Sulfonamides and Quinolones Flashcards

(58 cards)

1
Q

what is prontosil?

A

prodrug of the active sulfonamide, p-aminobenzenesulfonamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

sulfamonide MOA

A

competitively inhibit dihydropteroate synthase, preventing incorporation of PABA into folic acid nucleus
(bioisosteres of PABA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

why do sulfonamides not affect human cells?

A

mammal cells use preformed folates in diet, while some bacteria make their own folic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

alternate sulfonamide MOA

A

antimetabolite: some strains use drug as a substrate, but then the product is not capable of the next rxn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

can sulfonamide action be reversed?

A

yes- increase [PABA]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

describe PABA vs. sulfanilamide activity at physio pH

  • why is this a problem?
  • how it is overcome?
A

PABA pKa 6.5 -> anion at physio pH
sulfanilamide pKa 10.4 -> weak acid a physio pH

fix by attaching an e- withdrawing heteroaromatic ring to acidify the sulfonamide N and increase potency (due to electronegativity of R + resonance stabilization of anion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what side effect does the increase in acidity of sulfonamides with a more EN R group mediate?

A

increased acidity causes decreased incidence of crystalluria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

specific names of 9 sulfonamide drugs

A
sulfisoxazole 
sulfacetamide 
sulfabenzamide 
sulfamethizole 
sulfamethoxazole 
sulfathiazole 
sulfadiazine 
acetyl sulfisoxazole 

sulfasalizine (different MOA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

general uses of sulfonamides

A
G(+) and G(-) 
Nocardia 
Chlamydia 
some protozoa/fungi 
E. coli 
Klebsiella 
Salmonella 
Shigella 
Enterobacter
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

how are sulfonamides normally given? what is one example and what is it used for

A

combinations: Bactrim (TMP-SMX)

- used for AIDS pneumocystis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

MOA of TMP (trimethoprim)

A

inhibits DHFR, a sequential step in the THF synthesis pathway past where sulfamethoxazole works on DHPS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

most popular sulfonamide and use?

A

sulfisoxazole - UTIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

sulfamethoxazole use

A

UTIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the triple sulfas combination and what does it treat?

A

1: 1:1 sulfabenzamide, sulfacetamide, sulfathiazole

- used for Gardnerella vaginalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are the triple sulfas also combined with? what does this treat?

A

triple sulfas + phenylpropanolamine-pheniramine p.o.
-sinus/throat infections

pheniramine = antihistamine to decrease inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what sulfonamide is different than the rest? why and what does it treat?

A

prodrug is not well-absorbed by GI: bacteria metabolize it to 5-aminosalicylic acid (anti-inflammatory)

  • used for ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease
  • SE: irritates gastric mucosa, but not as badly as other salicylates
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

sulfadoxine use

A

long-acting: prevents/treats malaria (inhibits falciparum DHFR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is sulfadoxine often combined with and what is this combo called?

A

sulfadoxine + pyrimethamine = Fansidar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

sulfadiazine use

A

first line chemo for acute toxoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

AE of sulfonamides: general mechanisms

A
  • cross allergenic
  • these drugs used for more than abx activity:
    • CAIs (acetazolamide)
    • thiazides (ydrochlorothiazide)
    • furosemide
    • sulfonyurea hypoglycemic agents (tolbutamide)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

most common AE of sulfonamides

A

allergies: rash, photosensitivity, drug fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

rare AE of sulfonamides

A
Stevens-Johnson syndrome 
crystalluria and hematopoietic disturbances 
anorexia 
nausea 
vomit
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

three mechanisms of sulfonamide resistance

A
  1. overproduction of PABA
  2. decrease affinity of DHPS for drug
  3. decrease cell permeability to drug
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

how common is sulfonamide resistance? implications?

A

common- no longer used as single-use dudes

25
mechanism of resistance to TMP
plasmid borne version of DHFR
26
TMP PK: - absorption? - distribution? - half life? - clearance?
- absorbed 85-90% - distributed more rapidly than sulfas - T1/2 = 10-12h - drug + inactive metabolites cleared in urine
27
SMX PK: - distribution - elimination rate - half life
- widely distributed, including CSF (but not as distributed as TMP b/c differences in lipophilicity) - rapidly eliminated - T1/2 = 10-12h
28
sulfonamide metabolism
metabolized by N-4 N-acetylation, sometimes N-1 glucuronidation -> inactive -hydroxylamine + nitroso metaoblites toxic
29
division of humans in terms of sulfonamide metabolism
fast and slow acetylators-> affects metabolism
30
what are the four core structures of quinolones?
quinolone cinnolone 1,8-naphthyridone pyridopyrimidone
31
first gen quinolones: - activity? - uses? - examples?
activity: G(-), limited G(+) - don't get systemic [drug] that are useful uses: lower UTIs ex: oxolinic acid, nalidixic acid
32
second gen quinolones: - how are they different from first gen? - activity? - examples?
diff: F at C6, heterocyclic ring (piperazine) at C7 activity: broader, more potent - more G(-) and G(+) ex: norfloxacin, ciprofloxacin, levofloxcin
33
what is the most potent fluoroquinolone?
cipro!
34
3rd/4th gen quinolones: - differences? - activity? - examples?
diff: multiple F atoms activity: improved G(+), especially S. pneumo + still good G(-) (but none as good for G(-) as cipro) ex: moxifloxacin (4), sparfloxacin (3)
35
which of the quinolones is a drug of last resort? why?
moxifloxacin: severe SE - irreversible peripheral neuropathy - tendon rupture - acute liver failure - Steven-Johnson syndrome
36
quinolone MOA
inhibits action of Topoisomerase II -> stabilization of cleavage complex, which blocks DNA religation
37
most common use for quinolones + which ones?
UTIs - norfloxacin - cipro - ofloxacin - nalidixic acid
38
other uses for quinolones?
- prostatitis - STDs (gonorrhea, chlamydia, H. ducreyi) - GI bugs (travelers, shigella, cholera) - resp tract (S. pneumo, CF exacerbations) - bone/joint/soft tissue - intracell dudes (chlamydia, mycoplasma, legionella, brucella, TB)
39
specific quinolones for gonorrhea
cipro (but resistance) | -now first line is ceftriaxone
40
specific quinolones for chlamydia
ofloxacin | sparfloxacin
41
specific quinolones for H. ducreyi
cipro
42
specific quinolones for prostatitis
norfloxacin cipro ofloxacin
43
specific quinolones for shigella
norfloxacin cipro ofloxacin
44
specific quinolones for cholera
decreases duration -norfloxacin
45
specific quinolones for S. pneumo
moxifloxacin
46
specific quinolones for CF exacerbations
fluoroquinolones
47
specific quinolones for bone/joint/soft tissue
fluoroquinolones except norfloxacin
48
specific quinolones for diabetic foot infections
Cipro!
49
specific quinolones for intracellular dudes
norfloxacin | cipro
50
5 mechanisms of resistance to quinolones
1. point mutations in A subunit of DNA gyrase (lower affinity) 2. mutations of B subunit of DNA gyrase (lower level resistance) 3. additive effects of A + B subunit mutations 4. efflux pumps 5. point mutations -> cross resistance
51
describe PK of quinolones
- good p.o. bioavaliability and absorption - widely distributed (including CNS) - renal + hepatic clearance (except oxafloxacin 95% renal)
52
quinolones: drug concentrations in different places after different times
after 2h: ISF [drug] are 50-100% of serum [drug] 4-24h: ISF [drug] > serum [drug] CSF [drug] are 40-90% of serum [drug]
53
chemical reactions with quinolones?
form insoluble chelates with heavy metals
54
metabolism of quinolones
major inactive metabolite = glucuronide at 3C=O | -excreted in urine
55
AE of quinolones
- generally well tolerated - nausea, vomit, diarrhea (most common) - headache, dizzy (CNS) - hallucinations, delirium, seizures, skin rash, liver fxn abnormal, tendonitis (rare) - peripheral neuropathy w/ quins
56
contraindications of fluoroquinolones
-f'quins damage growing cartilage, cause reversible arthropathy therefore, don't give to patients less than 18 y/o, unless for CF patients w/ pseudomonas
57
specific AE of lomefloxacin
photosensitivity
58
specific AE of gatifloxacin
hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia in diabetics