Surg 104--Chapter 36 (B&K) Flashcards

1
Q

Ortho patient care is _____.

A

individualized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Ortho is concerned with the diagnosis, care, and treatment of _____.

A

musculoskeletal disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Ortho is concerned with injury to the body’s system of _____.

A

bones, joints, ligaments, muscles, and tendons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Fusion of a joint.

A

arthrodesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Disruption of the blood supply to a bone that causes death and irreversible decay of the osseous tissue.

A

avascular necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A cast cut into two parts-front and back for removal and reapplication.

A

bi-valve cast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Adverse physiologic response of the patient to placement of bone cement in the medullary cavity.

A

bone cement implantation syndrome (BCIS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Swelling between layers of fascia that causes damage to tissue; toxins cause death of tissue.

A

compartment syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Used to encase and stabilize a structure; casts are made of plaster or fiberglass.

A

cast material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Closed reduction of a fracture without opening the skin.

A

CR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Generating heat.

A

exothermic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Evacuation of blood from a limb before inflating a tourniquet to create a bloodless field.

A

exsanguinate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Emergency procedure to release pressure on region of compartment syndrome.

A

fasciotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Specialized clean air delivery to the orthopedic OR; the direction of air flow is carefully calculated to enter and exit the room without generating air-borne particulate.

A

laminar air flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Open reduction and internal fixation of a fracture.

A

ORIF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Basophilic cells that synthesize collagen and glycoprotein to form bone matrix.

A

osteoblast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Cells in the bone that influence growth and regeneration by breakdown and resorption of existing cellular material.

A

osteoclast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Bone infection

A

osteomyelitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The healing process of a bone.

A

union

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The failure of a bone to align and heal.

A

nonunion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The human skeleton has _____ separate bones.

A

206

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Ortho surgery is concerned primarily with the structures in the _____ and _____, including the _____, _____, and the _____.

A

upper and lower extremities

shoulder, hip joints, and vertebral column

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The human body is divided in the _____ skeleton and the _____ skeleton.

A

axial

appendicular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The axial skeleton consists of _____ bones that make up the _____, _____, and _____.

A

80

skull, vertebrae, and ribcage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The appendicular skeleton consists of _____ bones that make up the _____.

A

126

limbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Each upper extremity has _____ bones.

A

32

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Each lower extremity has _____ bones.

A

31

28
Q

Bones are classified by shape as _____, _____, _____, and _____,

A

long, short, flat, and irregular

29
Q

Longs bones include:

A
  • humerus
  • radius and ulna
  • femur
  • tibia and fibula
30
Q

The end of a long bone….

A

epiphysis

31
Q

The shaft of a long bone…

A

diaphysis

32
Q

Thin plates of _____ are found in the ends of long bones.

A

cartilage

33
Q

Short bones include…

A

bones of hand and foot

34
Q

Flat bones include…

A

scapula and patella

35
Q

Irregular bones include…

A

vertebrae

36
Q

Outer layer of bone, compact, hard connective tissue.

A

cortex

37
Q

Found in the ends of long bones, porosites of cancellous bones, and flatter bones, such as the skull, sternum, and pelvic bones.

A

red bone marrow

38
Q

Responsible for erythropoiesis (formation of red blood cells and certain white blood cells)

A

red bone marrow

39
Q

Found in medullary canals, or shafts of long bones, and has a higher adipose content.

A

yellow bone marrow

40
Q

Strong fibrous membrane that covers bone except at joints.

A

periosteum

41
Q

Lengthwise, lamellar structures that provide weight-bearing strength and passage for additional blood supply.

A

haversian canals

42
Q

Lines the inner aspect of bones.

A

endosteum

43
Q

Steps of bone healing:

A
  1. Hematoma formation
  2. Callus formation
  3. Calcification process
  4. Remodeling phase
44
Q

Hematoma formation:

A
  • blood accumulates in the area of the break
  • inflammatory process begins
  • extravascular blood converts from a liquid to a semisolid clot
  • active phagocytosis removes necrotic tissue and debris
45
Q

Callus formation:

A
  • fibrin cells for a network around the injured area
  • damaged periosteum is stimulated to generate osteoblasts, forming new bony substance called osteoid
  • a callus is visible on radiograph within 1 to 2 weeks of injury
46
Q

Calcification process:

A
  • begins and establishes support of the injury
  • connective tissue proliferates across the site
  • injury usually completely calcified within 6 weeks
47
Q

Remodeling phase:

A
  • excess cellular material is resorbed, and the bones resumes its preinjury strength and configuration
  • enhanced by stress and exercise
  • can take up to 6 month to 1 year
48
Q

Cartilage:

A
  • smooth, firm, compressible connective tissue
  • cushions most articular surfaces at the ends of bones
  • does not have a direct blood supply and devoid of lymphatics and nerves
  • derives its nutrition from synovial fluid
49
Q

Joints:

A
  • ends of bones come together in joints
  • articular cartilage and construction of the joint prevent bones from scraping against each other
  • synovial fluid keeps the joint free of debris and bacteria that could interfere with mobility
  • classified by variations in structure that permit movement
50
Q

Synovial fluid contains _____ and _____.

A

macrophages and white blood cells

51
Q

Ball and socket joints:

A

hip and shoulder

52
Q

Hinged joints:

A

knee, ankle, elbow, and phalangeal joints of the fingers

53
Q

Condyloid joint:

A

wrist

54
Q

Saddle joint:

A

thumb

55
Q

Ligaments:

A
  • bands of flexible, tough fibrous tissue that join the articular surfaces of bones and cartilage
  • avascular and heal slowly
  • do not readily reattach to bone when torn and are prone to subsequent reinjury
56
Q

Smooth muscle is _____.

A

involuntary

57
Q

Branching muscle is _____.

A

cardiac

58
Q

Striated skeletal muscle is _____.

A

voluntary

59
Q

Tendons:

A
  • bands of extremely strong, fibrous tissue that attach muscle bundles to the periosteum of bones
  • encased in the synovial membrane sheath of movable joints
60
Q

Semi-sharp instruments used to strip periosteum from bone without destroying its ability to regenerate new bone, and used for blunt dissection.

A

Periosteal elevators (exposing instrument)

61
Q

Instruments used to hold, manipulate, or retract bone.

A

grasping instruments

62
Q

Instruments used to remove soft tissue around bone; to cut into, or cut out portions of bone; and to smooth jagged edges of bone.

A

cutting instruments

63
Q

Cutting action from front to back.

A

reciprocating

64
Q

Cutting action from side to side.

A

oscillating

65
Q

Bone grafts obtained from the crest of the ilium.

A

autologous cancellous and cortical bone

66
Q

Bone graft obtained from the fibula.

A

cortical bone