Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Surg Tech 104 > Surg 104--Final Review > Flashcards

Surg 104--Final Review Flashcards

1
Q

Contrast media instilled into the urinary tract for visualization of the bladder, ureters, and kidneys is called what?

A

retrograde pyelography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Because _____ is found in contrast media, the patients must be evaluated for potential hypersensitivity.

A

iodine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Intraoperative radiation therapy is used to deliver _____ dose(s) of radiation to a specific area of the body.

A

a single

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A test that includes of blood glucose, carbon dioxide, creatinine, urea nitrogen, bicarbonate, and several important electrolytes is a _____.

A

metabolic panel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

_____ is necessary for the transmission of nerve impulses to skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscle.

A

potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Two primary tests that are performed on surgical patients to evaluate blood and blood cells is a _____.

A

complete blood count (CBC) and differential leukocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

_____ is the oxygen carrying protein attached to the red blood cell.

A

hemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When would an MRI not be used on a patient?

A

to insert a catheter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A malignant tumor _____.

A

migrates from tissue to tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A pneumoperitoneum is unnecessary during a TEP approach to inguinal hernia repair since the peritoneum is not entered.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A fibrous band or membrane lying deep to the skin supporting muscle is called _____.

A

fascia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

An incision that follows a line parallel to the midline of the body is a _____.

A

paramedian incision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How many section is the abdomen divided into?

A

4 quadrants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The _____ layer contains loose adipose tissue which varies from 1/4 inch thick to more than 8 inches.

A

“subcue” (subcutaneous)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A congenital weakness in the inguinal floor is called a _____ hernia.

A

indirect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In hernia repairs the use of _____ provides of bridge of strong material.

A

mesh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The _____ are sections of the small bowels suspended from the abdominal wall by a sheet of vascular tissue called the mesentery.

A

jejunum and ilium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

After the abdominal contents are exposed the scrub would hand only _____.

A

damp lap sponges soaked in saline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the peritoneum closed with?

A

absorbable suture on a tapered needle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does the falciform ligament do?

A

separates the lobes of the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A _____ breast biopsy is taken when a biopsy needle into the mass and tissue is retrieved for histologic examination.

A

core

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What open procedure includes creating a McBurney incision?

A

appendectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What suture technique is used on the end of an appendectomy.

A

purse-string suture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The _____ is the largest lymphatic organ in the body

A

spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the most common site for a pancreatic tumor?

A

head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Why would a surgeon choose to irrigate a mastectomy with sterile water rather than sterile or normal saline?

A

saline spreads the cancer cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Name a procedure that can be laparoscopically (minimally invasive).

A

cholecystectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

An acquired weakness in the inguinal floor.

A

inguinal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Abdominal viscera is trapped between tissue layers.

A

incarcerated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Located in Hesselbach’s triangle.

A

inguinal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Herniated tissue that has been compromised or has no blood supply.

A

stangulated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Hernia that protrudes across the membranous sac of the spermatic cord.

A

inguinal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Occurs along the linea alba or umbilicus.

A

ventral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Indirect and direct hernias are called _____.

A

inguinal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

May lead to necrosis.

A

strangulated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

A vertical incision 4 cm lateral to the abdomen is a _____.

A

paramedian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which structure could best be approached through an thoracoabdominal incision?

A

esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The suture most appropriate for closure of the intestinal mucosa?

A

3-0 chromic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The tube used to drain bile from the common bile duct following an exploration is a _____.

A

T-tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Where does a femoral hernia occur?

A

below pouparts ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which surgical procedure would require a C-arm?

A

operative cholangiogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the term used to describe male breast enlargement?

A

gynecomastia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Relief of symptoms without curing a disease is called _____.

A

palliative treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

A hernia with contents that cannot be pushed back into the abdominal cavity is a _____.

A

direct hernia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Breast infections are commonly caused by what microbe?

A

staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is a twisting of the bowel called?

A

volvulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The cervix painted with Lugol’s solution is _____.

A

the Schiller’s test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the position for an endometrial ablation?

A

lithotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Removal of a benign tumor (fibroid) of the myometrium to control bleeding and prevent pressure on other structures in the pelvis.

A

myomectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

The _____ is used to remove polyps, subcue leomyomas, and uterine adhesions.

A

resectoscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Removal of the tubal contents with preservation of the tube.

A

salpingostomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The goal of _____ is the destruction and scarification of the endometrium to render it non-functional.

A

ablation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Herniation of the bladder into the vagina?

A

cystocele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Herniation of the rectum into the vagina?

A

rectocele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

A solution that does not conduct electrical current.

A

non-electrolytic media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The _____ is the outer serous membrane of the uterus.

A

perimetrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Ligaments that surround the uterus and suspended from the pelvic wall.

A

broad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Lie below the broad ligaments and provide the primary support for the uterus.

A

cardinal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What two hormones prepare the uterus for implantation of a fertilized egg?

A

estrogen and progesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What technique of tubal ligation is the most reliable way to ensure the tubes are ligated?

A

pomeroy technique

61
Q

A method used to drain and evacuate a bartholin cyst?

A

marsupialization

62
Q

What is a self-retaining retractor used for a pfannenstiel incision?

A

O’connor-O’sullivan-

63
Q

Clamps most desirable for approximating uterine wound edges for closure during a c-section are _____.

A

pennington

64
Q

A radical hysterectomy with pelvic lymphadenectomy is a _____.

A

wertheim procedire

65
Q

What is used to make a pneumoperitoneum?

A

carbon dioxide

66
Q

A basin for contaminated instruments must be provided for which procedure?

A

abdominal hysterectomy

67
Q

Scheduled to scrub on a D&C and abdominal hysterectomy, you will:

A

set up two tables and prepare to do D&C first

68
Q

A foley catheter would be placed into the pre-surgical hysterectomy patient to _____.

A

avoid injury to the bladder

69
Q

Types of dilators for the cervix.

A

Hanks, Hagar, Pratt, Goodall

70
Q

An abdominal vesicourethral suspension is know as _____.

A

marshall-marchetti-krantz

71
Q

A varicocelectomy is done to _____.

A

improve spermatogenesis

72
Q

A chordee is sometimes associated with _____.

A

hypospadias

73
Q

What kind of incision is used during a marshall-marchetti-krantz?

A

lower midline/pfannenstiel

74
Q

Following a TURP, what is the maim reason for inserting a 30 mL 3-way foley catherter?

A

ensure adequate flow and hemostasis

75
Q

An ileal conduit procedure is most commonly performed following what procedure?

A

a radical cystestomy

76
Q

Procedure to reconstruct the ureter in the renal pelvis

A

pyeloplasty

77
Q

_____ may be used during observation of the bladder and retrograde pyleography.

A

sterile distilled water

78
Q

What is torsion of the testicle?

A

twisting

79
Q

During an orhiectomy the _____ veins and arteries are cross-clamped and ligated.

A

testicular

80
Q

What size is the usual adult cystoscope?

A

21

81
Q

Which solution is commonly used as irrigation during a TURP?

A

glycine (non-conductive)

82
Q

What is the function of renal dialysis?

A

removal of waste products

83
Q

What anatomical structure may be viewed through a cystoscopy?

A

bladder

84
Q

What is created when both ureters are anastomosed to the terminal ileum?

A

ileal conduit

85
Q

Most common surgical management for a benign prostatic hypertrophy is _____.

A

TURP

86
Q

The most commonly used self-retaining urethral catheter is a _____

A

foley

87
Q

Which instrument could be used to dilate a male urethra?

A

van buren sound

88
Q

Vesicourethral suspension such as the Stamey procedure and marshall-marchetti-krantz procedure perfomed to correct what?

A

female urinary incontinence

89
Q

Rib instruments should be available for which procedure?

A

adrenalectomy

90
Q

Circumcision involves removal of what structure?

A

prepuce

91
Q

The syringe used for evacuation of bladder debris is _____.

A

ellik evacuator

92
Q

What is the outer layer of bone called?

A

cortex

93
Q

Example of an instrument used for exposure in ortho surgery.

A

periosteal elevator

94
Q

What tissue is a slow healer and joins the articular surface of bones and cartilage?

A

ligaments

95
Q

Pathologic fracture is a fracture caused by _____.

A

metastatic disease

96
Q

Total joint replacement that involves humeral head and glenoid cavity?

A

total shoulder

97
Q

What procedure is performed when sesamoid bone is excised and abductor tendon is fixed to the lateral portion of the metatarsal neck?

A

McBride

98
Q

Which procedure is an example of neurolysis?

A

carpal tunnel

99
Q

What is used to control bleeding in the bone?

A

bone wax

100
Q

What type of laser may be used through an arthroscope?

A

carbon dioxide

101
Q

Method of fixation used in total joint arthroplasty procedures?

A

biofixation

102
Q

What is a component of a total knee replacement?

A

patellar component

103
Q

What is a cause of osteomyelitis?

A

peripheral vascular disease

104
Q

Possible post-op complication after an ortho procedure?

A

fat embolism

105
Q

Intra-medullary nails commonly used to repair fractures of _____.

A

tibia and femur

106
Q

In ortho surgery, absorbable suture would most likely be used on _____.

A

periosteum

107
Q

Removal of a fluid filled sac protruding between wrist joints is an _____.

A

excision of a ganglion

108
Q

Placement of fixation pins through the skin into the bone proximal and distal to the fracture site which are then connected to stabilizing bars is _____.

A

external fixation

109
Q

Abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is _____.

A

scoliosis

110
Q

death of bone tissue due to lack of circulation is _____.

A

avascular necrosis

111
Q

Most likely donor site for autogenous bone graft is _____.

A

ilium

112
Q

Type of fracture that includes splintered or crushed bones.

A

comminuted fratcure

113
Q

Wrist fracture.

A

colles

114
Q

Heavy sutures used to reattached a weakened anterior capsule to the glenoid fossa to correct recurrent dislocation of the shoulder is which procedure?

A

Bankart procedure

115
Q

Bone obtained form the patient for bone graft is called _____.

A

autogenic

116
Q

Fixation device most commonly used for interochanteric fracture of the femur.

A

compression plates and screws

117
Q

Screws come in what types?

A

Cortical and Cancellous

118
Q

Implant used on small bone fragments or as part of skeletal traction.

A

steinmann pin

119
Q

Fracture where healing has not taken place in the usual amount of time.

A

delayed union

120
Q

Dilating drops are called _____.

A

mydriatic

121
Q

Medication that may be added to a local anesthetic to increase absorption of dispersion would be _____.

A

wydase

122
Q

What is the corner of the eye called?

A

canthus

123
Q

A radical keratotomy is done to repair ______.

A

myopia

124
Q

Procedure involving the removal of all orbital contents is a _____.

A

exenteration

125
Q

Complications during intraoperative surgery.

A

systemic reaction to drugs
loss of vitreous
hemorrhage

126
Q

Which drug is used to constrict the pupil immediately following the removal of a cataract?

A

acetacholine (miochol)

127
Q

Space between the lens and iris.

A

posterior chamber

128
Q

Procedure of choice for retinal detachment.

A

scleral buckling

129
Q

Intraocular pressure is measured with a _____.

A

tenometer

130
Q

During surgery the eye is irrigated with _____.

A

BSS

131
Q

Condition in which the crystalline lens of the eye or its capsule become opaque.

A

cataract

132
Q

Performed to create a permanent opening in the tear duct for draining a tears.

A

dacryocystorhinostomy

133
Q

Eye muscle surgery performed to repair deviation in the eye caused by _____.

A

strabismus

134
Q

Abnormal inversion of the lower eyelid.

A

intropian

135
Q

Patch of degenerative elastic tissue that proliferates from the conjunctiva due to chronic irritation.

A

ptygerium

136
Q

Performed to treat an intraocular malignancy such a retnablostoma and melanoma.

A

enucleation

137
Q

Common technique to repair retinal detachment produces _____ between the detached layers.

A

adhesions

138
Q

Betadine must be diluted to _____.

A

10%

139
Q

Clear fluid that fills the anterior and posterior chambers.

A

aqueos

140
Q

Tissue that refracts light rays as they enter the eye.

A

cornea

141
Q

Pigmented part of eye.

A

iris

142
Q

Gel substance that fills posterior of eye.

A

vitreous

143
Q

Anterior space in front of lens and iris.

A

anterior chamber

144
Q

Following a cataract extraction a _____ vitriectomy may be indicated, considered a complication of surgery

A

anterior

145
Q

An intravitreous gas injection is done to create pressure on the retina, the gases used are _____.

A

sulfur and propane

146
Q

Glaucoma is classified as _____.

A

open angle or closed angle

147
Q

Fluorescein angiography used is the evaluation and diagnosis of _____.

A

retinal and choroid disease

148
Q

What does fluorescein stain?

A

cornea

Surg Tech 104 (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions