SU 6 Holding and Instrument Approaches

Question 1

What conditions are necessary before ATC can authorize a visual approach?

Answer 1

You must have the airport in sight or a preceding aircraft to be followed, and be able to proceed to the aircraft in VFR conditions

Question 2

What are the main differences between a visual approach and a contact approach?

Answer 2

The pilot must request a contact approach; the pilot may be assigned a visual approach and higher weather minimums must exist

Question 3

A contact approach is an approach procedure that may be used

Answer 3

in lieu of conducting a SIAP

Question 4

You arrive at your destination airport on an IFR flight plan. Which is a prerequisite condition for the performance of a contact approach?

Answer 4

Clear of clouds and at least 1 SM flight visibility

Question 5

Flying clear of clouds on an instrument flight plan, what are the requirements for a contact approach to an airport that has an approved IAP?

Answer 5

The pilot must request the approach, have at least 1 mile visibility, and be reasonably sure of remaining clear of clouds

Question 6

When is radar service terminated during a visual approach?

Answer 6

Automatically when ATC instructs the pilot to contact the tower

Question 7

When may you obtain a contact approach?

Answer 7

ATC will assign a contact approach only upon request if the reported visibility is at least

Question 8

What are the main differences between the SDF and the localizer of an ILS?

Answer 8

The SDF course may not be aligned with the runway and the course may be wider

Question 9

How wide is an SDF course?

Answer 9

Either 6 degrees or 12 degrees

Question 10

A precision Runway Monitor (PRM) approach requires

Answer 10

simultaneously monitoring two frequencies

Question 11

Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM) is

Answer 11

a RADAR system for monitoring approaches to closely spaced parallel runways

Question 12

If the RVR equipment is inoperative for an IAP that requires a visibility of 2,400 RVR, how should the pilot expect the visibility requirement to be reported in lieu of the published RVR?

Answer 12

As a ground visibility of 1/2 SM

Question 13

If the RVR is not reported, what meteorological value should you substitute for 2400 RVR?

Answer 13

A ground visibility of 1/2 SM

Question 14

(Refer to Figure 178 on page 233 and Legend 21 below.) You have been cleared for the Straight-in Localizer approach for runway 13L at DAL. Prior to reaching the final approach fix. ATC advises you the RVR is not available and that the visibility is 1/2SM You may

Answer 14

convert the RVR to statue miles and continue the approach

Question 15

What does the Runway Visual Range (RVR) value, depicted on certain straight-in IAP Charts, represent?

Answer 15

The horizontal distance a pilot should see when looking down the runway from a moving aircraft

Question 16

The RVR minimums for takeoff or landing are published in an IAP, but RVR is inoperative and cannot be reported for the runway at the time. Which of the following would apply?

Answer 16

RVR minimums which are specified in the procedure should be converted and applied as ground visibility

Question 17

RVR minimums for landing are prescribed in an IAP, but RVR is inoperative and cannot be reported for the intended runway at the time. Which of the following would be an operational consideration

Answer 17

RVR minimums which are specified in the procedures should be converted and applied as ground visibility

Question 18

(Refer to Figure 187 on page 235.) When conducting a missed approach from the RNAV (GPS) X RWY 28L approach at PDX, what is the minimum safe altitude (MSA while maneuvering?

Answer 18

5,800 feet MSL

Question 19

(refer to Figure 233 below.) The missed approach point for the DUC RNAV (GPS) RWY 17 (LNAV/VNAV) procedure is

Answer 19

1,903 MSL

Question 20

(Refer to Figure 249 below.) At what point would a pilot execute the missed approach for the LNAV approach at LBF?

Answer 20

RW 30 waypoint for the LNAV

Question 21

If an early missed approach is initiated before reaching the MAP, the following procedure should be used unless otherwise cleared by ATC

Answer 21

Proceed to the missed approach point at or above the MDA or DH before executing a turning maneuver

Question 22

If the pilot loses visual reference while circling to land from an instrument approach and ATC radar service is not available, the missed approach action should be to

Answer 22

make a climbing turn toward the landing runway and continue the turn until established on the missed approach course

Question 23

Which of the following statements is true regarding parallel ILS approaches

Answer 23

Parallel ILS approaches provide aircraft minimum of 1 1/2 miles radar separation between successive aircraft on the adjacent localizer course

Question 24

If an ILS components are operating and the required visual references are not established, the missed approach should be initiated upon

Answer 24

arrival at the DH on the glide slope

Question 25

If during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the approach lights are not visible upon arrival at the DH, the pilot is

Answer 25

required to immediately execute the missed approach procedure

Question 26

How does pilot determine if DME is available on an ILS/LOC

Answer 26

IAP indicate DME/TACAN channel in LOC frequency box

Question 27

(Refer to Figure 61 below.) Determine your position relative to the glide slop and localizer course

Answer 27

Above the glide slope and right of the localizer course

Question 28

(Refer to Figure 140 below, and Figure 139 on page 241.) Which displacement from the localizer and glideslope at the 1.9 NM is indicated?

Answer 28

710 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 140 feet above the glideslope

Question 29

(Refer to figure 139 on page 241 and figure 141 on page 241.) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glideslope at the 1,300-foot point from the runway is indicated?

Answer 29

21 feet above the glideslope and approximately 320 feet to the left of the runway centerline

Question 30

(Refer to figure 139 on page 241 and figure 141 on page 241.) Which displacement from the localizer and glideslope at the outer marker is indicated?

Answer 30

1,550 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 210 feet below the glideslope

Question 31

(Refer to Figures 140, 141, and 142 below.) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glideslope indicates you are high and to the left of ILS course?

Answer 31

Figure 141

Question 32

(Refer to Figures 140, 141, and 142 below.) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope indicates you are low and to the left of the ILS course?

Answer 32

Figure 142

Question 33

(Refer to Figures 140, 141, and 142 below.) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glideslope indicates you are high and to the fight of the ILS course?

Answer 33

Figure 140

Question 34

Which pilot action is appropriate if more than one component of an ILS is unusable

Answer 34

Use the highest minimum required by any single component that is unusable

Question 35

Which substitution is appropriate during an ILS approach?

Answer 35

LOC minimums should be substituted for ILS minimums whenever the glide slope becomes inoperative

Question 36

A pilot is making an ILS approach and is past the OM to a runway which has a VASI. What action is appropriate if an electronic glide slope malfunction occurs and the pilot has the VASI in sight?

Answer 36

The pilot may continue the approach and use the VASI glide slope in place of the electronic glide slope

Question 37

Immediately after passing the final approach in IFR conditions, the glide slope warning flag appears. The pilot is

Answer 37

permitted to continue the approach and descend to the localizer MDA

Question 38

When installed with the ILS and specified in the approach procedures, DME may be used

Answer 38

in lieu of the OM

Question 39

When passing through an abrupt wind shear which involves a shift from a tailwind to a headwind, what power management would normally be required to maintain a constant indicated airspeed and ILS glide slope?

Answer 39

Lower than normal power initially, followed by a further decrease as the wind shear is encountered, then an increase

Question 40

The rate of descent on the glide slope depends on

Answer 40

ground speed

Question 41

The rate of descent required to stay on the ILS glide slope

Answer 41

must be decreased if the ground speed is decreased

Question 42

During a precision radar or ILS approach, the rate of descent required to remain on the glide slope will

Answer 42

increase as the groundspeed increases

Question 43

(refer to figure 250 on page 245.) For a stabilized approach, the aircraft must be in an approved configuration for landing

Answer 43

with the correct speed and on glide path before descending below 1,268 feet MSL

Question 44

When tracking in bound on the localizer, which of the following is the proper procedure regarding drift corrections?

Answer 44

Drift corrections should be accurately established before reaching the outer marker and completion of the approach should be accomplished with heading corrections no greater than 2 degrees

Question 45

What effect will a change in wind direction have upon maintaining a 3 degrees glide slope at a constant true airspeed

Answer 45

When ground speed increases, rate of descent must increase

Question 46

While being vectored, if crossing the ILS final approach course becomes imminent and an approach clearance has not been issued, what action should be taken by the pilot?

Answer 46

Maintain the last assigned heading and query ATC

Question 47

Thrust is managed to maintain IAS, and glide slope being flown. What characteristics should be observed when a headwind shears to be a constant tailwind?

Answer 47

PITCH ATTITUDE: decreases; REQUIRED THRUST: Increases; IAS: Decreases, then increases to approach speed

Question 48

The glide slope and localizer are centered, but the airspeed is too fast. Which should be adjusted initially?

Answer 48

Power only

Question 49

While flying a 3 degree glide slope, a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind. Which conditions should the pilot expect?

Answer 49

Airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go above glide slope

Question 50

While flying a 3 degree glide slope, a headwind shears to a tailwind. Which conditions should the pilot expect on the glide slope

Answer 50

Airspeed and pitch attitude decrease and there is a tendency to go above glide slope

Question 51

When cleared to execute a published sidestep maneuver for a specific approach and landing on the parallel runway, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?

Answer 51

As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight

Question 52

Assume this clearance is received "CLEARED FOR ILS RUNWAY 07 LEFT APPROACH, SIDE-STEP TO RUNWAY 07 RIGHT." When would the pilot be expected to commence the side-step maneuver

Answer 52

As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight

Question 53

(refer to Figure 112 below.) You arrive at the 15 DME fix on a heading of 350 degrees. Which holding pattern correctly complies with the ATC clearance below, and what is the recommended entry procedure? HOLD WEST OF THE ONE FIVE DME FIX ON THE ZERO NINE ZERO RADIAL OF THE ABC VORTAC, FIVE MILE LEGS, LEFT TURNS

Answer 53

1; direct entry

Question 54

(Refer to Figure 113 on page 249.) You receive this ATC clearance CLEARANCE TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD WEST ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL

Answer 54

Direct only

Question 55

(Refer to Figure 113 below) You receive this ATC clearance HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

Answer 55

Parallel only

Question 56

(Refer to Figure 113 below) You receive this ATC clearance: CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

Answer 56

Direct only

Question 57

(Refer to Figure 113 below.) You receive this ATC clearance: CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTCAC. HOLD NORTH ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS... What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern

Answer 57

Teardrop only

Question 58

(Refer to Figure 114 below.) A pilot receives this ATC clearance: CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD WEST ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

Answer 58

Direct only

Question 59

(Refer to Figure 114 above.) A pilot receives this ATC clearance: CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTAC. HOLD NORTH ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

Answer 59

Direct only

Question 60

(Refer to Figure 114 above.) A pilot receives this ATC clearance: CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

Answer 60

Teardrop only

Question 61

(refer to Figure 115 below.) You receive this ATC clearance: HOLD WEST OF THE ONE FIVE DME FIX ON THE ZERO NINE ZERO RADIAL OF ABC VORTAC, FIVE MILE LEGS, LEFT TURNS.. You arrive at the 15 DME fix on a heading of 350 degrees. Which holding pattern correctly complies with these instructions, and what is the recommended entry procedure?

Answer 61

1; direct

Question 62

To ensure proper airspace protection while in a holding pattern above 14,000 feet in a propeller-driven airplane, what is the maximum indicated airspeed a pilot should use?

Answer 62

265 knots

Question 63

To ensure proper airspace protection while in a holding pattern, what is the maximum airspeed above 14,000 feet for civil turbojet aircraft?

Answer 63

265 knots

Question 64

(Refer to Figure 160 on page 253 and Legend 27 below.) What is the approximate rate of descent required (for planning purposes) to maintain the electronic glide slope at 105 knots ground speed?

Answer 64

557 feet per minute

Question 65

(Refer to Figure 247 on page 255 and Legend 27 below.) With a 15 knot headwind while flying the ILS RWY 9 at RAL with 90 knots, you expect to set power for a

Answer 65

398 feet per minute rate of descent

Question 66

(refer to Figure 116 below.) You arrive over the 15 DME fix on a heading of 350 degrees. Which holding pattern correctly complies with the ATC clearance below, and what is the recommended entry procedure? HOLD WEST OF THE ONE FIVE DME FIX ON THE TWO SIX EIGHT RADIAL OF THE ABC VORTAC, FIVE MILE LEGS, LEFT TURNS

Answer 66

2; Direct entry

Question 67

(refer to figure 232 on page 257.) During the LOC RWY 35 missed approach at Duncan/Haliburton Field (DUC), what would be the appropriate entry for the holding

Answer 67

parallel

Question 68

(Refer to Figure 223 on page 259 and Legend 27 below.) You have been cleared for the ILS RWY 31 approach to DSM. At a ground speed of 90 knots, what is the rate of descent on final approach?

Answer 68

478 feet per minute

Question 69

At that point should the timing begin for the first leg outbound in a nonstandard holding pattern?

Answer 69

When over or abeam the holding fix, whichever occurs later

Question 70

What timing procedure should be used when performing a holding pattern at a VOR?

Answer 70

Timing for the outbound leg begins over or abeam the VOR, whichever occurs later

Question 71

To ensure proper airspace protection while holding at 5,000 feet in a civil aircraft, what is the maximum indicated airspeed a pilot should use?

Answer 71

200 knots

Question 72

Where a holding pattern is specified in lieu of a procedure turn, the holding maneuver must be executed within

Answer 72

the 1-minute tine limitation or DME distance as specified in the profile view

Question 73

When more than one circuit of the holding pattern is needed to lose altitude or become better established on course, the additional circuits can be made

Answer 73

only if pilot advises ATC and ATC approves

Question 74

How can an initial approach fix be identified on standard instrument approach procedure (SIAP) Chart?

Answer 74

All fixes that are labeled "IAF" which are depicted on the plan view

Question 75

Which fixes on the IAP charts are initial approach fixes?

Answer 75

Any fix that is identified by the letters IAF

Question 76

Aircraft approach categories are based on

Answer 76

1.3 times the stall speed in landing configuration at maximum gross landing weight

Question 77

How can the pilot determine, for an ILS runway equipped with MALSR, THAT THERE MAY BE A PENETRATION OF THE obstacle identification surfaces (OIS), and care should be taken in the visual segment to avoid any obstacles?

Answer 77

The published visibility for the ILS is now lowe than 3/4 SM

Question 78

(Refer to Figure 187 below.) When the MALSR are NOTAM'd out of service, what are the minimums for a category B airplane LPV approach?

Answer 78

4500 RVR

Question 79

(Refer to Figure 196 below.) What is the elevation of the TDZE for RWY 4?

Answer 79

44 feet MSL

Question 80

(Refer to Figure 210 below.) What is the TDZE elevation for RWY 6?

Answer 80

173 feet MSL

Question 81

(Refer to Figure 213 below.) The threshold elevation for landing on RWY 28R is

Answer 81

3,488 feet MSL

Question 82

(Refer to Figure 217 on page 267.) During the ILS RWY 13 procedure at DSM, what altitude minimum applies if the glide slope becomes inoperative?

Answer 82

1,380 feet

Question 83

(Refer to Figure 217 on page 267.) The symbol on the plan view of the ILS or LOC RWY 13 procedure at DSM represents a minimum safe sector altitude within 25NM of

Answer 83

Des Moines VORTAC

Question 84

(Refer to Figure 217 on page 267.) During the ILS RWY 13 procedure at DSM, the minimum altitude for glide slope interception is

Answer 84

2,600 feet MSL

Question 85

(Refer to Figure 217 on page 267.) During the approach to DSM before you can begin the ILS RWY 13 procedure, the glide slope fails and you are clreaed for the LOC RWY 13 at DSM. What altitude minimum applies?

Answer 85

1,380 feet

Question 86

The primary reason single pilot operations in reduced visibility on an instrument approach procedure are made more difficult than multicrew operations is that the pilot must

Answer 86

continue to fly by instruments while attempting to acquire a visual references for the runway

Question 87

(Refer to Figure 221 on page 269.) The finals approach fix for the precision approach is located at

Answer 87

Glide slope intercept (lighting bolt.)

Question 88

Refer to figure 221 on page 269.) The final approach fix for the ILS RWY is located at

Answer 88

Glide slope intercept (lightning bolt)

Question 89

(Refer to Figure 227 on page 271.) Refer to the APA (Centennial) ILS RWY 35R procedure. The PFAF (Precision Final approach fix) Intercept altitude is

Answer 89

8,000 feet MSL

Question 90

(Refer to Figure 227 on page 271.) You are executing the Centennial Airport (APA) ILS RWY 35R approach. What is your crossing altitude at the outer marker?

Answer 90

7,977 feet MSL

Question 91

(Refer to Figure 227 on page 271.) What is the minimum safe altitude (MSA) when maneuvering northeast of APA?

Answer 91

8,100 feet

Question 92

(Refer to Figure 227 on page 271.) The ILS RWY 35R procedure at APA depicts a symbol on the plan view that represent a minimum safe altitude sector within 25NM of

Answer 92

CASSE NDB/LOM

Question 93

When making an instrument approach at the selected alternate airport, what landing minimums apply?

Answer 93

The landing minimums published for the type of procedure selected.

Question 94

What obstacle clearance and navigation signal coverage is a pilot assured with the Minimum Sector Altitudes depicted on the IAP charts?

Answer 94

1,000 feet within a 25 NM radius of navigation facility but not acceptable navigation signal coverage

Question 95

When being radar vectored for an ILS approach, at what point my you start a descent from your last assigned altitude to a lower minimum altitude if cleared for the approach?

Answer 95

When established on a segment of a published route or IAP

Question 96

Refer to Figure 228 on Pgae 273.) The missed approach point for the LOC RWY 31 procedure is

Answer 96

2:33 from PECAT

Question 97

Which procedure should be followed by a pilot who is circling to land in a Category B airplane, but is maintaining a speed 5 knots faster than the maximum specified for that category?

Answer 97

Use the approach minimums appropriate for Category C

Question 98

When simultaneous approaches are in progress how does each pilot receive radar advisories?

Answer 98

On tower frequency

Question 99

When may a pilot make a straight-in landing, if using an IAP having only circling minimums?

Answer 99

A straight-in landing may be made if the pilot has the runway in sight in sufficient time to make a normal approach for landing, and has been cleared to land

Question 100

An airport may not be qualified for alternate use if

Answer 100

the NAV/AIDS used for the final approach are unmonitored

Question 101

(Refer to Figure 230 on page 275.) What minimum navigation equipment is required to complete the VOR/DME-A procedure?

Answer 101

One VOR receiver and DME

Question 102

(Refer to Figure 230 on page 275.) The minimum safe altitude (MSA) for the VOR/DME or GPS-A at 7D3 is geographically centered on what position?

Answer 102

White cloud VOR/DME

Question 103

(Refer to Figure 230 below, and Figure 231 on page 277.) You plan to fly to Baldwin for Christmas. What minimum equipment is required for the VOR/DME or GPS-A procedure, and can you complete the flight?

Answer 103

One VOR receiver and one DME receiver; no flight though, the airport is closed