP) Chart?

A

All fixes that are labeled “IAF” which are depicted on the plan view

75
Q

Which fixes on the IAP charts are initial approach fixes?

A

Any fix that is identified by the letters IAF

76
Q

Aircraft approach categories are based on

A

1.3 times the stall speed in landing configuration at maximum gross landing weight

77
Q

How can the pilot determine, for an ILS runway equipped with MALSR, THAT THERE MAY BE A PENETRATION OF THE obstacle identification surfaces (OIS), and care should be taken in the visual segment to avoid any obstacles?

A

The published visibility for the ILS is now lowe than 3/4 SM

78
Q

(Refer to Figure 187 below.) When the MALSR are NOTAM’d out of service, what are the minimums for a category B airplane LPV approach?

A

4500 RVR

79
Q

(Refer to Figure 196 below.) What is the elevation of the TDZE for RWY 4?

A

44 feet MSL

80
Q

(Refer to Figure 210 below.) What is the TDZE elevation for RWY 6?

A

173 feet MSL

81
Q

(Refer to Figure 213 below.) The threshold elevation for landing on RWY 28R is

A

3,488 feet MSL

82
Q

(Refer to Figure 217 on page 267.) During the ILS RWY 13 procedure at DSM, what altitude minimum applies if the glide slope becomes inoperative?

A

1,380 feet

83
Q

(Refer to Figure 217 on page 267.) The symbol on the plan view of the ILS or LOC RWY 13 procedure at DSM represents a minimum safe sector altitude within 25NM of

A

Des Moines VORTAC

84
Q

(Refer to Figure 217 on page 267.) During the ILS RWY 13 procedure at DSM, the minimum altitude for glide slope interception is

A

2,600 feet MSL

85
Q

(Refer to Figure 217 on page 267.) During the approach to DSM before you can begin the ILS RWY 13 procedure, the glide slope fails and you are clreaed for the LOC RWY 13 at DSM. What altitude minimum applies?

A

1,380 feet

86
Q

The primary reason single pilot operations in reduced visibility on an instrument approach procedure are made more difficult than multicrew operations is that the pilot must

A

continue to fly by instruments while attempting to acquire a visual references for the runway

87
Q

(Refer to Figure 221 on page 269.) The finals approach fix for the precision approach is located at

A

Glide slope intercept (lighting bolt.)

88
Q

Refer to figure 221 on page 269.) The final approach fix for the ILS RWY is located at

A

Glide slope intercept (lightning bolt)

89
Q

(Refer to Figure 227 on page 271.) Refer to the APA (Centennial) ILS RWY 35R procedure. The PFAF (Precision Final approach fix) Intercept altitude is

A

8,000 feet MSL

90
Q

(Refer to Figure 227 on page 271.) You are executing the Centennial Airport (APA) ILS RWY 35R approach. What is your crossing altitude at the outer marker?

A

7,977 feet MSL

91
Q

(Refer to Figure 227 on page 271.) What is the minimum safe altitude (MSA) when maneuvering northeast of APA?

A

8,100 feet

92
Q

(Refer to Figure 227 on page 271.) The ILS RWY 35R procedure at APA depicts a symbol on the plan view that represent a minimum safe altitude sector within 25NM of

A

CASSE NDB/LOM

93
Q

When making an instrument approach at the selected alternate airport, what landing minimums apply?

A

The landing minimums published for the type of procedure selected.

94
Q

What obstacle clearance and navigation signal coverage is a pilot assured with the Minimum Sector Altitudes depicted on the IAP charts?

A

1,000 feet within a 25 NM radius of navigation facility but not acceptable navigation signal coverage

95
Q

When being radar vectored for an ILS approach, at what point my you start a descent from your last assigned altitude to a lower minimum altitude if cleared for the approach?

A

When established on a segment of a published route or IAP

96
Q

Refer to Figure 228 on Pgae 273.) The missed approach point for the LOC RWY 31 procedure is

A

2:33 from PECAT

97
Q

Which procedure should be followed by a pilot who is circling to land in a Category B airplane, but is maintaining a speed 5 knots faster than the maximum specified for that category?

A

Use the approach minimums appropriate for Category C

98
Q

When simultaneous approaches are in progress how does each pilot receive radar advisories?

A

On tower frequency

99
Q

When may a pilot make a straight-in landing, if using an IAP having only circling minimums?

A

A straight-in landing may be made if the pilot has the runway in sight in sufficient time to make a normal approach for landing, and has been cleared to land

100
Q

An airport may not be qualified for alternate use if

A

the NAV/AIDS used for the final approach are unmonitored

101
Q

(Refer to Figure 230 on page 275.) What minimum navigation equipment is required to complete the VOR/DME-A procedure?

A

One VOR receiver and DME

102
Q

(Refer to Figure 230 on page 275.) The minimum safe altitude (MSA) for the VOR/DME or GPS-A at 7D3 is geographically centered on what position?

A

White cloud VOR/DME

103
Q

(Refer to Figure 230 below, and Figure 231 on page 277.) You plan to fly to Baldwin for Christmas. What minimum equipment is required for the VOR/DME or GPS-A procedure, and can you complete the flight?

A

One VOR receiver and one DME receiver; no flight though, the airport is closed

Private Pilot Ground (12 decks)

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