Syphilis Flashcards

(57 cards)

1
Q

Causative agent of syphilis

A

Treponema pallidum subsp. pallidum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

syphilis is transmitted by?

A

direct contact

sexual and perinatal (across the placenta)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

early asymptomatic phase lasts?

A

10 days to 10 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

after T. pallidum enters the body, what’s next?

A

it reaches the bloodstream and is disseminated to all organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

identify the stage

chancre appears

A

primary syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

painless initial lesion, nonbleeding ulcer

“punched out” appearance with a red and smooth based and visible scant serous secretions

A

chancre

appears after the initial infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

chancre appears — after the initial infection

days/weeks

A

2 - 3 weeks after initial infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

primary syphilis

what’s next after the chancre appears?

A

lymph nodes enlarge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

identify the stage

antibodies are produced

A

primary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

antibodies are produced — after the infection

days/weeks

A

1-4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

darkfield analysis of lesion demonstrates?

A

spirochetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

enumerate the symptoms that starts to appear during the secondary stage

7 symptoms

A
  • skin rash
  • low-grade fever
  • malaise
  • pharyngitis
  • weight loss
  • arthralgia
  • lymphadenopathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

symptoms during secondary syphilis last?

A

4-6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

identify.

spirochetes are present throughout the body during this stage

A

secondary syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

identify the stage

ulcer develop on mucous membranes

A

secondary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

identify the stage

serologic tests are positive

A

secondary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

identify the stage

condyloma lata

A

secondary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

formed by coalescence of large, pale, flat-topped papules. occur in warm, moist areas

A

condyloma lata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

condyloma lata occur in warm, moist areas such as — and are highly infectious

A

perianal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

identify

stage of syphilis with no signs or symptoms

A

latency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

identify the stage

nontreponemal and treponemal serologic tests are positive

A

latency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

identify the stage

one in four individuals relapses into secondary syphilis

A

early latency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

identify the stage

the patient is resistant to reinfection and to relapses

24
Q

symptoms of tertiary occur — after initial infetion

25
this refers to the syphilis lesions due to *hypersensitivity* reaction to treponemal antigens and are found throughout the body
gummas
26
# identify the stage gummas
tertiary
27
this diseases/symptoms can occur during tertiary stage | enumerate!
- syphilitic aortitis - aortic valve insufficiency - thoracic aneurysm
28
neurosyphilis can cause?
blindness and senility
29
most common complication of late syphilis
gummas | it may be single or multiple. ## Footnote indolent, slowly progressive, and indurated granulomata, with central healing and atrophic scar surrounded by hyperpigmented borders.
30
# true or false gummas are destructive and hard to treat
FALSE | gummas responds rapidly to treatment
31
# true or false T. pallidum can cross the placenta during any stage of the disease
TRUE | congenital syphilis
32
# congenital syphilis infection of the fetus causes --- | enumerate
- late abortion - stillbirth - neonatal death/disease - latent infection
33
# true or false the outcome does not depend on the stage of the mother's disease - primary or secondary syphilis causing the worst outcome - and the age of the fetus at infection
FALSE | it DOES depend
34
Congenital syphilis is avoided if the mother received the treatment during ---
first 4 months of pregnancy
35
congenital syphilis presents in the neonate as? | enumerate the 7
- maculopapular desquamatous rash (mouth, palm, soles) - hemolytic anemia - jaundice - hepatosplenomegaly - abnormal cartilage and bone involvement - mental retardation
36
definitive diagnosis is made by detection of T. pallidum in --- | enumerate the 4
- CSF - umbilical cors - skin - mucous membrane lesions | depending on the stage of the disease
37
T. pallidum is detected using?
darkfield microscopy or silver stain
38
used to detect T. pallidum in lesions
fluorescence labeled antibody | Direct Fluorescent antibody-Z pallidum (DFA-TP) test
39
# identify what test detect reagin and are only used for screening because antibody will cross react with similar antigens present in SLE, autoimmune disease, pregnancy, and some chronic infections such as hepatitis
nontreponemal antigen tests
40
# nontreponemal test SLE, autoimmune disease, pregnancy, and some chronic infections such as hepatitis these conditions can result in?
false positives
41
enumerate the nontreponemal antigen tests
- Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) - unheated serum reagin (USR) - rapid plasma reagin (RPR) assays
42
all reactive results must be confirmed using a test called?
treponemal antigen tests
43
uses T. pallidum cells as antigen source and these assays are highly specific | identify what test
treponemal antigen test
44
identify the treponemal antigen tests
- fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-ABS) - T. pallidum particulate agglutination (TP-PA) - microhemmaglutination T. pallidum tests
45
this test measures the antibody (reagin) a patient has formed against cardiolipin, cholesterol, and lecithin
VDRL test | Venereal Disease Research Laboratory
46
VDRL tests are read microscopy for?
flocculation | nonreactive NR, weak reactive WR, reactive R
47
48
48
this test is positive 1-3 weeks after the chancre appears
VDRL test | limited to use on CSF ## Footnote the only serologic test approved for testing CSF
48
a modified VDRL test in which choline-chloride EDTA is added to the VDRL antigen. the addition of this compound allows serum that has not been heat inactivated to be tested
USR test | unheated serum reagin
49
# macroscopic flocculation the assay uses VDRL antigen with charcoal particles. the antigen is not attached to the charcoal as in latex agglutination assays. the charcoal is trapped in the flocculation reaction, which allows the reaction to be seen macroscopically
RPR test | rapid plasma reagin
50
# RPR test dilutions are made to semi quantify the?
amount of antibody present | this test can be quali or semiquantitative
51
# identidy what test treponemal antigen is combined with liposomes. if antibodies are present, a mat of agglutination forms in wells of a microtiter plate
TP-PA test | T. pallidum particulate agglutination
52
principle of FTA-ABS test
indirect antibody test
53
# FTA-ABS test --- of T. pallidum subsp. pallidum is affixed into wells of microscope slides
Nichol's strain | patient serum is **heated inactivated**
53
# FTA-ABS nontreponemal antibody is absorbed from patient serum with a sorbent of --- of nonpathogenic treponeme
Reiter's strain
54
# FTA-ABS fluorescent reactions are graded ---
1 - 4+ | FITC-labeled antihuman antibody is added